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177 Cards in this Set

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When is an A1c considered fully qualified for promotion to SRA?

a. 20 mo TIG, 36 mo TIS, and recommended by the commander.

b.20 mo TIG and 24 TIS.

c.28 months TIG only.

d. Recommended by the commander only.
a.20 mo TIG, 36 mo TIS, and recommended by the commander.
When are individuals considered for BTZ promotion to SRA?

a.Six months prior to the Airman's best qualified date.

b.Six months prior to the Airman's fully qualified date.

c.The month prior to the month in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion.

d. The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion
d. The month prior to the quarter in which they will be eligible for BTZ promotion
What is the PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MilPDS?

a.A

b.B

c.C

d.D
a.A
When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the nonrecommendation, inclusive dates of the nonrecommendation action, and

a.the Airman's acknowledgment.

b.the promotion eligibility status code.

c.the Airman's time in grade and time in service.

d.a statement indicating that the status is withheld.
a. the Airman's acknowledgment.
In the WAPS what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?

a.PFE and EPRS

b.SKT and PFE

c.PFE and time in grade

d. SKT and decorations.
b.SKT and PFE
In the WAPS, time in grade is computed at the rate of

a. one-fourth point per month in grade up to 10 years.

b.one-fourth point per month in grade up to 20 years.

c.one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.

d.one-half point per month in grade up to 20 years.
c.one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.
What is the EPR conversion factor?

a.27

b.18

c.15

d.9
a.27
A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,

a.23 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

b.23 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS

c.24 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

d.24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS
d.24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS
What is the minimum total points a record can be assessed if all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18?

a.18

b.54

c.270

d.450
c.270
Which of the following is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process?

a.Education

b.Leadership

c.Marital status

d.Performance
c.Marital status
Under the STEP program, no Airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except

a.SrA

b.SSgts

c.TSgts

d.MSgts
a.SrA
In which situation does a member remain eligible for promotion consideration and selection but, if selected, is prevented from assuming the higher grade?

a.receives a letter of reprimand

b.possesses an UIF

c.Awaiting a decision on an application as a CO

d.Is in Phase II of the WBFMP
c.Awaiting a decision on an application as a conscientious objector
A promotion is withheld when an Airman's name is removed from a promotion selection list and the Airman is

a.in Phase II of the WBFMP

b.in the probation period of the WBFMP

c.serving in the grade of CMSgt and has not completed the Senior NCO academy.

d.serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy
d.serving in the grade of TSgt and has not completed the command NCO academy
Which officer grouping is not considered a competitive promotion category?

a.Chaplains

b.Rated Officer Corps

c.Biomedical Science Corps

d.LAF
b.Rated Officer Corps
Based on their current grade and date of rank, what are the three promotion zones that active duty officers fall into?

a.Below, in, and above.

b.Under, on, and beyond

c.Advanced, intermediate, and regular

d.Lower level, middle level, and upper level.
a.Below, in, and above.
When a promotion board is considering active duty officers for promotion to colonel, the board president must be in the grade of

a.general

b.lietenant general

c.major general

d.brigadier general
c.major general
What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board?

a.Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.

b.Difference of more than 1.5 points between all of the scores on a record.

c.Board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.

d.Difference in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.
a.Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
Removal of an officer's name, from a list of those selected for promotion to captain, is officially confirmed by

a.the Senate

b.the Armed Froces Policy Council

c.Headquarters AFPC

d.the MAJCOM
a.the Senate
The MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster is manually posted throughout the duration of a promotion cycle to

a.serve as a suspense control document in scheduling promotion testing

b.provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.

c.preclude scheduling military couples for promotion testing on different dates.

d.serve as a suspense control document in determining "no shows" for promotion testing.
b.provide a current reference in determining a member's promotion status.
When career enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the

a.MPF Selectee Data Verification List.

b.Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.

c.MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.

d.Airman Promotion DVR.
b.Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.
Which phase of the promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC?

a.Initial

b.Preselect

c.Postselect

d.File build
a.Initial
Monthhly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about the

a.1st of the month

b.5th of the month

c.10th of the month

d.15th of the month
d.15th of the month
Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system via transactions from

a.Headquarters USAF to AFPC and MAJCOMs

b.Headquarters USAF to MAJCOMs and MPFs

c.AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs

d.AFPC to the secretary of the Air Force and MAJCOMs
c.AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs
Which brief is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF that is used by all officer selection boards?

a.OPB

b.Officer ISB

c.OSB

d.Officer PSB
c.OSB
When a promotion board is to convene within 14 days, how does the MPF notify Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB?

a.By message

b.By telephone

c.In a memorandum sent via Federal Express.

d.Via a MilPDS update.
a.By message
An EPR is not required when the ratee is

a.a member whose performance is unsatifactory

b.a SrA or above and has nott had a report for at least 1 year and the period of supervision has been 120 calendar days.

c.an A1C or below, has 20 or more months' TAFMS, has had an initial report, and has not had a report for at least 1 year.

d.an A1C or below,has less than 20 months' TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.
D.an A1C or below, has less than 20 months TAFMS and has not had a report for at least 120 calendar days.
Which rater cannot prepare EPR?

a.An officer of a foreign military service in a grade equal to or higher than the ratee

b.An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above.

c.An active duty member in the grade of SrA if the member has completed the NCO Prepatory Course.

d. A civilian in grade GS-5 holding a supervisory position that is higher than the ratee in the ratee's rating chain.
b.An active duty USAFR member in the grade of SrA or above.
When the additional rater is not at least a MSgt but there is a civilian equivalent as the next official in the rating chain, the civilian equivalent becomes the endorser. In this situation, the civilian must be at least a

a.GS-4

b.GS-5

c.GS-6

d.GS-7
d.GS-7
Which individual may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in acion?

