Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
337 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The estimated percent of accident caused by nature is a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 |
a. 2 |
|
|
What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? a. 50 b. 70 c. 90 d. 98 |
d. 98 |
|
|
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? a. Manuals, CDCs, and handbooks b. TOs, manuals, and CDCs c. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks d. TOs, handbooks, and CDCs |
c. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks |
|
|
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen? a. Initial b. General c. Supervisor's d. Sustained job safety |
a. Initial |
|
|
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than a. -2.0 percent b. -1.0 percent c. 0.1 percent d. 1.0 percent |
c. 0.1 percent |
|
|
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by a. the US Air Force b. each MAJCOM c. DOD d. EPA |
d. EPA |
|
|
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d 120 days |
c. 90 days |
|
|
What affects radiation hazards a. Strength of emission, time of day, and input power b. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather c. Input power, weather, and number of personnel in the area d. Time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units |
b. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather |
|
|
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then a. Spray with cold water b. Cool with forced air from a blower c. Cool with high-pressure compressed air d. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air |
d. Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air |
|
|
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of a. 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 65 degrees d. 95 degrees |
b. 45 degrees |
|
|
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue? a. Dizziness b. Emotional irritability c. A feeling of emptiness d. Impaired mental concentration |
c. A feeling of emptiness |
|
|
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices? a. Crew chief b. Flight engineer c. Weapons personnel d. Only senior personnel on special orders |
c. Weapons personel |
|
|
Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must a. Install shorting plugs and clips b. Install mechanical safetying devices c. Remove all ammunition and explosives d. Position all fire control switches to SAFE or OFF |
c. Remove all ammunition and explosives |
|
|
All composite material-related safety training must be documented an which AF IMT form? a. 55 b. 457 c. 623 d. 1297 |
a. 55 |
|
|
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to a. Ensure the tool control program is functioning properly b. Follow MAJCOM guidelines c. Identify all possible sources of FOD d. Educate all personnel |
c. Identify all possible sources of FOD |
|
|
Who is responsible for FOD prevention? a. Logistics and operations group commanders b Immediate supervisor c. Wing commander d. Everyone |
d. Everyone |
|
|
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the a. Maintenance operations officer/Maintenance superintendent b. Wing vice commander c. Group commander d. Wing commander |
a. Maintenance operations officer/ Maintenance superintendent |
|
|
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects? a. The FOD prevention office b. The operations commander c. The flight safety officer d. QA |
d. QA |
|
|
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the a. Red markings b. Black markings c. Green markings d. Orange markings |
c. Green markings |
|
|
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a a. 15-foot radius b. 20-foot radius c. 25-foot radius d. 50-foot radius |
b. 20-foot radius |
|
|
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check? a. Operations b. The aircrew c. Supervision d. The ground crew |
b. The aircrew |
|
|
When serving as fireguard, position yourself even with the a. Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle inboard of the engine being started b. Tail of the aircraft and at a 30 degree angle outboard of the engine being started c. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle inboard d. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard |
d. Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started |
|
|
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals? a. AFI 23-106 b. AFI 11-218 c. TO 00-25-172 d. TO 00-25-212 |
b. AFI 11-218 |
|
|
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order? a. Supervisor or vehicle operator b. Supervisor or brake operator c. Supervisor or wing walkers d. Supervisor only |
d. Supervisor only |
|
|
What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability? a. Departmental, intermediate, and field b. Organizational, field, and intermediate c. Organizational, intermediate, and depot d. Departmental, organizational, and depot |
c. Organizational, intermediate, and depot |
|
|
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? a. Unscheduled b. Preventive c. Corrective d. Protective |
b. Preventive |
|
|
Objectives of the MDD system include a. Calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data b. Calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data c. Collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data d. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data |
d. Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data |
|
|
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database? a. Damaged and spare items b. Expired and outdated items c. Recurring and repeat replacement items d. Select serially controlled and time change items |
d. Select serially controlled and time change items |
|
|
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil? a. 781A b. 781F c. 781H d. 781J |
b. 781F |
|
|
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder a. Before the first flight of the day b, Before each thruflight inspection c. After the even number is entered at the maintenance debriefing d. After each maintenance action with an assigned control number |
c. After the even number is entered at the maintenance debriefing |
|
|
Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on on AFTO a. 781G b. 781J c. 781M d. 781P |
b. 781J |
|
|
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting? a. Base supply coordinator b. Critical item liaison c. Equipment liaison d. Item managers |
d. Item managers |
|
|
The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the a. MAJCOM level b. Wing level c. Base level d. Unit level |
d. Unit level |
|
|
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by a. Selecting the proper NCOs for expediter duty b. Selecting the correct personnel for cross-training c. Helping evaluate the training of new personnel d. Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training |
d. Helping with forecasting ans scheduling personnel for training |
|
|
When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program? a. Within 60 days of arrival b. Upon duty position assignment c. When someone changes duty positions d. 30 days after in-processing new personnel |
a. 90 days after graduation |
|
|
The GAS in normally sent out a. 90 days after graduation b. 6 months after graduation c. within 10 work days after graduation d. within 10 calender days after graduation |
a. 90 days after graduation |
|
|
Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC? a. CFETP, part I b. AFJQS c. Command JQS d. CFETP, part II |
d. CFETP, Part II |
|
|
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time a. Access to Distance Learning course ware b. access to special certification roster criteria listings c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide d. Visibility of personnel qualifications, certifications, and training statuses |
d. Visibility of personnel qualifications, certifications, and training statuses |
|
|
What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
a. 1 |
|
|
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses? a. Trouble b. Remedy c. Section II d. Probable Cause |
b. Remedy |
|
|
What TCTO is identifies by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page? a. Record b. Urgent action c. Routine action d. Immediate action |
b. Urgent action |
|
|
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? a. Training b. Aircraft c. Reference d. Operational |
c. Reverence |
|
|
Which TO outlines procedures for entries on the AFTO form 22 a. 00-1-01 b. 00-5-1 c. 00-20 series d. 00-25 series |
