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138 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
How is doctrine applied?
Authoritative but not directive
Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission?
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
Why is the Medical Doctrine necessary?
Guides commanders in using assets
Wha type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
Operational
Tactical Doctrine can explained best by which of the following examples?
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Which of the following is NOT one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with?
Use of Force
While commander's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and welness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
Every airmen
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Doctrine is accomplished?
Competency
What is meant by the statement, "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature"?
While doctrine has an enormous amount of guidance and experience, it does not state what you must do or how you must complete a task or mission
The Air Force and Medical Service Doctrine applies to whom?
Air Force and Medical Service Doctrine applies to all Active Duty, Air Force Reserve, Air National Guard and civilian Air Force personnel
How is doctrine applied?
Authoritative but not directive
Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders to accomplish their mission?
AFDD 2-4.2, Health Services
Why is the Medical Doctrine necessary?
Guides commanders in using assets
Wha type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
Operational
Tactical Doctrine can explained best by which of the following examples?
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Which of the following is NOT one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airmen should be familiar with?
Use of Force
While commander's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and welness of their personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?
Every airmen
When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined, what specific Air Force Medical Doctrine is accomplished?
Competency
What is meant by the statement, "doctrine is authoritative but not directive in nature"?
While doctrine has an enormous amount of guidance and experience, it does not state what you must do or how you must complete a task or mission
The Air Force and Medical Service Doctrine applies to whom?
Air Force and Medical Service Doctrine applies to all Active Duty, Air Force Reserve, Air National Guard and civilian Air Force personnel
How does Air Force Doctrine aid AFMS commanders in accompllishing the mission?
Air Force Doctrine provides commanders guidance to determine how to appropriately use its assets based on people, information, and support systems assigned to the mission.
What type of doctrine guides organization and empoyment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environments?
Operational
Using the automobile example, which doctrine is best describe and explained if you are a buyer seeking a very fast car with specific qualities such as a "Candy Apple Red" paint job, racing rims and an extended warranty?
Tactical Doctrine
What are the operational doctrine principles of the Air Force Health Services for maintaining health and fitness?
Intergrating prevention-orientated health, fitness, and medical intervention
What are Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS)?
Foundational Doctrine Statements (FDS) are basic principles and beliefs that help create the Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) and the information found in the AFDDs expands and supports these statements
What concept is critical to attaining the goal of a healthy and fit force?
Each Airmen is a "human weapon system"
What are the three FDS that the medical airman should be familiar with?
Roles and Responsibilities of the AFMS, Force Health Protection and Competency
What constitutes "Competency" for the AFMS?
AFMS core competency is the combination of professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how that, when applied produces superior health services support capabilities.
What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?
First
How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
Two
In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty Training Standard?
Two
Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
Master Training Plan
Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience Identifier?
Aeromedical Evacuation Technician
Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?
Aerospace medical service journeyman
When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and manangement skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the
apprentice to the journeyman
Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?
Positively influence the patient's visit
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
Career Field Manager
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
Three years
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?
Supervisor
(1) Identifies the skill level of the AFS.
(2) Identifies the career field family
(3) Identifies the career field subdivision.
(4) Identifies enlisted specialty and specific expertise.
(5) Identifies the career grouping.
(1) 4N05

(2) 4N

(3) 4N0

(4) 4N051

(5) 4
What is the difference between the PAFSC and DAFSC?
The Primary AFSC (PAFSC) denotes the member's highest skill level attained, while the Duty AFSC (DAFSC) is used to show the actual positioon the individual is filling within their current organization.
How many parts is the CFETP divided into and what is contained in those parts?
The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is divided into two parts. Part 1: Contains information necessary for the overall management of the 4N0XX and specialties. Part 2: Contains the Specialtiy Training Standard (STS) that outlines training requirements and enables you to do your job.
In what part of the CFTEP would you find Community College of the Air Force (CCAF), upgrade training diagrams and requirements for specialty qualification?
Part 1 of the CFETP
On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed in the STS?
AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
What is the master training plan designed to do; what is circled?
The MTP is devloped by the supervisor to outline training goals and milestones for all enlisted personnel within the specific area that you are assigned to. All core tasks, upgrade training tasks that you are required to be trained on will be circled.