a.Senior rater

b.First sergeant

c.Additional rater

d.Unit commander
c.Additional rater
For a member already serving in the grade of CMSgt, the AF Form 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report (MSgt through CMSgt), is used to make a recommendation for

a.future assignments

b.increased responsibilities

c.retention to high year of tenure

d.continued service beyond high year of teenure.
b.increased responsibilities
The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to

a.make sure the ratee is promoted below the zone.

b.submit comments on any disciplinary actions the ratee incurs.

c.make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.

d.add additional comments on participation in community activities and off-base education programs.
c.make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.
Mandatory AF Form 77 Letter of Evaluation Sheet, is prepared for

a.Airman facing disciplinary action

b.enlisted members participating in the WCAP

c.enlisted members that are changing career fields.

d.officers being considered for below-the-zone promotions.
b.enlisted members participating in the WCAP
Which officers require feedback sessions?

a.Lieutenants only

b.Lieutenants and captains.

c.Lieutenants through majors

d.Lieutenants through colonels
d.Lieutenants through colonels
How many days before the selection board can PRF be completed by the senior rater?

a.120

b.90

c.60

d.30
c.60
The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's

a.recent performance

b.semiannual performance

c.annual performance.

d.entire career
d.entire career
Which Statement is not correct about completing an AF Form 475, Education/Training Report?

a. All comments are restricted to the front side of the form unless the report is a referral.

b.Use the same care and attention in preparing this report as you do in preparing AF Forms 707A and 707B.

c.For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, "ratee is geographically separated from evaluator," in section II.

d.In section III, include comments that portray the student's academic accomplishments.
c.For students whose professional qualities were not observed due to geographic separation, place the following statement, "ratee is geographically separated from evaluator," in section II.
All the statements cause an OPR to be referred except

a.being absent without leave

b.omissions of facts in official documents.

c.serious mismanagement of personal affairs.

d.satisfactory progress in the WBFMP
d.satisfactory progress in the WBFMP
A ratee's (officer or Airman) comments to the evaluator named in the referral letter must

a.contain pertinent attachments

b.reflect on the character of the evaluator.

c.not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated

d.be forwarded through the immediate supervisor
c.not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated
When the MPF commander determines who is qualified to provide counseling on evaluation appeal procedures, who must conduct the appeal counseling?

a.The member's unit commander

b.The member's immediate commander

c.Someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement.

d.Someone at a level no lower than the chief, customer support section.
c.Someone at a level no lower than the NCOIC, career enhancement.
Who is authorized to administer the oath of reenlistment?

a.Navy admiral who resigned his commission

b.Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit.

c.Captain who was transfered to the ORS

d.Lieutenant colonel who was transferred to the NARS
b.Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit.
Which statement best describes being discharged in conjunction with reenlisment?

a.a member is never discharged in conjunction with reenlistment

b.a member is reenlisted with no discharge proceeding on an AF form 901.

c.Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment.

d.Before reenlisting, an Airman must not be discharged; this is nonconditional because it is predicated on the member's CJR.
c.Before reenlisting, an Airman must be discharged; this discharge is conditional because it is predicated on the member's immediate reenlistment.
Which statement is not a reason an Airman, who is ineligible to reenlist, may submit a waiver to reenlist or extend?

a.insufficient grade.

b.serving on the airman control roster

c.the airman has 5 or mor days' lost time.

d.the AFSC is not commensurate with grade.
b.serving on the airman control roster
When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must then ensure that the SSgt

a.separates immediately

b.acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.

c.annotates the UPRG accordingly.

d.goes to Customer Service to ensure the MilPDS is updated
b.acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
Who is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment?

a.first-term airman needing 36 months' retainability for an overseas assignment

b.career airman desiring to extend for 49 months to increase bonus entitlement.

c.first-term airman wanting to extend for 14 months to determine wheter or ot to make the air force a career.

d.career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.
d.career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.
How does an extension of enlistment compare to a reenlistment?

a.neither an extension of enlistment nor a reenlistment is ever binding.

b.A reenlistment is never binding because it is generally for a longer period.

c.once the extension has been revoked, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistmen.

d.once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.
d.once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.
First-term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a CJR as early as the first duty day of the after he completes how many months on his current enlistment?

a.35

b.36

c.59

d.60
c.59
CJR cancellation procedures apply only to

a.approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.

b.disapproved CJRs, not rescinded CJRs

c.past CJRs, not to current CJRs.

d.members who cannot get a CJR in the AFSC they are currently working in.
a.approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
A CJR cannot be canceled when an airman

a.elects to be removed from the CJR waiting list.

b.has an approved CJR and no longer desires to reenlist.

c.has an approved CJR and requests voluntary separation.

d.is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
d.is on the CJR waiting list and does not request separation.
An airman with an approved or suspended CJR or CJR waiting-list position that was canceled can request that a CJR be reinstated if the airman

a.no longer wants to reenlist

b.was rendered ineligible to reenlist.

c.had a CJR waiting-list position was canceled because the member applied for separation

d.had a cjr waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
d.had a cjr waiting-list position that was canceled for reasons other than personal request.
What activity can reinstate approved CJRS for Airmen rendered ineligible to reenlist due to RE code 4K (medical disqualification)?

a.MPF

b.MAJCOM

c.Headquarters AFPC

d.Headquarters USAF
c.Headquarters AFPC
For first-term airmen serving in SRB skills, the AF Form 545, Request for CJR/Selective Reenlistment Bonus Authority, serves a dual purpose as both

a.a request for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.

b.an approval for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.