b. 00-5-1 |
|
|
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which if not corrected, could cause reduces operational efficiency? a. Waiver b. Urgent c. Routine d. Emergency |
b. Urgent |
|
|
Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form? a. Directory b. Pamphlet c. Instruction d. Supplement |
b. Pamphlet |
|
|
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet? a. B-1 b. B-2 c. B-4 d. B-5 |
b. B-2 |
|
|
Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand? a. B-1 b. B-2 c. B-4 d. C-1 |
c. B-4 |
|
|
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support? a. 7000 b. 8000 c. 9000 d. 10000 |
b. 8000 |
|
|
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is a. 10 mph b. 15 mph c. 20 mph d. 25 mph |
c. 20 mph |
|
|
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft? a. Tail b. Axle c. Nose d. Fixed-height |
b. Axle |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented? a. AGE personnel b. Aircrew personnel c. Shift supervisor d. Everyone |
d. Everyone |
|
|
GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted a. White with a green band near the bottom b. Green with a white band near the bottom c. White with a green band near the top d. Green with a white band near the top |
d. Green with a white band near the top |
|
|
When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by a. AGE personnel only b. The highest ranking person on the shift c. Qualified operators only d. Any person |
c. Qualified operators only |
|
|
What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC a. 39 b. 49 c. 59 d. 69 |
b. 49 |
|
|
What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen? a. 3000 psig b. 3500 psig c. 4400 psig d. 5200 psig |
c. 4400 psig |
|
|
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor os 0 to a. 200 psi b. 350 psi c. 3200 psi d. 3500 psi |
c. 3200 psi |
|
|
The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from a. 100 to 230 degrees Fahrenheit b. 115 to 250 deg. F c. 125 to 270 deg. F d. 150 to 280 deg F
|
d. 150 to 280 degrees Fahrenheit |
|
|
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of a. 200 psi b. 300 psi c. 3500 psi d. 3600 psi |
a. 200 psi |
|
|
What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner? a. 5 mph b. 10 mph c. 15 mph d. 20 mph |
d. 20 mph |
|
|
The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from a. 47 to 150 deg. F b. 47 to 200 deg. F c. 57 to 150 deg. F d. 57 to 200 deg F |
b. 47 to 200 deg. F |
|
|
The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces a. 25.5 VDC b. 27.5 VDC c. 28.5 VDC d. 30.5 VDC |
c. 28.5 VDC |
|
|
What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance? a. A/M32A-95 b. A/M32A-86 c. A/M32A-60 d. AF/M-32R-3 |
c. A/M32A-60 |
|
|
Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60? a. 1-1A-8 b. 25C2-3-372-11 c. 32A1-4.219-45 d. 35C2-3-372-11 |
d. 35C2-3-372-11 |
|
|
The FL-1D floodlight consists of two a. 100 watt lamp fixtures b. 1000 watt lamp fixtures c. 10000 watt lamp fixtures d. 100000 watt lamp fixtures |
b. 1000 watt lamp fixtures |
|
|
What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-D floodlight on smooth surfaces? a. 5 MPH b. 10 MPH c. 15 MPH d. 20 MPH |
d. 20 MPH |
|
|
What is used to drive the MK-3A-1 a. A diesel engine b. An electric motor c. A gasoline engine d. A hydraulic motor |
b. An electric motor |
|
|
How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated? a. Primary and Secondary b. Primary and Alternate c. Number 1 and Number 2 d. Left and Right |
c. Number 1 and Number 2 |
|
|
The MJ-2A reservoir what amount of fluid? a. 19 gallons b. 27 gallons c. 30 gallons d. 60 gallons |
b. 27 gallons |
|
|
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates a. Two-wheel steering, two wheel drive b. Two-wheel steering, four-wheel drive c. Four-wheel steering, two-wheel drive d. Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive |
d. Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive |
|
|
What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman? a. 15 MPH b. 20 MPH c. 25 MPH d. 55 MPH |
b. 20 MPH |
|
|
What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer? a. Mechanical b. Pneumatic c. Hydraulic d. Electrical |
c. Hydraulic |
|
|
Why are aluminum allow washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications? a. Reduce shearing b. Prevent vibration c. Prevent corrosion d. Reduce shimming |
c. Prevent corrosion |
|
|
How are special bolts identified? a. By a zinc-plated nickel steel covering b. By a galvanized-plated steel covering c. The bolt head is marked with a triangle d. The bolt head is marked with the letter S |
d. The bolt head is marked with the letter S |
|
|
Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems? a. Stud b. Clevis c. Eyebolt d. Hexhead |
b. Clevis |
|
|
Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications? a. A stud b. An eyebolt c. A hexhead d. An internal wrenching type |
d. An internal wrenching type |
|
|
Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the a. Knurl beside the fork b. Groove by the cable eye c. Knurl beside the pin eye d. Groove on the end of the barrel |
d. Groove on the end of the barrel |
|
|
Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal? a. Soft rubber b. Phenolic mix c. Non-magnetic d. Thermosetting plastic |
a. Soft rubber |
|
|
A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by a. Using a depth gauge to check end play b. Ensuring that no lateral movement exists c. Using an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing d. Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal |
d. Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal |
|
|
What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing? a. 15 to 20 inches b. 20 to 25 inches c. 25 to 30 inches d. 30 to 35 inches |
a. 15 to 20 inches |
|
|
The allowable limit for nicks scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than a. 10 percent of wall thickness b. 15 percent of wall thickness c. 20 percent of wall thickness d. 25 percent of wall thickness |
b. 15 percent of well thickness |
|
|
Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures? a. 200 psi and below b. 300 psi and below c. 500 psi and below d. 1000 psi and below |
b. 300 psi and blow |
|
|
The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a a. 10 inch length of wire b. 12 inch length of wire c. 25 inch length of wire d. 36 inch length of wire |
c. 24 inch length of wire |
|
|
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 |
a. 3 |
|
|
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them? a. Snap rings b. Spiral retaining rings c. Beveled retaining rings d. Axially assembled retaining rings |
d. Axially assembled retaining rings |
|
|
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed foruse with them? a. Snap rings b. Spiral retaining rings c. Beveled retaining rings d. Axially assembled retaining rings |
b. Spiral retaining rings |
|
|
What part of a cannon plug completes th eelectrical circuit? a. Metal shells b. Connector halves c. Dielectric contacts d. Pin and socket contacts |
d. Pin and socket contacts |
|
|
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter "P" indicates a. Pin b. Plain c. Primary d. Pratt and Whitney |
a. Pin |
|
|
Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied? a. Indicating type b. Breakaway type c. Screwdriver type d. Internal wrenching type |
a. Indicating type |
|
|
Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached? a. Indicating type b. Breakaway type c. Screwdriver type d. Internal wrenching type |
b. Breakaway type |
|
|
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the a. Maximum setting at least four times b. Maximum setting at least six times c. Lowest setting at least four times d. Lowest setting at least six times |
b. Maximum setting at least six times |
|
|
What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened? a. Extention and flexion b. Tension and torsion c. Torque and friction d. Push and pull |
b. Tension and torsion |
|
|
Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving? a. Static b. Tension c. Dynamic d. Rotational |
a. Static |
|
|
Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to a. Check the the AC voltages only b. Check the DC voltages only c. Initiate the tough-hold mode d. Move the decimal point |
d. Move the decimal point |
|
|
When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the a. Manual range mode is indicated b. Touch-hold mode is in use c. Ohms function is selected d. Meter is zeroing itself |
