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102 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following dental conditions could not be diagnosed through the x-ray?
Acute gingivitus
Compared to visible light, the speed of x-rays is?
about the same.
What effect of x-rays varies inversely with the wavelength?
Which of the following factors determines the penetrating power of x-rays?
What special effect do x-rays have on certain chemical crystals, such as calcium tungstate?
Which component of the dental x-ray machine automatically resets itself after each use?
Electronic timer.
Which of the following is a principle part of the cathode in the x-ray tube?
Tungsten filament.
Which of the following would be typical descriptive of x-rays produced by low voltage?
Longer wavelength and low penetration.
You find that a patient has been exposed to radiation about his or her head and neck area within the preceding week. What is the wisest action for you to take with the patient?
Defer x-ray exposure until you consult the dentist.
What type of radiation comes directly from the focal spot on the anode target of the x-ray tube?
What effect is responsible for scatter radiation generated during the radiographic process?
When expossing x-ray film, which of the following safety practices is not a concern to you as an operator?
Hold the film in the patient's mouth during the exposure.
What is the purpose of the aluminum disk located where the x-rays exit the tube head?
Absorbs poor quality radiation that would normally be absorbed by the patient.
The purpose of the collimatiion as a built in safety feature of modern x-ray equipment is to?
restrict the x-ray beam to only the area of interest.
What type of film is occasionally used to obtain a general view of the maxillary or mandibular area?
Which of the following factors normally limits the panoramic x-ray technique to full-mouth surveys?
Distortion factor.
Enlargement of the image is reduced using the parallel technique compared to the bisecting technique because the focal film distance is
increased to appoximately 16 to 20 inches.
What effect does increasing the focal film distance have on the x-ray image?
Enlargement is reduced.
The best technique in establishing a parallel realtionship between the film packet and the structures to be radiographed is to?
use the X-C-P instrument.
What is the position of the film for proper parallelism?
Towards the midline.
When preparing your patient for pariapical exposures, which of the following steps is not included?
Have the patient keep his eyes open,
Which of the following maxillary teeth is centered on the film when exposing the maxillary bicuspid region?
Second bicuspid.
When using the X-C-P instrument to x-ray the mandibular molar region, position the film in the mouth with the?
second molar centered on the film.
Primarly, the bitewing or interproximal examination is used to reveal?
the presence of caries in the crowns of the teeth.
Which type of radiograph is of great value in diagnosing foreign bodies in the jaw or maxillary sinuses?
An occlusal radiograph could help diagnose?
cysts and impacted teeth.
Which occlusal exposure is taken with the central ray directed 65 degrees downward at the interior border of the nasal bones?
Maxillary anterior.
How many feet above the working area should you place the safelight in the radiographic darkroom to prevent fogging of a radiograph?
Radiographic darkroom illumination is considered safe if it does not affect a film that has been exposed to it for a period of?
3 to 5 minutes.
From what aspect are you viewing a film when looking at the bump of the embossed dot on a radiograph?
Identify the radiographed area that would reveal the nasal spine?
Maxillary incisors.
The sharpness of an image on a dental radiograph is referred to as the?
Radiographic quality that is determined by the degree of blackening of the film is called?
The difference between the black, white, and various shades of gray on dental radiographs is reffered to as?
How often should the radiographic process be checked?
After you expose and develop your film using the step wedge, normal contrast will reveal?
all 10 steps of the wedge.
The function of the image scanner is used to process the image on the?
image plate.
What is a disadvantage of digital radiography?
Digital radiography systems are expensive.
Who should actively participate in the preventive dentistry program?
All dental personnel.
What is the purpose of the periodic dental examination?
All of the above, establish currency of dental class, early detection of oral pathology, and proper custody of dental health record.
Which of the following is not part of the clinical phase of the dental health program?
Fluoridation of water supplies.
Which of the following publications outlines the conditions and procedures for military water fluridation programs?
AFI 48-119.
Under what conditions are pit and fissure sealants applied?
When needed, if staffing and workload permit.
When do family member children receive definitive dental treatment?
If the patient is located where dental care for family members is authorized.
What is the key to success for any presentation?
Which method of presentation is an orderly exchange of ideas with a goal in mind?
During your presentation, you can keep your voice interesting by?
varying the pitch, rate, and force.
What can you do during your presentation to show your audience that you are interested in them and to check for signs of doubt, confusion, or boredom?
Use direct eye contact.
If your patient has radiographs taken since the previous oral prophylaxis, evaluate them for?
subgingival calculus and overhanging margins.
A patient who has one carious lesion in the last 3 years will have a caries risk assessment code of?
How far is the dental unit light kept above or in front of the patient?