c.a disapproval for a CJR and a disapproval for SRB authorization.

d.an approval/disapproval for a CJR and a request/disapproval for SRB authorization.
a.a request for a CJR and a request for SRB authorization.
Which of the following restrictions does not apply to the SRB program?

a.SRB recipients must serve in the specialty that qualified them for the SRB.

b.Two or more extensions may not be combined to gain eligibilty for an SRB

c.The maximuum SRB payment to Air Force personnel is $45,000 for an entire military career.

d.SRB recipients are not use outside the SRB skill for more than 90 calendar days without approval by HQAFPC
c.The maximuum SRB payment to Air Force personnel is $45,000 for an entire military career.
A MPF commander will not authorize accelerated payment of a SRB when documented

a.expected circumstances have created an extreme financial hardship

b.unexpected circumstances of an emergency nature have created an extreme financial hardship.

c.unusual circumstances of an emergency nature have created an extreme financial hardship.

d.unusual circumstances of an emergency nature will create an extreme financial hardship.
a.expected circumstances have created an extreme financial hardship
A recoupment action to recover a SRB is not initiated when

a.a TSG refuses to perform certain duties in the SRB skill.

b.a TSgt's misconduct results in withdrawal of his or her security clearance.

c.a SSgt's incapacitating injury is not the result of his own misconduct

d.disciplinary action renders a SSgt ineligible to serve in an SRB skill.
c.a SSgt's incapacitating injury is not the result of his own misconduct
Which is an achievment award that is given to enlisted personnel every 3 years for exemplary conduct on active duty?

a.National Defense Service Medal.

b.National Defense Service Award.

c.AFGCM.

d.AFLSA
c.AFGCM.
To remain eligible for the award of the AFGCM, individuals must demonstrate

a.fidelity and espirit de corps

b.the ability to work in harmony with others.

c.a positive attitude toward the Air Force and their jobs.

d.compliance with minimally acceptable performance standards.
c.a positive attitude toward the Air Force and their jobs.
Who endorses an awards package sent through command channels when a major command (MAJCOM), field operating agency, or direct reporting unit commander is not available?

a.section commander

b.squadron commander

c.group commander

d.vice commander
d.vice commander
It is imperative that recommendations for decorations be restricted to the recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement, and acts of heroism in order to

a.preserve the integrity of decorations

b.prevent the token submissions of decorations in an effort to "do something for people."

c.prevent recommending personnel for Air Force awards when decorations are warranted.

d.differentiate criteria for awarding decorations from criteria for awarding Air Force awards.
a.preserve the integrity of decorations
A reconsideration for a decoration is contingent upon

a.the fact that the decoration was submitted and acted upon.

b.administrative processing that the decoration was acted upon.

c.submission into official channels not within the prescribed limits.

d.the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels
d.the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels
Until the awarding authority announces it final decision, the fact that a person has been recommended for a decoration is considered

a.confidential

b.for official use only

c.sensitive information

d.privileged information
b.for official use only
What activity does the survey control officer notify upon receipt of an unauthorized survey?

a.Headquarters AFPC.

b.MAJCOM

c.MPF commander

d.Senior host commander
a.Headquarters AFPC.
A LOD and misconduct determination is required when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that results in

a.the issuance of a strong prescription

b.the likelihood of permanent disability

c.death, when there are no surviving family members.

d.the inability to perform military duties for more than 48 hours.
b.the likelihood of permanent disability
What method of determination is used when a member's death is of a natural origin, does not involve misconduct, and was not caused by drug or alcohol abuse?

a.Formal

b.Informal

c.Line of duty

d.Administrative
d.Administrative
Which officer normally serves as the appointing authority in processing a LOD determintion?

a.Senior host commander or vice commander.

b.Officer exercising special court-martial jurisdiction.

c.Officer exercising summary court-martial jurisdiction

d.Group commander in the chain of command over the immediate commander.
d.Group commander in the chain of command over the immediate commander.
The findings of a LOD determination are used by the Air Force to determine eligibilty for all of the following except

a.physical disability retirement or separation

b.continued payment of the deceased member's quarters allowance.

c.continued occupancy in military housing of a member's family members

d.determining creditable service for nondisabilty retirement compensation
d.determining creditable service for nondisabilty retirement compensation
AFPC automatically computes the TAFMSD and pay date for member, then distributes an AF Form 1613 on enlisted personnel in all of the following categories except

a.Prior service Airmen who enlist after a break in service.

b.reenlisted Airmen who have been charged with time lost

c.Airmen with more than 14 years TAFMS if a statement has not been prepared previously

d.members with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared previously.
d.members with less than 12 years of TAFMS if a statement has already been prepared previously.
An officer may submit a SPTC to obtain more active duty retainability to serve all of the followig except

a.excess leave

b.the tour length for an assignment

c.second consideration for promotion to captain

d.an active duty service commitment for education or training
a.excess leave
Which special pay category is payable in an annual lump sum for Medical an Dental Corps officers who are not undergoing internship?

a.BCP

b.ISP

c.VSP

d.ASP
d.ASP
Which of the following entitles a Medical Corps officer to (special pay) MSP?

a.Serving in pay grade GS-12 or above

b.Having at least 8 years of creditable service

c.Not having completed specialty qualification

d.Dental officer who has signed a contract for 2, 3, or 4 years.
b.Having at least 8 years of creditable service
The total amount of the aviator continuation pay is based on an annual rate determined by the aviator's

a.TAFCS

b.commitment through 12 years of commissioned service

c.active duty service commitment incurred for pilot training

d.military service obligation incurred by all American members
a.TAFCS
Under the EQUAL rotation assignment advertising system, how many times a year are matches done for members returning from OS?