b. Touch-Hold mode is in use |
|
|
Which tool used to measure the gap between two parts? a. Multimeter b. Depth gauge c. Feeler gauge d. Torque wrench |
c. Feeler gauge |
|
|
What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer's spindle and anvil? a. 0.5 inch b. 1.0 inch c. 1.5 inch d. 2.0 inch |
b. 1.0 inch |
|
|
Which caliper is joined by a strong hinge, screw, and adjustment nut? a. Simple calipers b. Transfer calipers c. Spring-joint calipers d. Odd-leg calipers |
c. Spring-joint calipers |
|
|
Which caliper is used for shaft centers or locating shoulders? a. Slide caliper b. Center caliper c. Spring-joint calipers d. Odd-leg calipers |
d. Odd-leg calipers |
|
|
Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame? a. Slide caliper b. Simple caliper c. Transfer caliper d. Spring-joint caliper |
a. Slide caliper |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced? a. Base commanders b. Squadron commanders c. Supervisors at all levels d. Squadron QA section |
c. Supervisors at all levels |
|
|
Bench stock levels are estabished to provide a a. 15-day usage b. 30-day usage c. 60-day usage d. 90-day usage |
b. 30-day usage |
|
|
Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods? a. AF 2005 b. AF Form 2413 c. AF IMT 1297 d. DD Form 1348-6 |
c. AF IMT 1297 |
|
|
All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code? a. PDC b. AAC c. PACC d. ERRC |
d. ERRC |
|
|
Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and a. DD Form 1348-6 b. AFTO Form 349 c. AFTO Form 350 d. DD Form 1131 |
c. AFTO Form 350 |
|
|
Which DD Forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters? a. 1577-2 and 1577-3 b. 1576 and 1576-1 c. 1574 and 1574-1 d. 1575 and 1575-1 |
a. 1577-2 and 1577-3 |
|
|
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for a. 200 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt b. 100 hours of operation or one year from date of receipt c. 200 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt d. 100 hours of operation or six months from the date of receipt |
b. 100 hours of operation or one year from date of receipt |
|
|
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical orger and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle? a. Phased b. Periodic c. Isochronal d. Hourly postflight |
b. Periodic |
|
|
Which inspection concept used specific calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections? a. Phased b. Periodic c. Isochronal d. Hourly postflight |
c. Isochronal |
|
|
Which inpection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements? a. Phased b. Periodic c. Isochronal d. Programmed depot maintenance |
d. Programmed depot maintenance |
|
|
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in a. Sequence charts b. Inspection workcards c. -06 work unit code manuals d. -6 technical order inspection manuals |
c. -06 work unit code manuals |
|
|
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems? a. In progresss b. PR c. TH d. EOR |
d. EOR |
|
|
The TH inpection is usually performed a. Prior to going on alert and again before flight after completion of the alert period b. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled c. Immediately prior to a BPO d. After the last flight of a specified flying period |
b. After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled |
|
|
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? a. Phase b. Special c. Calendar d. Acceptance |
c. Calender |
|
|
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents? a. Phase b. Special c. Calendar d. Acceptance |
d. Acceptance |
|
|
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is a. 14.7 psi b. 17.4 psi c. 29.29 psi d. 29.92 psi |
a. 14.7 psi |
|
|
A barometer is designed to measure pressure in a. PSI b. Inches of mercury c. Milibars of alcohol d. Ounces of air |
b. Inches of mercury |
|
|
The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is a. Lift b. Drag c. Thrust d. Weight |
d. Weight |
|
|
The force that acts upward at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is a. Lift b. Drag c. Thrust d. Weight |
a. Lift |
|
|
The force that acts parallel to the relative wind is a. Lift b. Drag c. Gravity d. Weight |
b. Drag |
|
|
The stress that resists the force tending to cause on layer of materal to slide over an adjacent alayer is called a. Bending b. Tension c. Torsion d. Shear |
d. Shear |
|
|
What is the design that uses any combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads and frames in the construction of the fuselage called? a. Fuselage b. longerons c. Monocoque d. Semi-monocoque |
d. Semi-monocoque |
|
|
The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and privide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called a. Longerons b. Bulkheads c. Stringers d. Frames |
c. Stringers |
|
|
The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is a. Steel b. Titanium c. Magnesium d. Aluminum alloy |
d. Aluminum alloy |
|
|
The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is a. Cantilever b. Monocoque c. External braced d. Semi-monocoque |
a. Cantilever |
|
|
The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the a. Stabilator b. Elevator c. Rudder d. Fin |
d. Fin |
|
|
Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion- resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of a. 120,000 to 140,000 PSI b. 150,000 to 170,000 PSI c. 180,000 to 200,000 PSI d. 210,00 to 230,000 PSI |
c. 180,00 to 200,00 PSI |
|
|
The main difference between inspection plates and panels is a. Size b. Material c. Location d. Installation |
a. Size |
|
|
A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of trasparent plastics is called a. Crazing b. Casting c. Fretting d. Pitting |
a. Crazing |
|
|
What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called? a. Buttlines b. Waterlines c. Buttock stations d. Fuselage stations |
b. Waterlines |
|
|
A movement about the vertical axis is called a. Roll b. Yaw c. Crab d. Pitch |
b. Yaw |
|
|
Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface? a. Rudder b. Aileron c. Elevator d. Wing flaps |
c. Elevator |
|
|
Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer? a. Flap b. Spoiler c. Rudder d. Elevator |
d. Elevator |
|
|
When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailng edge is a. Up, left aileron trailing edge is up b. Up, left aileron trailing edge is down c. Down, left aileron trailing edge is up d. Down, left aileron trailing edge is down |
b. Up, left aileron trailing edge is down |
|
|
The purpose of wing flaps is to a. Increase lift and drag b. Decrease lift and drag c. Increase lift and decrease drag d. Decrease lift and increase drag |
a. Increase lift and drag |
|
|
Matter is any substance that has mass and a. Can be seen b. Occupies space c. Has constant volume d. Cannot be compressed |
b. Occupies space |
|
|
Atoms are made up of a. Molecules, protons, neutrons b. Protons, molecules, electrons c. Molecules, neutrons, electrons d. Protons, neutrons, and electrons |
d. Protons, neutrons, and electrons |
|
|
Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except a. Heat b. Cold c. Chemical action d. Change in magnetic field |
b. Cold |
|
|
What is the electrical pressure that causes electrons to flow through the conductor called? a. Chemical swap b. Crossfeed field c. Electromotive force d. Transferring magnetic field |
c. Electromotive force |
|
|
If you apply 24 volts through a total resistance of 6 ohms in a series circuit, the amperage would be a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 18 |
b. 4 |
|
|
A oermanent magnet is produced from a material with a. Low reluctance and low permeability b. High reluctance and low permeability c. High reluctance and high permeability d. High permeability and low retentivity |
b. High reluctance and low permeability |
|
|
When soft iron is brought close to a permanent magnet it is a. Charged b. Repelled c. Energized d. Magnitized |
d. Magnetized |
|
|
The greate rthe current flow through an electromagnet, the a. Less the strength b. Greater the strength c. Greater the retentivity d. Higher the reluctance of the core |
b. Greater the strength |
|
|
Current flow in most aircraft circuits is controlled by a. Fuses b. Signals c. Batteries d. Switches |
d. Switches |
|
|
The majority of aircraft circuit protection devices are normally located a. In the aircraft cabin b. In the nose wheel well c. In the utility compartment d. As far as possible from the unit being protected |