What is the difference between career knowledge training and job proficency training?
Career knowledge developement includes task knowledge and subject knowledge. Task knowledge is the knowledge needed to perform a particular task safely, accurately, and effectively. Job proficiency training increases "hands on" skills while you're performing the duties and tasks of an AFSC.
What specific four people are important to developing your future?
Your Unit Training Manager, trainer, task certifier and supervisor.
Who is resposible to order and track your progress in the CDCs and orders your course exam when you have completed your CDC set?
The unit training manager
Who is the key ingredient to your training program and what are some attributes necessary for success?
You (the trainee) are the key ingredient to your training. Necessary attributes are attentiveness to training, enthusiasm, initiative and asking for the opportunity to assist or watch what is being done.
How is sustainment training accomplished?
Sustainment Training is accomplished through qualification training, formal training courses, in-service training and exercises.
List at least three of the basic qualifications to be or maintain your status as a 4N0X1.
Basic qualifications to be or maintain your status as a 4N0X1 include but are not limited to: Completion of the Aerospace Medical Service Aprretice course, achieving your National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certification and readiness training, Qualification Training Packages (QTPs), Readiness Skills Verificatioon Program (RSVP), annual, ancillary and locally developed training
What is the purpose of an in-service?
To focus on areas or skills that are encountered frequently or that you have a high probability of encountering or to focus on an area that needs improvement
How are subspecialties of the 4N0X1 career field identified?
Subspecialties are identified by the use of "shredouts" or Special Experience Identifiers (SEIs)
What is the title of the 4N0X1C Shredout?
Independent Duty Medical Technician (IDMT)
What does the SEI 494 stand for?
Aeromedical Evacuation Technician (AET)
What is required to be completed to achieve the AFSC 4N051?
The 4N051 must complete Phase 1 & 2 technical training, career knowledge upgrade including the 5-level CDCs, job proficiency upgrade and be technically ready to accomplish the mission
What skill leel has accomplished all primary duty requirements, PME requirements for skill level and is in training to become or is a mid-level manager?
The 4N071, Craftsman
Who recieves the completed Job Inventory and what is the informaton used for?
The Career Field Manager (CFM) recieves the completed job Inventory (JI). The JI is normally used at Utilization & Training Workshops where senior enlisted leaders decide the future of all phases of training such as Phase 1 & 2, CDC development, QTPs, RSVP and WAPS
What is GAS and who completes it?
GAS is the Graduate Assessment Survey. It is a survey the supervisor completes about about the new graduate's ability to perform tasks in the career field.
What areas are assessed on the GAS?
Military standards, ability to perform at the apprentice level outlined in the CFETP, assessment if apprentice skills meet the 3-level job required in your workplace, graduate's familiarity/awareness of the AEF, confirmation that the trainee arrived at designated duty station.
List at least three of the basic qualifications to be or maintain your status as a 4N0X1.
Basic qualifications to be or maintain your status as a 4N0X1 include but are not limited to: Completion of the Aerospace Medical Service Aprretice course, achieving your National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certification and readiness training, Qualification Training Packages (QTPs), Readiness Skills Verificatioon Program (RSVP), annual, ancillary and locally developed training
What is the purpose of an in-service?
To focus on areas or skills that are encountered frequently or that you have a high probability of encountering or to focus on an area that needs improvement
How are subspecialties of the 4N0X1 career field identified?
Subspecialties are identified by the use of "shredouts" or Special Experience Identifiers (SEIs)
What is the title of the 4N0X1C Shredout?
Independent Duty Medical Technician (IDMT)
What does the SEI 494 stand for?
Aeromedical Evacuation Technician (AET)
What is required to be completed to achieve the AFSC 4N051?
The 4N051 must complete Phase 1 & 2 technical training, career knowledge upgrade including the 5-level CDCs, job proficiency upgrade and be technically ready to accomplish the mission
What skill leel has accomplished all primary duty requirements, PME requirements for skill level and is in training to become or is a mid-level manager?
The 4N071, Craftsman
Who recieves the completed Job Inventory and what is the informaton used for?
The Career Field Manager (CFM) recieves the completed job Inventory (JI). The JI is normally used at Utilization & Training Workshops where senior enlisted leaders decide the future of all phases of training such as Phase 1 & 2, CDC development, QTPs, RSVP and WAPS
What is GAS and who completes it?