a.One

b.Two

c.Three

d.Four
d.Four
What are the primary reporting months for an enlited member whose OS cycle schedule determines allocation in October, advertises openings in November, and the member is matched for an assignment in December

a.April/May/June

b.July/August/September

c.January/February/March

d.October/November/December
b.July/August/September
OS returnees are aligned into three groups within each grade and AFSC. Which of the following best describes group two?

a.Airmen returning from tours of 18 months or more, regardless of accompanied status.

b.Enlisted members returning from an OS tour of 17 months or less where family members are restricted

c.Enlisted members returning from an OS tour of 18 months or more where family members are restricted.

d.Members returning from a tour of 17 months or less, family members are authorized, and the Airmen selected an unaccompanied tour.
d.Members returning from a tour of 17 months or less, family members are authorized, and the Airmen selected an unaccompanied tour.
Who places requirement advertisements on the EQUALPlus listing?

a.AFPC assignment OPR

b.MAJCOM assignment OPR

c.Career field functional managers

d.The POC listed in the advertisement
a.AFPC assignment OPR
CMsgt and CMSgt-selects volunteer for requirement listed on the EQUAL-Plus by

a.updating their request through PC-III

b.contacting their career field manager at HQ AFPC

c.updating their request in the assignment management system

d.contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group
d.contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group
Which of the following action can an enlisted member take to make himself ineligible for an assignment after an assignment selection date has been established?

a.Submit applcation for a commissioning program

b.Request retirement under 7-day option provisions

c.Request release from involuntary OS selection

d.Submit request for separation under 7-day option provisions.
b.Request retirement under 7-day option provisions
The AF established TOS requirements to improve the quality of life for AF members and their family members and to

a.permit professional development

b.enhance unit operational readiness

c.prevent officers from "omesteading"

d.allow fo job proficiency and OJT
b.enhance unit operational readiness
What is the minimum retainability requirement for a CONUS to CONUS humanitarian permanent change of station?

a.6 months

b.12 months

c.24 months

d.36 months
a.6 months
When more than one AAC applies to a member, the one that is used to preclude assignment reconsideration is the one with the

a.longest period of deferment

b.shortest period of nonavailability

c.latest entry regardless of period of nonavailabilty

d.earliest entry regardless of period of nonavailability
a.longest period of deferment
Within how many calendar days must a unit commander notify a member of an assignment that is within 90 days of the report NLT date?

a.1

b.3

c.5

d.7
b.3
Which activity prepares a relocation folder when an official assignment notification of a member's selection for reassignment is received?

a.PRE

b.ARPC

c.AFPC

d.CSS
a.PRE
Once a member is notified of selection for an assignment, the PRE conducts an initial relocation interview

a.NET 60 calendar days after official notification

b.NET 45 calendar days after official notification

c.ASAP but NLT 30 calendar days after official notification

d.ASAP but NLT 15 calendar days after official notification
d.ASAP but NLT 15 calendar days after official notification
When AF form 1466, Request for Family Member's Medical and Education Clearance for Travel, has been completed by the MTF, how does the MPF handle the original and a copy?

a.Returns the original to MTF and gives the member a copy

b.Files the original in the PIF and files a copy in the clearance file.

c.Files the original in the UPRG and files a copy in the member's relocation folder.

d.Retains the original in the member's relocaation folder and sends a copy to the hospital for the member's medical records.
c.Files the original in the UPRG and files a copy in the member's relocation folder.
SSgt Goodall walks up to your desk with a driver qualification memorandum in hand asking for assistance; with this information, you have SSgt Goodall report to the

a.TMO

b.Base Vehicle Operations (Licensing) Office

c.Driver Qualifications Lending and Operations Office

d.Base Conveyance Maintenance Operations Office for Licensing
b.Base Vehicle Operations (Licensing) Office
After the initial relocations interview, the PRE forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's unit commander whenever the assignment requires any of the following except

a.a security line badge.

b.eligibility for special access

c.a higher security clearance than possessed

d.eligibilty for assignment to a special program
a.a security line badge.
How are port calls established for members who must perform 30 days or more TDY at another location en route to their OS reassignment?

a.TDY unit establishes flight reservations

b.Member is responsible for establishing flight reservations

c.losing unit obtains flight reservations before the member goes TDY

d.Losing MPF obtains fligh reservations before the member goes TDY
a.TDY unit establishes flight reservations
The AF Form 907 for a member going PCS from a GSU with a personnel function and authorization to publish orders is accomplished by the

a.GSU

b.servicing MPF

c.CSS

d.AFPC
a.GSU
A GSU that has a personnel function and is authorized to publish orders must fully document the disposition of the completed AF Form 907 and all related documents in the

a.PIF and CSS policy letter

b.UPRG and MPF official records

c.GSU and MPF support agreement

d.Base Information Management Offfice and the Base Information Transfer Center offical records
c.GSU and MPF support agreement
In what section of the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation checklist, are personnel processing instructions annotated?

a.I

b.II

c.III

d.IV
c.III
When does the personnel journeyman date and sign the AF Form 907 in section IV?

a.Upon official notification of assignment

b.While processing the dependent's passport

c.During initial interview (individually or en masse).

d.Final outprocessing interview (individually or en masse)
d.Final outprocessing interview (individually or en masse)
When are PCS orders normally published?

a.At least 60 days before the member's projected departure date

b.At least 90 days before the member's projected departure date

c.NLT 60 days before the member's report NLT date.

d.NLT 90 days before the member's report NLT date
a.At least 60 days before the member's projected departure date
When is the PRE authorized to publish PCS orders directing a member who is on leave or TDY to depart PCS before he or she returns to the curent duty station?