a. In the aircraft cabin |
|
|
What term describes current that reverses its direction at regularly recurring intervals? a. Direct b. Inductive c. Reversing d. Alternating |
d. Alternating |
|
|
The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are a. Blast air and ram air b. Engine oil and blast air c. Blast air and generator oil d. Generator oil and engine oil |
b. Engine oil and blast air |
|
|
The output of the constant speed drive (CSD) used to drive a 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator is approximately a. 4000 RPM b. 6000 RPM c. 8000 RPM d. 10000 RPM |
c. 8000 |
|
|
The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 KVA generator CSD actuates at a. 325 Hz b. 345 Hz c. 365 Hz d. 395 Hz |
c. 365 Hz |
|
|
What supplies rotary power to the input gear of the CSD? a. Accessory gearbox b. Transmission shaft c. Torque converter d. Hydraulic gear |
a. Accessory gearbox |
|
|
A battery's internal compnent that is a grid or framework which supports the active materials called the a. Plate b. Separator c. Electrolyte d. Chemical solution |
a. Plate |
|
|
A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has a. 12 cells b. 19 cells c. 20 cells d. 24 cells |
b. 19 cells |
|
|
The nickel-cadmium battery can be fully charged only by a. Pulsating current b. Constant current c. Varying current d. Eddy current |
b. Constant current |
|
|
What type of motor can operate on alternating current (AC) or direct current (DC)? a. Shunt b. Circuit c. Universal d. Compound |
c. Universal |
|
|
A shunt-type motor has a. Less speed regulation than a universal motor b. A field winding in a series with the armature c. Low starting torque and poor speed regulation d. High starting torque and poor speed regulation |
c. Low starting torque and poor speed regulation |
|
|
The three stages of matter are a. Liquid, gases, and minerals b. Gases, solids, and minerals c. Gases, solids, and organic d. Gases, liquid, and solids |
d. Gases, liquids, and solids |
|
|
When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have a. Passed the elastic limit b. Lost the abiity to expand c. Failed to meet elastic limit d. Passed the compression limit |
a. Passed the elastic limit |
|
|
The most outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its a. Rigidity b. usability c. Ability to compress within its container d. Ability to comform to the shape of its container |
d. Ability to conform to the shape of its container |
|
|
What usually produces flow in a pneudraulic system? a. Relief valve in the lines b. Piston pushing the fluid c. Scupper pushing the fluid d. Selector valve in the lines |
b. Piston pushing the fluid |
|
|
Who was among the first to study the compressibility of gases? a. Hook b. Boyle c. Pascal d. Charles |
b. Boyle |
|
|
If 50 PSI of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head what will the resulting force be? a. 150 pounds b. 200 pounds c. 250 pounds d. 300 pounds |
c. 250 pounds |
|
|
When an 8-square-inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, what volume of liquid is displaced? a. 4 cubic inches b. 40 cubic inches c. 400 cubic inches d. 4000 cubic inches |
b. 40 cubic inches |
|
|
Turbulence affects fluid-flow in a hydraulic line by a. Increasing velocity and viscosity b. Increasing volume and displacement c. Creating resistance and loss of energy d. Creating resistance and energy increase |
c. Creating resistance and loss of energy |
|
|
A tube whose cross-section area is gradually reduced to a smaller size diameter is called a a. Torus b. Pipette c. Vortex d. Venturi |
d. Venturi |
|
|
The purposes of a hydraulic reservoir are to a. Store fluid and act as a surge chamber b. Restrict fluid-flow in selected directions c. Pressurize and direct fluid to an actuator d. Replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the system |
d. Replenish fluid, allow for thermal expansion, and provide a means of bleeding air from the system |
|
|
When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means a. Fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle b. Fluid-flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle c. Double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle d. Double volume is displaced with every other stoke of the pump handle |
a. Fluid-flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle |
|
|
The purpose of a standpipe in a reservoir is to a. Protect the pump b. Reserve fluid for the fluid pump c. Reserve fluid for the emergency pump d. Supply the pump during inverted flight
|
c. Reserve fluid for the emergency pump |
|
|
The amount of fluid a pump produces on each cycle or revolution is called its a. Displacement b. Purgement c. Volume d. Rating
|
a. Displacement |
|
|
Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-rugulating device in the system because a. They deliver low pressure b. They have an intergral compensator c. The case drain relieves high system pressure d. There is no angle between the drive shaft and the cylinder block |
b. They have an integral compensator |
|
|
What provides for cooler operation in a Stratopower variable-volume hydraulic pump? a. Foot valves b. Oil radiator c. Creep plates d. Fluid radiator |
c. Creep plates |
|
|
In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, what holds the pistons in contact with the cam plate? a. Fixed pivot b. Nutating plate c. Stationary bearing d. Compensator piston
|
b. Nutating plate |
|
|
The purpose of a hydraulic motor is to convert hydraulic pressure into a. Rotary mechanical motion b. Kintetic flow motion c. Straight-line motion d. Fluid locomotion |
a. Rotary mechanical motion |
|
|
How is the piston installed in an acculmlator a. In either direction b. Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator c. Hollow end toward the fluid side of the accumulator d. Drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator |
b. Hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator |
|
|
The size of one micron is four a. Tenths of an inch b. Thousandths of an inch c. Millionths of an inch d. Billionths of an inch |
c. Millionths of an inch |
|
|
In a hydraulic system, the hydraulic manifold provides a location where the a. Return lines can join together b. Pressure lines can join together c. Common fluid lines can come together d. Hydraulic test stand can be connected |
c. Common fluid lines can come together |
|
|
The purpose of an actuating cylinder is to transform fluid pressure into a. Angular motion b. A mechanical force c. A constant velocity d. An electromotive force |
b. A mechanical Force |
|
|
What pneudraulic system component uses a single-acting actuating cylinder? a. Rudder b. Cargo door c. Brake assembly d. Nosewheel steering |
c. Brake assembly |
|
|
What pheudralic system component uses a double-acting balance actuating cylinder? a. Speed brake b. Brake assembly c. Cargo door system d. Nosewheel steering |
d. Nosewheel steering |
|
|
Which actuator type slows down piston travel when the piston nears either end of the cylinder? a. Tandum b. Internal locking c. Internal snubber d. Double-acting balanced |
c. Internal snubber |
|
|
A manual poppet-type selector valve is in a working position when the camshaft is rotated to a. Seat all four of the poppets b. Unseat all four of the poppets c. Seat both of the pressure poppets d. Unseat one pressure poppet and one return poppet |
d. Unsteat one pressure poppet and one return poppet |
|
|
The major advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its a. Damping ability b. Metering ability c. Ability to contain system pressure d. Ability to relieve excess system pressure |
a. Metering ability |
|
|
Normally, what posistions hydraulic selector valves? a. Bus b. Servos c. Relay d. Solenoid |
d. Solenoid |
|
|
The advantage of an electrically controlled solenoid valve is its a. Reduced weight b. Increased weight c. Ability to reduce turbulence d. Ability to increase turbulence |
a. Reduced weight |
|
|
The difference between a selector valve and a servo vavle is that the a. Selector valve had four parts b. Selector valve is more complex c. Servo valve controls fluid-flow d. Servo valve is electrically operated |
c. Servo valve controls fluid-flow |
|
|
Another name for a flapper check valve is a. Ball check valve b. Gate check valve c. Cone ceck valve d. Restrictor check valve |
b. Gate check valve |
|
|