At arms length.
What do you remove from the teeth when scaling them?
The primary factor in the selection of an instrument for calculus removal is the?
amount of calculus present in the patient's mouth.
What causes an increase in water teampature in the ultrasonic scaler?
Decrease in water flow and increase in power level.
You must bleed any air trapped in the ultrasonic handpiece when an insert is placed because trapped air
could cause excessive heating.
Which ultrasonic insert tip is designed for supragingival and subgingival calculus removal in all areas?
If you note patient sensitivity when using the ultrasonic scaler, which of the following is not used to alleviate the discomfort?
Increase the power setting.
Hand scaling with currettes is superior to scaling with other hand instruments because currettes?
have proven to be less traumatic to the hard structures, cementum, and supporting structures of the teeth.
Which of the following currettes is used to scale anterior teeth?
Gracey 1/2.
Which of the following currettesis specially designed to scale distal surfaces of the posterior teeth?
Gracey 11/12.
Which of the following instruments serves as a universal currette?
Columbia 13/14.
When using the modified pen grasp to scale teeth, which finger is always used as a finger rest?
If a patient has gross supragingival calculus deposits, what instrument is particulary useful for performing the gross scaling?
Ultrasonic instrument.
Your job is not to chastise the patient for his or her past neglect, but to
educate and rehabilitate him or her toward improved oral hygiene.
Calculus and debris can be removed from the working end of your instrument by all of the following methods except by wiping the instrument
directly on the patient's towel.
As a general rule, which method is most practical for locating calculus in the periodontal pocket?
Locate deposits by inserting an explorer or fine currette into the pocket area and feel the rough texture.
The most difficult areas for locating and removing calculus deposits are the
concave grooves leading into the furucation areas of the multirooted teeth.
The polishing cup and brush are used for prophylaxis work in conjunction with a
right-angle handpiece.
Which grasp is used to hold the right-angled (prophylaxis) handpiece?
Modified pen grasp.
The speed of the polishing handpiece must be kept?
slow and even.
Which of the following is not proper procedure to care for the handpiece assembly of the air polishing unit?
Insert a wire cleaning tool from the back end of the insert to clean it.
Which of the following statements is not accurate regarding the use of the air polishing unit?
Use on highly polished metal restoratiion to improve the polished finish.
How long should patients avoid eating, drinking, rinsing, or smoking after their fluoride application?
30 minutes.
As a result of complete binary fission, bacterial cells are usually found individually or in?
Which disease is an example of a virus-caused disease?
Bacteria that derive their nourishment from dead or decaying matter are termed?
What is the most common of all bacteria?
Which of the following bacteria are described as anaerobic and their name means coiled hair?
When showing and explaining why good oral hygiene care is needed, what can have the greatest impact on the patient?
Disclosing agent.
What is the most important thing that you can tell your patients during a dental health talk?
How to clean their mouths properly.
How often must bacterial plaque be effectively removed to prevent dental disease?
At least once in a 24-hour period.
Rinse vigorously with water after flossing to?
remove food particles you have scraped.
When should patients who wear prosthetic appliences remove and clean them?
After meals.
Where in the digestive tract are most of the nutrients absorbed?
Small intestine.
In what part of the digestive tract does the food mass change from a liquid to a semisolid state?
Large intestine.
What is the chemical process of either building or breaking down complex body elements into simple ones, along with the production of heat and energy?
Which particular classificatiion of carbohydrates remains in the intestine to promote the bacterial growth during the digestive process?
An excess of carbohydrates in the form of concentrated sweets can?
promote tooth decay.
Which of the following food groups contain fatty acid with more than one missing hydrogen atom?
Oils such as those extracted from corn, safflower, and soybeans.
Fats do not carry which of the following fat-soluble vitamins?
In an ideal diet, what percentage of the total calorie intake is recommended to be fat?
25 to 30 percent.
A good, reliable source of vitamin E would be to include which of the following foods or supplements in the diet?
Vegetable Oils.
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins can cause skin changes such as cracks at the corners of the mouth?
The major function of sodium in the diet is to help?
regulate the body's water balance.
What food is a source of iron?
What is the normal recommended human intake of water per day?
6 to 8 cups.
The chief reason that fiber, as a source of bulk, is included in the diet is to?
stimulate peristaltic action.
An excess of fiber in the diet can?
delay the emptying time of the stomach.
The bread and cereal group supplies other vitamins of the B-complex group and?
Bread and cereal products are an important source of food energy because they are very rich in?
Two servings of food from the meat group will furnish the average adult with?
one-half of the daily protein requirement.
What is the major nutritional contribution made to the diet by those additional or extra foods that supplement the food guide pyramid?