a.Member's report not later date was changed

b.Member's replacement reported to duty early.

c.Losing commander changed the member's projected departure date.

d.After you confirm that the member would not incur a personal financial loss.
d.After you confirm that the member would not incur a personal financial loss.
What information is included in block 14 of the PCS order to indicate that this is a joint spouse assignment?

a.Spuse's name an grade

b.Spouse's social security number and pay grade.

c.Spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade.

d.Spouse's name, social security number, and control AFSC
c.Spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade.
When can FTA apply for a BOP assignment?

a.After reenlisting

b.After receiving an assignment selection date.

c.When disapproved for a career job reservation.

d.When selected under the selective reenlistment program
d.When selected under the selective reenlistment program
How long must carerr Airmen wait to reapply for a BOP, after their prior request is disapproved?

a.Three months from the date of disapproval when requesting the same locations

b.Six months from the date of disapproval when requesting different locations

c.They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations

d.They can reapply immediately when requesting the same locations
c.They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations
When can members assigned to isolated locations apply for reassignment?

a.NET nine months before their DOA

b.NET 11 months before their DOA

c.NLT 12 months before thier DOA

d.NLT 15 months before their DOA
b.NET 11 months before their DOA
Members eligible to apply for HB or FO assisgnment consideration must do so within 15 days of the

a.official notification of the assignment

b.assignment selection date

c.initial relocation briefing

d.projected departure date
c.initial relocation briefing
Which condition would cause cancellation of a member's FO assignment?

a.Military couple relocated their dependents to a location other than the FO location.

b.Single parent relocated his dependents to a designated location at his own expense

c.Single member ship households to the short location where he is required to reside off-base.

d.Military couple serving concurrent unaccompanied short tours stored their HHG at government expense.
a.Military couple relocated their dependents to a location other than the FO location.
In addition to substantiating a humanitarian problem, before approval of a request for humanitarian assignment is granted, all of the following basic conditions must be met except the

a.member's presence is essential to alleviate a problem

b.member can resolve the problem within a reasonable amount of time (normally 12 months)

c.member has a documented and substantiated long-term problem involving a family member.

d.member's problem more severe than that usually encountered by others with a similar problem.
c.member has a documented and substantiated long-term problem involving a family member.
Members can apply for an EFMP reassignment or deferment if they

a.intend to provide emotional support to a parent due to age.

b.have an exceptional family member that is intellectually or athletically gifted

c.have contacted the EFMP officer for a complete evaluation, assessment, and enrollment.

d.intend to use the deferment or reassignment to establish a medical program for a dependent wwithout life threatening allergies.
c.have contacted the EFMP officer for a complete evaluation, assessment, and enrollment.
What is the period of PCS and involuntary TDY deferment for members granted a humanitarian or EFMP reassignment?

a.3 months from DAS

b.6 months from DAS

c.9 months from DAS

d.12 months from DAS
d.12 months from DAS
Which of the following reasons in support of a humanitarian assignment or deferment would most likely result in disapproval of the request?

a.Recent death of applicant's spouse.

b.Establishing an effective family advocacy program.

c.Terminal illness of a family member when death is imminent within two years.

d. The condition existed or was reasonably foreseeable before entry on active duty.
d. The condition existed or was reasonably foreseeable before entry on active duty.
A request for an expanded permissive reassignment is normally approved when

a.manning at the gaining base meets the established CONUS-wide level.

b.manning at the losing base meets the established Conus-wide- level

c.the gaining base manning will increase to exceed the CONUS-wide level.

d.the losing bas manning level will not decrease below CONUS-wide level.
b.manning at the losing base meets the established Conus-wide- level
What PCS cost identifier do you include on the special orders to indicate that the PCS is at no cost to the government?

a.E

b.I

c.M

d.P
c.M
Which is not a designated base under the VSBAP?

a.Minot AFB, North Dakota

b.Socorro AFS, New Mexico

c.Los Angeles AFS, California

d.Grand Forks AFB, North Dakota
b.Socorro AFS, New Mexico
What TOS criteria must a member meet to volunteer under the VSBAP?

a.Must have at least 36 months TOS to apply

b.Must have at least 24 months TOS apply

c.Must have at least two years, five months TOS to apply and at least 36 months before departure

d.Must have at least one year and six months TOS to apply and at least 24 months before departure
c.Must have at least two years, five months TOS to apply and at least 36 months before departure
All of the following are primary factors in determining the type of tour served except

a.family members' travel

b.commander sponsorship

c.number of family members

d.shipment of HHG to the OS area at government expense
c.number of family members
An AF member has received initial assignment notification and accpeted an unaccpompanied tour. Before the departure date, the member acquires dependents and is eligible to move the family at government exense to the OS location. In this situation, when is the member afforded the opportunity to make a tour election change?

a.Never

b.ASAP

c.Member must wait until arrival at the next duty station

d.Only when timliness is waived by the AFPC
b.ASAP
Before family member orders can be published, which agency must certify medical and educational clearance on the AF Form 1466, Medical and Educational Clearance for Dependent Overseas Travel?

a.Losing installation commander

b.PRE

c.Gaining installation commander

d.Base MTF
d.Base MTF
The gaining MTF has determined that special educational needs cannot be met, and has sent a message to the losing facility and relocations. The AF Form 1466 is annotated appropriately. What activity reviews the AF Form 1466 in this situation?

a.MAJCOM

b.base education office

c.MPF

d.AFPC
a.MAJCOM
Within how many duty days of the official assignment or training notification must HQ AFPC prepare all AF Forms 63 and fax them to the MPF?