What is the purpose of the arrow on a check valve? a. Show filter position within the system b. Indicate left- and right-hand threading c. Show direction of free flow through the valve d. Indicate installation points in relation to the pump |
c. Show direction of free flow through the valve |
|
|
Which of these allows normal operation speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while limiting speed in other direction? a. Automatic check valve b. Restrictor check valve c. Bypass valve d. Relief valve |
b. Restrictor check valve |
|
|
What are the basic units of a hydraulic hand pump system? a. Pump, actuator, filter, and priority valve b. Pump, actuator, shutoff, and tereing valve c. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and metering valve d. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shut off valve |
d. Reservoir, pump, actuator, and manual shut off valve |
|
|
The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump a. By gravity b. By the suction effect of the pump c. By gravity and the suction effect of the pump d. In response to pressure demand and the suction effect of the pump |
c. By gravity and the suction effect of the pump |
|
|
When pressure in a hydraulic system with a variable-volume pump increases, the fluid-flow a. Stops b. Increases c. Decreases d. Remains the same |
c. Decreases |
|
|
The pursose of the torsion links on a main landing gear is to a. Reduce oscillation during extension b. Reduce oscillation during retraction c. Allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder d. Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder |
d. Prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder |
|
|
How is the motion of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve? a. Electrically b. By push-pull rods c. By a cable system d. Through hydraulic pressure |
c. By a cable system |
|
|
What prevents the lock solenoid from energizing when the nose landing gear is off center? a. Safety relay b. Safety switch c. Centering relay d. Centering switch |
d. Centering switch |
|
|
Electromagnetic devices capable of sensing magnetically conductive metal targets on landing gears are known as a. Position switches b. Proximity sensors c. Selector valves d. Solenoid circuits |
b. Proximity sensors |
|
|
A unit that is a combination of the landing gear shimmy damper and steering unit is known as a. A steer damper b. An uplock control c. A downlock control d. A servo oscillating damper |
a. A steer damper |
|
|
What position must the landing gear control gandle be in before emergency extension of the landing gear? a. UP c. AUX d. EMERG |
b. DN |
|
|
What slows the free fall of the main landing gear during the emergency extension sequence? a. Dampening unit b. Inline restrictor c. Orifice check valve d. Subbing mechanism |
d. Snubbing mechanism |
|
|
The purpose of the landing gear warning horn is to a. Alert the pilot to marker beacons b. Sound when gear is not safe c. Sound when gear is safe d. Alert the pilot to a stall |
b. Sound when gear is not safe |
|
|
Brake fade is defined as a gradual braking action a. Loss due to overheating b. Increase due to overheating c. Loss due to pressure increase d. Increase due to pressure reduction |
a. Loss due to overheating |
|
|
A major disadvantage of multiple disc brakes is that they a. Warp when overheated b. Shatter during hard landings c. Must be adjusted after each landing d. Do not provide maximum stopping grip |
a. Warp when overheated |
|
|
What automatically compensates for brake wear on the segmented rotor brake? a. Rotors b. Stators c. Actuators d. Adjusters |
d. Adjusters |
|
|
The purpose of the antiskid system is to a. Reduce friction between the wheel and tire b. Increase friction between the wheel and tire c. Prevent wheel skid by applying pressure to the skidding wheel d. Prevent when skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel |
d. Prevent wheel skid by releasing pressure from the skidding wheel |
|
|
The purpose of deboosters is to a. Decrease fluid volume b. Reduce braking pressure c. Enlarge running clearance d. Increase braking pressure |
b. Reduce braking pressure |
|
|
Aircraft wheels are normally constructed of a. Steel and/or titanium alloys b. Chromium and/or titanium alloys c. Palladium and/or aluminum alloys d. Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys |
d. Magnesium and/or aluminum alloys |
|
|
Split wheel are balanced a. During buildup b. As an assembly c. Individually by halves d. By a self-balancing system |
c. Individually by halves |
|
|
What maintains an airtight seal between split wheel halves? a. A rubber liner b. An o-ring seal c. A phenolic ring d. Machined mated surfaces |
b. An o-ring seal |
|
|
What prevents tire explosion from excessive heat buildup? a. Vent holes b. Blowout caps c. Wheel valve stems d. Thermal relief plugs |
d. Thermal relief plugs |
|
|
What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels a. Flat roller b. Straight ball c. Tapered roller d. Recessed cone |
c. Tapered roller |
|
|
The bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing is also called the a. Outer race b. Inner race c. Bearing cup d. Roller mount |
b. Inner race |
|
|
When cleaning aircraft wheels, you should not use a. A fiber brush b. A wire brush c. Clean rags d. Fiber pads |
b. A wire brush |
|
|
Installed bearing races should be free of scratches, dents, and a. Dye marks b. Paint marks c. Blister marks d. Overheating marks |
d. Overheating marks |
|
|
The main parts of an aircraft tire are the tread and sidewall, a. Cord body, and beads b. Valve core, and beads c. Cord body, vent holes d. Valve core, and cord body |
a. Cord body, and beads |
|
|
What prevents pressure buildup and separation of cord plies or tread rubber on an aircraft tire? a. Beads b. Sidewalls c. Vent holes d. Blow out valves |
c. Vent holes |
|
|
For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire must be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of a. 4 inches b. 6 inches c. 12 inches d. 16 inches |
c. 12 inches |
|
|
In its natural state, oxygen is a. Tasteless, odorless, and colorless b. Tasteless, Volumeless, and odorless c. Tasteless, colorless, and weightless d. Volumeless, weightless, and colorless |
a. Tasteless, odorless, and colorless |
|
|
What gaseous oxygen (GOX) system valve type prevents a complete loss of oxygen? b. Check c. Shutoff d. Pressure-reducing |
b. Check |
|
|
The supply and distribution tubing for aircraft oxygen systems is identified by cellulose tape that is a. Brown and orange b. Blue and yellow c. Green and white d. Black and red |
c. Green and white |
|
|
The disadvantage of a continuous -flow oxygen regulator is that it a. Wastes oxygen b. Is unusable below 10000 feet c. Is usable only above 20000 feet d. Delivers oxygen at varying pressures |
a. Wastes oxygen |
|
|
What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel? a. 16 man-minutes of oxygen b. 93% oxygen-enriched gas c. 97% oxygen-enriched gas d. 100% oxygen-enriched gas |
b. 93% oxygen-enriched gas |
|
|
Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of a. 600 to 1 b. 680 to 1 c. 800 to 1 d. 860 to 1 |
d. 860 to 1 |
|
|
Except during servicing, the liquid oxygen (LOX) system's combination fill, buildup, and vent valve is always in the a. Fill position b. Vent position c. Normal position d. Buildup position |
d. Buildup position |
|
|
On an aircraft liquid oxygen (LOX) system, the handle on a manually operated and vent valve is designed to prevent a. Slow pressure buildup b. Rapid venting of system pressure c. LOX system pressure loss during maintenance d. The filler access door from closing in the vent position |
d. The filler access door from closing in the vent position |
|
|
Bleed air is usually taken from which part of the engine section a. Intake b. Turbine c. Exhaust d. Compressor |
d. Compressor |
|
|
AIrcraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the a. Ambient pressure and ambient temperature b. Engine throttle setting and ambient altitude c. Ambient pressure and engine throttle setting d. Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature |
d. Engine throttle setting and ambient temperature |
|
|
What is the purpose of the engine bleed air (EBA) check valve? a. Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air b. Maintain balanced airflow from each engine c. Provide a primary source for compressed bleed air d. Reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is too high |
a. Prevent the loss of compressed bleed air |
|
|