GAS is the Graduate Assessment Survey. It is a survey the supervisor completes about about the new graduate's ability to perform tasks in the career field.
What areas are assessed on the GAS?
Military standards, ability to perform at the apprentice level outlined in the CFETP, assessment if apprentice skills meet the 3-level job required in your workplace, graduate's familiarity/awareness of the AEF, confirmation that the trainee arrived at designated duty station.
Who is responsible for conducting AFSC Job Inventory Surveys?
The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS)
What is the purpose of documenting training?
Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness
On what form would you document specific duty positioon training that is not listed on the Specialty Training Standard?
AF Form 707, Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual Training Record?
When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.
Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the cardiopulmonary resuscition card be filed in the the Individual Training Record?
Part 6, Section B
What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
Evaluate learning through performance or tests
How is documentation of 4N0X1 training maintained?
Documentation of 4N0X1 training is maintained in the six-part training folder, formally called the Individual Traininng Record and most often referred to as the OJT Record.
In what section is the CFETP placed?
The CFETP is placed in Part 2, Section B of the OJT record.
What form is used to document special task certification and recurring training? In what section would you file this form in your Individual Training Record (OJT)?
AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training. This form is filed in Part 3 of the Individual Training Record (OJT) and is used to document training for Sections A, B, and C.
Where is AETC Form 156, Student Training Report placed and when may it be removed?
Part 4, Section B. Once the individual had completed upgrade training to the Journeyman level report can be removed.
You just recieved your new NRMET card. Where should you file a copy of it?
A copy of your NREMT card is placed in Part 6, Section B. Copies of NREMT continuing education hours are placed in Part 6, Section A.
What steps should you follow to develop and conduct an in-service?
a) Prepare the lesson plan or demonstration.
b) Research material to ensure it is accurate and current.
c) Use Training reference approved by field supervisors or formal (schoolhouse) course developers.
d) Evaluate learning by asking questions, administering tests, or observing trainee perfprmance.
e) Document training completion in each individual's training record.
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
MEPRS
How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?
Type and section
What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
UPMR
Which of the follow is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position?
Manpower Authorization
Who approves or disproves an Authorization Change Request?
MAJCOM
What does MEPRS stand for?
Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System (MEPRS)
How are all hospital activities grouped in MEPRS?
According to type and section
What is the MEPRS used for?
MEPRS viewing of the overall operation of the MTF in one database and is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget and other resource allocation decisions.
What is the technician's responsibility in completing the MEPRS information?
The technician must ensure accurate and timely information is provided
What is a manpower authorization?
A funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly define the position.
What is the purpose of the UDM?
The UDM is used to help manage resources. It is the primary document that reflects all positions authorized to accomplish the mission.
What tool is used to list the actual people assigned to a work center?
UPMR
What is the purpose of the UMPR?
The UPMR is also a means to manage manpower by using a list of the actual people assigned to the work center. This tool matches the names of personnel to the actual position he or she is assigned.
What is the difference between an ACR and an ACN?
The ACR is requested by an organization to change its manpower authorization. The ACN is the MAJCOM's response to approve or disapprove the ACR.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
Each individual
Who is the designed individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and discipline of supply use?
Commanders
By training new personnel on property equipment operation what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
Equipment damage and injury to a patient
What percentage of medical equipment malfunctions are normally attributed to operator error?
70%
According to military guidance, who is responsible for management of public property, and allocation, control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
Each individual
What is the commander's responsibility regarding material accountability?
Ensuring only qualified personnel are selected and assigned as property custodians; that adequate space is provided for proper storage of medical supplies and equipment; the prescirbed records are maintained; and that supply discipline is understood and followed
Who provides the recommendation to the hospital commander for appointing the clinic or unit property custodian?
Based on the recommendation of the clinic/unit leadership
How will the appointment of the property custodian be made? Describe the process.
By a written delegation-of-authority letter. Two copies will be made, containing sample signatures of the authorized represetative (appointed property custodian). One copy will go to the MEMO and the other copy will be kept in the new peoperty custodian's folder.
What actions are property custodians authorized to perform with the medical material in their particular account?