a.1

b.3

c.5

d.15
c.5
What activity updates the military personnel data system for all ADSCD and reason codes (except for health profession and judge advocate officers)

a.MAJCOM

b.MPF

c.CSS

d.AFPC
d.AFPC
Funding for category 1 training must be obtained from

a.USAF formal schools

b.FSO

c.Major force program eight resources

d.Technical training and education activities
c.Major force program eight resources
The training or education of individual military members in formal courses conducted by AETC falls into which category?

a.1

b.2

c.Primary

d.Secondary
A.1
The education and training activities conducted by MAJCOMS and their operational units are referred to as

a.Category 1

b.Category 2

c.AU training and education

d.HSC of AFMC training and education
b.Category 2
What is the duty status of personnel who must attend two or more courses of 20 weeks or more duration at one location?

a.TDY

b.TDY en-route

c.PCS

d.PCA
c.PCS
When preparing a TDY class project folder, which statement is correct?

a.Create a relocation folder for each member

b.Prepare notification letters to agencies outside the MPF

c.Provide members going TDY stateside an immunization memorandum

d.Prepare one AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist for the entire class.
a.Create a relocation folder for each member
Which statement about fund citations is not correct?

a.Fund citations are provided with school allocation instructions for members in attendance at formal schools.

b.Conus unit are responsible for funding per diem for personnel scheduled for training courses OS.

c.TDY to a course conducted outside the Air Force training program is the responsibility of the AF activity to which the person is assigned.

d.OS commands are responsible for funding of transportation and per diem of personnel attending training courses outside the CONUS
b.Conus unit are responsible for funding per diem for personnel scheduled for training courses OS.
When a member visits a particular site in order to perform operational or nagerial activities, the purpose of the TDY is categorized as

a.site visit

b.management activity

c.operational meeting

d.special missions travel
a.site visit
Women who have MSO and are otherwise qualified for transfer to the Reserve are discharged if

a.the reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge

b.the reason for separation is conscientious objection and they request discharge.

c.they have less than 12 months remaining on their MSOs and they request discharge

d.they have less than 12 months remaining on their MSOs and are not in a combat support
a.the reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge
Prior to ETS, separation is a concern at all level of responsibilty because any separation before the completion of an obligated period of service results in the loss of substantial investment in recruiting, training, and equipping Airmen and

a.leads to a need for more accessions

b.increases the workload for other Airmen

c.increases quotes for AF recruiters

d.is a waste of substantial AF resources
a.leads to a need for more accessions
When determining whether a member should be discharged, isolated incidents and events that are remote in time

a.have little value

b.have great value

c.are never considered

d.are always considered
a.have little value
Regular officers who desire discharge or release on completion of all ADSC may

a.request release

b.request discharge

c.tender their resignation

d.not tender their resignation
c.tender their resignation
All of the following documents are found in the separation relocation folder except

a.PCS without PCA orders

b.PCS without PCS orders

c.Medical Examination Memorandum

d.AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist
b.PCS without PCS orders
The personnel journeyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation preparation actions must do all of the following except

a.review the Relocation Preparation Folder

b.arrange transportation for all househould pets.

c.receipt of memorandum sent to outside agencies

d.review the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist
b.arrange transportation for all househould pets.
During final separation outprocesing, an individual in the PRE ensures that all of the following occur except

a.retrieval of the ID card memorandum

b.retrieval of all inquiries before the member leaves active service

c.all replies from base agencies are on file in the relocation folder.

d.all actions on the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist, are complete and the member is advised concerning importance of safeguarding separation forms.
d.all actions on the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist, are complete and the member is advised concerning importance of safeguarding separation forms.
Which of the following FTA would not be entitled to transportation on the AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation?

a.Separated Medal of Honor recipient

b.Separated at ETS

c.Released from active duty not the result of intentional misconduct

d.involuntary separated for reasons of misconduct, for service characterized as under other than honorable conditions.
d.involuntary separated for reasons of misconduct, for service characterized as under other than honorable conditions.
Which of the following grades is not authorized to sign an AF Form 100?

a.GS-4

b.GS-5

c.SSgt

d.Capt
a.GS-4
An AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders is published as an amendment to the AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation, in order to

a.correct an inaccurate future mailing address

b.change an AFSC skill level

c.change pertinent data that afects an entitlement

d.change the aeronautical rating and flying status to correct inaccurate first names
c.change pertinent data that afects an entitlement
Which of the following factors is not required on a member's request for a waiver of restriction based on hardship?

a.How the hardship would be eased or eliminated by retiremtn

b.Tha the hardship came up or got worse after restriction was incurred

c.How civilian emplyment or business opportunity would alleviate hardship

d.What efforts were made to remedy the situation by means other than retirement
c.How civilian emplyment or business opportunity would alleviate hardship
Members who want to take terminal leave should apply for retirement at least 120 days in advance of the requested date plus the number of days leave desired

a.to allow enough time for a replacement to identified, assigned, and trainined

b.to allow enough time to process a retirement application and issue retirement orders

c.because the final pay account on retirement cannot be completed earlier than 90 days before retirement

d.because the final pay account on retirement cannot be completed earlier than 120 days before retirement
b.to allow enough time to process a retirement application and issue retirement orders
Under HYT guidelines, SMSgt,s retirement must be effective NLT the first day of the month following the month in which the member will complete

a.20 years service

b.24 years service

c.26 years service

d.28 years service
d.28 years service
When age is the reason for mandatory retirement, the retirement date for any officer in the grade of captain or above will be the first day of the month after the month the officer turns

a.55 years old

b.60 years old

c.62 years old

d.65 years old
c.62 years old
Which of the following military decorations does not automatically qualify an enlisted member for award of a 10 percent increase in retire pay based on extraordinary heroism?