What engine bleed air (EBA) component prevents loss of air through the engine when it is shutdown? a. Check valve b. Shutoff valve c. Isolation valve d. Crossover valve |
b. Shutoff valve |
|
|
The ducting for high-pressure/high-temperature air-conditioning is usually made of a. Titanium b. Aluminum c. Stainless steel d. Aluminum/nickle alloy |
c. Stainless steel |
|
|
What tool do you use to ensure alignment and sealing when installing a V-band clamp on air-conditioning ducting? a. Screwdriver b. Center punch c. Rawhide mallet d. Ball peen hammer |
c. Rawhide mallet |
|
|
What type of high-pressure/high-temperature ducting does not require a gasket? a. Clamp flange b. Bolted flange c. Beaded flange d. Compressible flange |
d. Compressible flange |
|
|
What lubricant can be used on a beaded channel clamp sleeve to ease installation? a. Soap b. Water c. Grease d. Silicone |
b. Water |
|
|
The crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is made of a. Fiber and fiberglass b. Fiberglass and neoprene, or rubber c. A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh d. A soft aluminum, and fiber reinforced rubber or plastic |
c. A soft aluminum, or fiber and metal mesh |
|
|
Expansion joints in bleed air systems are best used for a. Ram air ducting b. A long run of ducting c. A short run of ducting d. Low-temperature/low-pressure ducting |
c. A short run of ducting |
|
|
What prevents fiberglass fabric ducts from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes? a. Thermal compensators b. Expansion bellows c. Puckered flaps d. Vent holes |
d. Vent holes |
|
|
What is defined as " a depression in the duct wall, where the surface of the material isn't cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material?" a. Minor dent b. Major dent c. Scratch d. Gouge |
b. Major dent |
|
|
"The simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, and air distribution within a space" is the definition of a. Engine bleed air b. Air conditioning c. Pressurization d. Air control |
b. Air conditioning |
|
|
What aircraft air conditioning system component is a radiator that cold ram air passes through in order to cool the hot bleed air from the engine(s)? a. Primary heat exchanger b. Air cycle machine c. Water separator d. Air cooler |
a. Primary heat exchanger |
|
|
What aircraft air condtioning system component controls the flow of ram air through the primary heat exhangers? a. Air cycle machine b. Refrigeration bypass valve c. Movable inlet and exit doors d. Primary ram air controller asssemblies |
c. Movable inlet and exit doors |
|
|
The rapid cooling of bleed air causes a. The air pressure to increase b. Moisture to condense in the form of fog c. Ice to cfrm in the secondary heat exchanger d. A loss of pressure as it exits the air cycle machine compressor |
b. Moisture to condense in the form of fog |
|
|
The low atmospheric pressure found at extremely high altitudes can cause a person's blood vessels to a. Shrink b. Rupture c. Contract d. Collapse |
a. Shrink |
|
|
What controls the action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system? a. A jet pump b. Filtering cabin air c. The unpressurized range d. Regulating control chamber pressure |
d. Regulating control chamber pressure |
|
|
What are the parts of the isobaric section of the cabin pressure regulator? a. A diaphragm, fulcrum, and aneroid b. A rocker arm, diaphragm, and fulcrum c. An aneroid, spring, and metering valve d. A spring, metering valve, and rocker arm |
c. An aneroid, spring, and metering valve |
|
|
What are the components of the differential section of the cabin pressure regulator? a. A spring, metering valve, and aneroid b. An aneroid, rocker arm, and fulcrum c. A rocker arm, fulcrum, and diaphragm d. A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve |
d. A diaphragm, spring, and metering valve |
|
|
What maintains pressure if the dual-differential cabin pressure regulator fails during flight? a. The outflow valves b. A manual controller c. The cabin altitude selector d. A positive pressure relief valve |
a. The outflow valves |
|
|
What is the purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system? a. Control the venting of cabin pressure b. Control the reference chamber pressure c. Ensure that both outflow valves operate at the same time d. Ensure that the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open |
c. Ensure that both outflow valves operate that the same time. |
|
|
As bleed air enters the compressor of the air cycle machine, its pressure is increased. With the increase of pressure, there is also an increase in temperature. Which component removes most of this increased temperature? a. Primary heat exhanger b. Secondary heat exchanger c. Air cycle machine bypass valve d. Air cycle machine expasion turbine |
b. Secondary heat exchanger |
|
|
In the variable isobaric pressurization system, the manual control valve is used as an alternate when the a. Safety valve fails b. Outflow valve fails c. Pneumatic relay fails d. Cabin pressure controller fails |
d. Cabin pressure controller fails |
|
|
The normal connection for thermal switches in a fire warning system is in series with a. Each other only b. The power source and with the warning light c. Each other and in parallel with the power source d. The warning light and parallel with each other |
d. The warning light and parallel with each other |
|
|
The fire detector, frequently used in fire warning systems, that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tub assemble s called a. An electro conductive sensor b. An Iron Fireman switch c. A photoconductive cell d. A FENWAL switch |
b. An Iron Fireman switch |
|
|
The DC voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of a. 10 Hz b. 100 Hz c. 200 Hz d. 400 Hz |
a. 10 Hz |
|
|
A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by a. Releasing a fine mist vapor b. Excluding oxygen from the area c. Removing nitrogen from the area d. Dispersing a large amount of liquid |
b. Excluding oxygen from the area |
|
|
A gaseous nitrogen charge is added to a liquid fire extinguishing agent in order to a. Convert the agent from the bottle b. Expel the agent from the bottle c. Assist in extinguishing the fire d. Stabilize the temperature |
b. Expel the agent from the bottle |
|
|
What liquid-agent fire extinguisher container component holds in both the piqued agent and the nitrogen charge? a. Squib b. Frangible disc c. Bonnet assembly d. Rubber O-ring packing |
b. Frangible disc |
|
|
In a liquid-agent fire extinguisher container, why is the frangible disc undercut into pie-shaped sections? a. To break evenly into small pieces b. Allow undisturbed fluid flow through the system c. Enable the pieces to pass easily through the strainer d. Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer |
d. Prevent small pieces from passing through the strainer |
|
|
What is usually located at the lowest point in a fuel tank? a. Sump pump b. Pump and drain c. Pressure relief valve d. Fuel-level control valve |
a. Sump pump |
|
|
A bladder-type tank conforms to the shape of the vacant cavity within the fuselage because it is made out of a. Soft, malleable plastic b. Rubber or nylon material c. A hardened, pre-formed plastic d. Lightweight, pre-formed aluminum |
b. Rubber or nylon material |
|
|
Wing tanks are a. Bladder-type tanks that conform to the vacant cavity within the wing b. Lightweight, aluminum tanks inserted into empty wing cavities c. Sealed-off parts of the wing structure d. Soft, malleable plastic tanks |
c. Sealed-off parts of the wing structure |
|
|
A centrifugal-type aircraft fuel pump may be used a. For boost, transfer, or air refueling operations b. In any area requiring a pump with no moving parts c. T scavenge the remaining fuel in low areas of a fuel tank d. When the output volume of the pump must be in direct proportion to its speed |
a. For boost, transfer, or air refueling operations |
|
|
What type of pump must have a fuel- and vapor-proof housing? a. Jet b. Ejector c. Top mounted centrifugal pump with variable-speed hydraulic drive d. Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, DC, series wound motor |
d. Centrifugal pump with electrically driven, DC, series wound motor |
|
|
What kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions? a. Rotary-vane b. Top mounted c. Dual-impeller d. In-line ejector |
c. Dual-impeller |
|
|
In a dual-impeller fuel pump, what prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open? a. An Inlet screen b. An impeller screen c. A one-way check valve d. A two-way check valve |