Requesr and receive
When the property custodian finds equipment or supplies missing, or damage to the equipment, who should he or she notify?
Their supervisor, then the MEMO folks
What is MEMO?
The Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO)
What must occur if the property custodian will be absent from the account for 46 days or more?
The account must be transferred to someone else
What are the supervisory responsibilities regarding medical material?
Training of personnel on proper use of equipment and ensuring supply disciple is exercised by those under their supervision
What percentage of medical equipment malfunctions can be attributed to operator error?
over 70%
List five tenets of supply discipline.
(1) Safeguard and preserve public property
(2) Use equipment and supplies for their intented purpose
(3) Avoid ordering excess material. If excess is discovered, turn it in.
(4) Adhere to procedures contained in established regulations and directives governing requisitions, storage, issue and turn-in of property.
What is the commander's responsibility regarding material accountability?
Ensuring only qualified personnel are selected and assigned as property custodians; that adequate space is provided for proper storage of medical supplies and equipment; the prescirbed records are maintained; and that supply discipline is understood and followed
Who provides the recommendation to the hospital commander for appointing the clinic or unit property custodian?
Based on the recommendation of the clinic/unit leadership
How will the appointment of the property custodian be made? Describe the process.
By a written delegation-of-authority letter. Two copies will be made, containing sample signatures of the authorized represetative (appointed property custodian). One copy will go to the MEMO and the other copy will be kept in the new peoperty custodian's folder.
What actions are property custodians authorized to perform with the medical material in their particular account?
Requesr and receive
When the property custodian finds equipment or supplies missing, or damage to the equipment, who should he or she notify?
Their supervisor, then the MEMO folks
What is MEMO?
The Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO)
What must occur if the property custodian will be absent from the account for 46 days or more?
The account must be transferred to someone else
What are the supervisory responsibilities regarding medical material?
Training of personnel on proper use of equipment and ensuring supply disciple is exercised by those under their supervision
What percentage of medical equipment malfunctions can be attributed to operator error?
over 70%
List five tenets of supply discipline.
(1) Safeguard and preserve public property
(2) Use equipment and supplies for their intented purpose
(3) Avoid ordering excess material. If excess is discovered, turn it in.
(4) Adhere to procedures contained in established regulations and directives governing requisitions, storage, issue and turn-in of property.
(5) Ensure requests for supplies and equipment are valid and in minimum quantiies necessary to perform the assigned mission, and these assets are protected, conserved, and maintained in the best possible condition to meet Air Force Commitments.
Are tenets of supply discipline primarily the responsibility of the property custodian? Explain your response.
No. The tenets apply to all personnel even if they aren't property custodians
How often is the activity issue/turn-in summary accessed?
Through DMLSS
WHat type of action is recorded on the activity issue/turn-in summary?
Supply and equippment items issued to or turned in by the section
How often should the property custodian follow up on backorder items?
Every 30 days
If an item listed on the backorder report is no longer needed, what should the custodian do? What does MEMO do?
Medical logistics must be informed. MEMO will attept to cancel the order with the supplier.
What list or form shows all property charged to the clinic or unit account?
The CRL shows all property charged to your account
What must occur before a new custodian signs for all property in an account?
The new custodian and the current custodian perform a physical inventory to account for all equipment and its location
If an item is listed but not present during inventory, what form should reflect its location?
AF Form 1297
When an item is added or removed from the equipment account, what documents should be maintained until a new CRLL is generated?
AF Form 601 and the CAL
When can a completed AF FOrm 601 be destroyed?
When the item shows up on the custodian receipt/locator list (CRL)
You have taken over an account and made an initial inventory of equipment. How much longer do you wait until you make another inventory?
At least annually, however the recommendation is once a quarter or as mandated by the commander
How often should inspections be conducted on equipment?
On a regular bases, usually daily
Whose responsibility is it to check for faulty electrical cords and inoperable parts or functions?
Everyone
Who repairs medical equipment?
Biomedical Equipment Repair Technician (BMET)
What are three simple tips to detect and correct equipment problems?
Inspect, Remove, Report
What are the primary sources to record equipment repair?
AF Form 1297 and CRL
Who should you consult with to resolve equipment maintenance problems or confirm current and local maintenance policy?
BMET