a.Navy Cross

b.Air Force Cross

c.Medal of Honor

d.Distinguished Flying Cross
d.Distinguished Flying Cross
The PRE must maintain a retirement relocation preparation folder to ensure all actions required in processing a retirement have been finalized. Which of the following documents is not included in the relocation folder?

a.Af Form 907, Relocation Preparation checklist

b.DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement

c.DD Form 214WS, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, Worksheet

d.VA Form 21-526, Application for Veterans Affairs Disabilty Compensation, for all members claiming service connected disability
b.DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement
The DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, serves all of the following purposes except

a.validating a veteran's eligibility for benefits

b.providing prospective civilian employers with a member's service characterization

c.giving significant and authoritative information used by civilian and government agencies

d.providing the military service with information about military personnel for administration
d.providing the military service with information about military personnel for administration
Under which of the following separation actions, is a DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, not issued?

a.Removal from the temporary disability retirment list.

b.Dismissal from service under a sentence of general court martial.

c.Discharge from enlisted status to accept appointment as a commissioned officer.

d.Expiration of enlistment for a cadet who entered the USAF Academy from enlisted status
a.Removal from the temporary disability retirment list.
Copy 4 of the DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, is invaluable as an official record because it shows a separating member's

a.reason for separation and reenlistment eligibility

b.service characterization when dropped from roll

c.change from cadet status to commission as a regular officer

d.transition from a reserve appointment to the Regular Air Force.
c.change from cadet status to commission as a regular officer
What type of discharge certificate is issued to member whose service characterization is under honorable conditions?

a.DD Form 215, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty

b.DD Form 256 AF. Honorable Discharge

c.DD Form 214, General Discharge

d.DD Form 794AF, Discharge Under Other than Honorable Conditions
c.DD Form 214, General Discharge
the Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of functions and requirements for all of the following except

a.education

b.experience

c.knwledge

d.personal desires
d.personal desires
Which of the following positions of an AFSC denotes the career field subdivision for the Personnel Journeyman (AFSC 3S051)?

a.First position-3

b.Second position-S

c.Third position-0

d.Fourth position-5
c.Third position-0
How does a "capper" AFSC differ from other AFSCs?

a.Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a "0"

b.First position of a capper AFSC will always be a "9"

c.Fifth position of all other AFSCs will always be a "9"

d.First position of all other AFSCs will always be numeric
a.Fifth position of a capper AFSC will always be a "0"
When classifying a member into a specific AFSC, which of the following factors is not taken into consideration?

a.Individuals initial enlistment contract

b.Individuals preference

c.Needs of the Air Force

d.Assignment volunteer status
d.Assignment volunteer status
In addition to upgrade training, how is knowledge requirements for award of a skill-level accomplished?

a.Job qualification training

b.A specialty training course

c.A technical training course

d.CDCs
d.CDCs
Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Airmen primary AFSC?

a.desires and interests of the individual

b.Amount of formal training and education

c.Civic and fraternal membership

d.Complexity of specialty
c.Civic and fraternal membership
A member serving in the grade of MSgt will normally not be used outside a CAFSC during any 12-month period

a.while in upgrade training for award of the 5-skill level

b.while in upgrade training for award of the 9-skill level

c.for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the MPF commander

d.for a period not to exceed 240 days without approval from the MPF commander
c.for a period not to exceed 130 days without approval from the MPF commander
Which of the following media will Air Force use to provide AFSC revisions and conversion instruction to MPFs?

a.AFI 36-2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)

b.MAJCOM semiannual revision to AFI 36-2108, Enlisted Classification

c.Change summary and conversion guide

d.MPF memorandums
c.Change summary and conversion guide
When conversion actions are not accomplished by the conversion effective date, MPFs are authorized to award AFSCs based on conversion instructions for how many days after the effective date?

a.30

b.60

c.90

d.120
a.30
For which of the following reason would an AFSC downgrade be appropriate?

a.Qualification for aviation service for other than medical reasons

b.Loss of aircraft qualification

c.Reduction in grade

d.Medical disqualification
c.Reduction in grade
RIs are important to the personnel employment element because they identify

a.positions only

b.personnel only

c.conditions for which specific job descriptions are practical

d.positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system
d.positions, personnel, or both not otherwise identifiable in the military classification system
What type of duty does RI 9T000 indicate?

a.An airman in basic military training

b.AFSC of officers entering primary-basic pilot training

c.An Officer in the grade of brigadier general or higher

d.AFSC of a prisoner in confinement who has not been dropped from rolls
a.An airman in basic military training
How are SDI designated in the individual's personnel records?

a.Awarded specialties

b.Additional specialties

c.Designated specialties

d.Second or tertiary PDS codes
a.Awarded specialties
SDIs identify manpower positions and individuals performing duties

a.related to any specific career field

b.unrelated to any specific career field

c.which specific job descriptions are not practical, such as a patient

d.which special experience and training are required and coded in three characters
b.unrelated to any specific career field
What action agency periodically reviews SEIs to determin validity and usefulness?

a.Major Air Command

b.Military personnel flight

c.Air Force Personnel Center

d.Personnel emplyment element
c.Air Force Personnel Center
In concert with manpower management officials, who reviews manpower authorizations to determine if positions are coded with the appropriate SEI or if one is required?

a.AFPC assignment managers

b.Commanders and supervisors

c.AFPC

d.AFSC functional managers
d.AFSC functional managers
In which of the following databases is the retraining advisory located?

a.PC-III

b.AMS

c.MilPDS

d.AFTMS
c.MilPDS
When can Airmen on the CJR waiting list apply for CAREERS retraining?