a. An inlet screen |
|
|
What air refueling pump components depend on fuel for lubrication? a. Rotors b. Stators c. Bearings d. Impellers |
c. Bearings |
|
|
What air refueling pump component removes duel vapors caused by the centrifugal force of the impellers? a. Rotor b. Stator c. Accumulator d. Vapor relief valve |
a. Rotor |
|
|
The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the a. Direction of free flow b. Direction of restricted flow c. Location of the drilled hole in the valve d. Location of the manufacturer's data block |
a. Direction of free flow |
|
|
A pressure- loaded fuel system check valve is used a. When a reverse flow of fuel is desired b. To prevent the pump from over speeding c. When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable d. To prevent excessive pressures when the pump over speeds |
c. When gravity flow through the valve is undesirable |
|
|
The fuel system components that prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the valve body are three a. Thermal-relief valves b. Pressure-relief valves c. One-way check valves d. Spring-loaded relief valves |
d. Spring-loaded relief valves |
|
|
The rotary plug valve can be removed and replaced a. Without draining the fuel lines or tanks b. Only if the electric motor is in the OFF position c. Only after the required fuel lines and tanks are drained d. Only after removing the valve body and connecting lines |
a. Without draining the fuel lines or tanks |
|
|
What rotary plug valve part rotates and seals off the passage of fuel during plug valve removal? a. Initial seal b. Diaphragm seal c. Primary seal sleeve d. Secondary seal sleeve |
d. Secondary seal sleeve |
|
|
Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is a. Butterfly b. Swivel vane c. Sliding gate d. Swinging disc |
a. Butterfly |
|
|
In a piston-type, fuel level control valve, what aids piston closure and prevents fuel from entering the tank? a. Float b. Spring c. Pilot valve d. Daiphragm |
b. Spring |
|
|
Some fuel level control valves have a dual-float system so that a. There will be a double safety factor b. Two tanks can be filled at the same time c. The tank can be filled to either of two levels d. There is capability to fill or empty the tank |
a. There will be a double safety factor |
|
|
The low-level shutoff valve prevents the reverse flow of fuel through the valve by what type of action? a. Spring b. Venturi c. Check valve d. Hydromechanical |
c. Check valve |
|
|
Fuel-controlled switches normally control circuits that indicate a. Fuel-flow b. Fuel level c. Fuel pressure d. All of the above |
d. All of the above |
|
|
What most likely controls the automatic pump shutoff when all fuel is depleted from a fuel tank? a. Float valves b. Float switches c. Toggle switches d. Pressure switches |
b. Float switches |
|
|
In a DC, liquid-level fuel indicating system, what positions the wiper contact on the resistance strip? a. Signals from the amplifier b. The movement of a float in the tanks c. Voltage changes in the indicator circuit d. The amount of bleed air pressure applied to the tank |
b. The movement of a float in the tanks |
|
|
What capacitance-type, fuel-indicating systems component allows for changes in fuel density? a. Inductor b. Capacitor c. Compensator d. Potentiometer |
c. Compensator |
|
|
What prevents a fuel tank from collapsing if an air pressure regulator fails and excessive negative pressure develops? a. Quick-disconnect valve b. Fuel-level control valve c. Low-level shutoff valve d. Pressure/vacuum relief valve |
d. Pressure/vacuum relief valve |
|
|
A well designed aircraft fuel system will ensure a. Positive and negative fuel-flow b. Negative fuel-flow under all conditions c. Positive fuel-flow under positive conditions d. Positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions |
d. Positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions |
|
|
The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the a. Rotary plug, disc, and check b. Disc, check, and sliding gate c. Sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc d. Check, sliding gate, and rotary plug |
c. Sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc |
|
|
The three methods of transferring fuel are gravity flow, a. Air pressure, and pump b. Check, and air pressure c. Pump, and hydromechanical d. Hydromechanical, and air pressure |
a. Air pressure, and pump |
|
|
What is the basic purpose of the fuel vent systems? a. Move fuel from tank to tank b. Pressurize the fuel from manifolds c. Remove residual fuel from manifolds d. Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse |
d. Prevent fuel tank rupture or collapse |
|
|
The most prevalent method refueling for ground servicing is a. Nozzle b. Top-off c. Single-point d. Over-the-swing |
c. Single-point |
|
|
The air refueling receptacle is operated a. hydraulically, but controlled electrically b. electrically, but controlled hydraulically c. electrically, but controlled pneumatically d. hydraulically, but controlled pneumatically |
a. Hydraulically, but controlled electrically |
|
|
Fuel's ability to hold contaminants in suspension is increased with a higher a. Fuel to air ratio b. Specific gravity c. Temperature d. Viscosity |
d. Viscosity |
|
|
What type of foreign particle appears in the fuel in a crystalline, granular, or glasslike form? a. Rust b. Sand or dust c. Brass shavings d. Aluminum or magnesium compounds |
b. Sand or dust |
|
|
Which type of fuel contaminant can form a red, brown, gray, or black slime in the fuel? a. Water b. Sediment c. Foreign particles d. Microbial growth |
d. Microbial growth |
|
|
Specks or granules of sediment in fuel that are visible to the naked eye are approximately how many microns or larger? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 54 |
b. 40 |
|
|
Classification of fuel leaks is necessary in order to determine a. How much fuel is being wasted b. The type of contaminant that is in the fuel c. Whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard d. Whether or not they constitute an environmental hazard |
c. Whether or not they constitute a flight safety hazard |
|
|
How are fuel leaks categorized? a. Major and minor b. Class 1 through 5 c. Class A through D d. Internal and external |
c. Class A through D |
|
|
Leak limits correspond to the a. Fuel type and location b. Leak category and location c. Leak category and fuel type d. Location and corrective action |
c. Leak category and fuel type |
|
|
In addition to the AFTO Form 781A or 781K, what form must you use to document fuel leaks when automatic data systems are not available? a. DD Form 2026 b. AFTO Form 422 c. AFTO Form 427 d. AFTO Form 781J |
c. AFTO Form 427 |
|
|
The resistance of an object its motion is a property of matter called a. Matter b. Inertia c. Friction d. Potential |
b. Inertia |
|
|
The ability to do work is the definition of a. Energy b. Inertia c. Friction d. Velocity |
a. Energy |
|
|
An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of a. Bernoulli's Law b. Newton's First Law of Motion c. Newton's Second Law of Motion d. Newton's Third Law of Motion |
b. Newton's First Law of Motion |
|
|
Which of Newton's Laws of motion is the best description of why an operating jet engine produces forward thrust? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth |
c. Third |
|
|
In a jet engine, what meters the fuel for combustion? a. Pressurizing and dump valve b. Fuel nozzles c. Fuel control d. Fuel pump |
c. Fuel control |
|
|
When the turbine wheel absorbs the fuel energy a. 50% is used for the accessories b. 60% is used for the accessories c. The energy returns to the compressor d. The energy operates the anti-ice system |
c. The energy returns to the compresssor |
|
|
What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure? a. Increases pressure b. Decreases pressure c. Results in pressure fluctuations d. Has minimum effect on pressure |
a. Increases pressure |
|
|
Air and gases flowing through a jet engine require a. Low velocity at all times b. Less velocity exiting than entering c. Equal velocity entering and exiting d. Greater velocity exiting than entering |
d. Greater velocity exiting than entering |
|
|
What forms the inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber? a. Interlocking stainless bands b. The inner and outer diffuser case c. A forged steel casing d. Solid sheet metal |
a. Interlocking stainless bands |
|
|
Fuel that accumulates after a failed start or after engine shutdown is a. Drained overboard by a drain system b. Returned to the fuel control by tubes c. Burned on the next start attempt d. Allowed to eveporate |
a. Drained overboard by a drain system |
|
|
The three turbine designs used in jet engines are a. Shrouded, unshrouded, and fir tree b. Shrouded, unshrouded, and corrugated c. Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse d. Impeller, impulse, and reaction-impulse |
c. Impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse |
|
|
On some jet engines, what secures the turbine bucket in place a. Screws b. Cables c. Lockwire d. Lock strips |
d. Lock strips |
|
|
The exhaust duct connects the turbine outlet and the a. Fan duct b. Jet nozzle c. Fuel nozzle d. Augmented duct |
b. Jet nozzle |
|
|
What is the purpose of the exhaust duct? a. Swirl exhaust gas-flow b. Equalize exhaust gas-flow c. Modulate exhaust gas-flow d. Straighten exhaust gas-flow |
d. Straighten exhaust gas-flow |
|
|
One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the a. Flap b. Segmented c. Segmented flap d. Segmented nozzle |
c. Segmented flap |
|
|
What augmenter component creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity? a. Spraybar b. Flameholder c. Screech liner d. Fuel manifold |
b. Flameholder |
|
|
Which engine type is used a lot during the early years of jet engine design is the most basic turbine engine design? a. Turbojet b. Turbofan c. Turboram d. Turboprop |
a. Turbojet |
|
|
When a jet engine uses two or more turbine wheels, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel? a. Diffuser b. Jet nozzle c. Combustion liner d. Nozzle diaphragm |
d. Nozzle diaphragm |
|
|
A jet engine derives its name from the fact that a. it is in effect a turbo-supercharger b. the internal engine nozzles are called jets c. it used a turbine-type compressor to maintain power d. it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor |
d. it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor |
|
|
What are the two types of jet engine compressors a. Axial-flow and radial b. Centrifugal and radial c. Axial-flow and divergent d. Centrifugal and axial-flow |
d. Centrifugal and axial-flow |
|
|
After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal jet engine compressor, it is subjected to a. Radial and tangential forces b. Rotational and tangential forces c. Rotational and centrifugal forces d. Tangential and centrifugal forces |
c. Rotational and centrifugal forces |
|
|
What determines the N2 compressor RPM of a dual-spool jet engine compressor? a. Starter b. Fuel pump c. Fuel control d. Low-pressure turbine |
c. Fuel control |
|
|
What is the purpose of a front-mounted fan in an axial-flow jet engine compressor? a. Add thrust and decrease efficiency b. Add air to the engine and decrease efficiency c. Increase thrust and engine RPM d. Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor |
d. Increase thrust and send air through the compressor core rotor |
|
|
The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between a. 60 and 70% b. 65 and 75% c. 75 and 95% d. 95 and 100% |
d. 95 and 100% |
|
|
Engine design helps prevent igniter plug fouling by a. splitting the electrode on the plug b. directing air around the plug electrode c. applying gold plating to the plug electrode d. applying ceramic coating on the plug electrode |
b. directing air around the plug electrode |
|
|
A turbofan engine with a bypass ratio of 3:1 is classified as a. Low bypass b. Low-medium bypass c. Medium bypass d. Medium-high bypass |
c. Medium bypass |
|
|
The primary function of a hydromechanical fuel control on a jet engine is to a. Generate the proper fuel pressure for all ranges of engine operation b. Prevent hot starts, overtemperatures, engine overspeeding, and flameouts c. Propel the right amount of fuel to the fuel nozzles of correct combustion at all times d. Meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times
|
d. Meter the fuel, making certain that the engine gets the correct quantity for combustion at all times |
|
|
What type of fuel control uses thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine? a. Pneumatic b. Fuel injection c. Hydromechanical d. Electrohydromechanical |
d. Electrohydromechanical |
|
|
The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to a. Heat the fuel and cool the oil b. Cool the fuel and cool the oil c. Heat the fuel and heat the oil d. Cool the fuel and heat oil |
a. Heat the fuel and cool the oil |
|
|
When classified according to structure, which of the following in not a type of oil pump? a. gear b. gerotor c. rotogear d. sliding vane |
c. rotogear |
|
|
What jet engine oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing? a. gear b. gerotor c. rotogear d. rotor-gear |
b. gerotor |
|
|
A micron is a metric linear measurement equal to a. 1/25 of an inch b. 1/250 of an inch c. 1/2500 of an inch d. 1/25000 of an inch |
d. 1/25000 of an inch |
|
|
The two types of oil coolers in jet engine oil systems are air/oil and a. fuel/oil b. freon/oil c. water/oil d. hydraulic/oil |
a. fuel/oil |
|
|
What do you use to create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system? a. Wadding b. Packing c. Gasket d. Filler |
c. Gasket |
|
|
What engine component must be rotated to a predetermined speed in order for a jet engine starter to be considered effective? a. Center gearbox b. Front gearbox c. Compressor d. Turbine |
c. compressor |
|
|
The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines a. is usually mounted on the engine accessory b. uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine c. has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters d. Requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start |
c. has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters |
|
|
The cartridge-pneumatic starter is a gas-driven turbine wheel coupled to the engine through a reduction gear system and a. a PTO shaft b. a single entry air diverter c. an overrunning clutch d. a cartridge |
c. an overrunning clutch |
|
|
In a gearbox-type starter system, what transmits the torque supplied by the JFS to the engine box? a. PTO shaft b. Single entry air diverter c. Pneumatic cartridge d. Overrunning clutch |
a. PTO shaft |
|
|
What jet engine AC ignition system unit develops 20,000 volts delivered to the igniter plugs? a. Inverter b. Capacitor c. Generator d. Transformer |
d. Transformer |
|
|
A simple DC ignition system consists of a. vibrator, ac to dc converter, and transformer b. transformer, igniter plugs, and ac to dc converter c. vibrator, igniter plug, and ac to dc converter d. vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer |
d. vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer |
|
|
Jet engine tachometer gauges are calibrated in percent of a. minimum RPM b. maximum torque c. minimum torque d. maximum RPM |
d. maximum RPM |
|
|
The purpose of the jet engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicating system is to give a reference to the engine's a. available thrust output b. compressor balance c. thermal efficiency d. turbine efficiency |
a. available thrust output |
|
|
Exhaust gat temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in a. BTU per hour b. PSI c. degrees Fahrenheit d. degrees Celsius |
d. degrees Celsius |
|
|
The three benefits of the JOAP are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and a. recycling of used oil b. production of wear metals c. increased equipment availability d. increased length of time between oil changes |
c. increased equipment availability |
|
|
Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in commission rate because there will be a. recycling of used oil b. production of wear metals c. increased equipment availability d. increased length of time between oil changes |
c. increased equipment availability |
|
|
At a minimum, what should you wear when taking an oil sample? a. goggles b. goggles and gloves c. gloves and long sleeves d. goggles and long sleeves |
b. goggles and gloves |
|
|
What indicates lubricant system contamination by dirt and sand? a. a decrease in carbon b. an increase in silicon c. a decrease in graphite d. an increase in synthetic oils |
b. an increase in silicon |
|
|
What form must you fill out and submit to the non-destructive inspections (NDI) laboratory with all oil samples? a. DD Form 988 b. DD Form 2026 c. AFTO Form 244 d. AFTO 781 series forms |
b. DD FORM 2026 |