a.No later than 150 days before the date of separation

b.No later than 120 days before the date of separation

c.No later than 90 days before the date of separation

d.No later than 60 days before the date of separation
b.No later than 120 days before the date of separation
Which of the following is a disqualification factor for retraining?

a.Normal security clearance investigation

b.Most recent enlisted performance report is a 3

c.Not recommended for upgrade training

d.Participating in phase II of the weight and body fat management program
c.Not recommended for upgrade training
Within how many days of receiving a completed retraining application, must the personnel employment element process the application?

a.5 working days

b.5 calendar days

c.3 calendar days

d.3 working days
a.5 working days
When are retraining applications submitted using supplemental messages?

a.When requesting a waiver

b.When the requested AFSC requires MAJCOM review

c.When processing a disqualified airman case

d.When no special processing is required
d.When no special processing is required
How often is the unit commander required to verify that only the minimum number of positions are consistent with operational PRP requirements?

a.weekly

b.quarterly

c.annually

d.semi-anually
c.annually
Why must an individual's behavior be constantly monitored even after the individual has been judged reliable?

a.For evidence of negligence or delinquency in duty performance

b.To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.

c.For evidence of poor attitude, lack of motivation toward duties, or financial irresponsibility

d.To measure present performance and behavior against past performance and look for changes in behavior
b.To detect any signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur.
Which type of certification states that a member is qualified for a projected assignment requiring PRP duties?

a.Administrative

b.Informal

c.Interim

d.Formal
a.Administrative
Which of the following is not required for all PRP certifcations?

a.An interview

b.An S-4 physical profile

c.A current security investigation

d.An evaluation of an individual's reliability through the use of written records.
b.An S-4 physical profile
What is the maximum number of days a certifying official can extend the period of temporary decertification from PRP duties

a.60 in 30 day increments

b.90 in 30 day increments

c.120 in 30 day increments

d.270 in 30 day increments
d.270 in 30 day increments
What document is used for permanent decertification of a PRP member when the certifying offical must document the specific circumstances surrounding the decision to decertify the individual?

a.AF Form 286A

b.DD Form 286A

c.Suspension document

d.Temporary decertification
a.AF Form 286A
Which of the following would be the ODSD for a member who has never had an overseas assignment or temporary duty an who has a total active federal military service date of 4 February 2000?

a.1 February 2000

b.3 February 2000

c.4 February 2000

d.5 February 2000
c.4 February 2000
How is the STRD established for an Airman who came on active duty on 2 February 2000 and has never served an overseas short tour?

a.established to equal the ODSD

b.The date of completion of any overseas tour, regardless of tour length

c.Established to equal the TAFMSD

d.The date of completion of any overseas long tour, provided he or she was unaccompanied
c.Established to equal the TAFMSD
If an overseas tour is curtailed and no entitlement to tour credit accrues, the ODSD or STRD is

a.adjusted by the number of days served in the overseas area

b.adjusted by years served in the overseas area and the date arrive at the CONUS port

c.readjusted to give credit for the entire tour for which the member originally volunteered

d.readjusted to give credit for the entire tour stated on the member's original tour election.
a.adjusted by the number of days served in the overseas area
When an Airman's PCS orders show a member elected to serve an accompanied tour, but the member arrives overseas unaccompanied, an initial DEROS is established based on the

a.accompanied tour, because the member was selected to serve such

b.unaccompanied tour, because the member is arriving unaccompanied

c.accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied

d.unaccompanied tour, provided the member requests a change of overseas tour status
c.accompanied tour, regardless of the fact the member arrived unaccompanied
What action is taken to a member's overseas duty history, when htey perform TDY from the CONUS to overseas, and serves 2 days or more?

a.adjust current short tour return date by adding the number of days served

b.Adjust the current overseas duty selection date and short tour return date by adding the number of days served.

c.Give member credit for a completed short tour and award a new short tour return date to equal date of return from last TDY.

d.Give member credit for a completed tour and award a new overseas duty selection date to equal date of return from last TDY
b.Adjust the current overseas duty selection date and short tour return date by adding the number of days served.
Which of the following data elements must be included in a request to Headquarters AFPC to correct overseas duty history?

a.overseas tour length

b.overseas duty history

c.oversea volunteer status

d.overseas tour selection date
a.overseas tour length
How is the tour completion date of the first tour updated when a member selected for a COT travels to the CONUS before arriving at the new assignment?

a.The date member arrived at the CONUS port

b.The day before member arrives at the CONUS port

c.The date member completed the original tour (plus all extensions)

d.The date member arrived at the new assignment
a.The date member arrived at the CONUS port
Which of the following PCS departure certifcation statements, as accomplished by a gaining MPF, is formatted correctly?

a.I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 0800, (member's initials)

b.On 15 August 2001 at 1330, I CMSgt Lisa Acevedo departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS.

c.I. CMSgt Lisa Acevedo, certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS on 15 August 2001 at 1330

d.I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001, (member's payroll signature).
d.I certify that I departed Misawa AB, Japan PCS at 0800 on 15 August 2001, (member's payroll signature).
In the event a PCS departure certification is missing when a member inprocess, what activity is responsible for initiating a new one?

a.MAJCOM

b.AFPC

c.Losing MPF

d.Gaining MPF
d.Gaining MPF
When information is entered on the IDA worksheet, the appropriate element must

a.update the member's records

b.verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet

c.update the member's records and ensure the record is filed

d.verify the relocation folders on all projectded gains and ensure the worksheet is filed alphabetically
b.verify the data and coordinate on the worksheet
What does the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC/assistant NCOIC, personnel employment), use to verify the data on the IDA?

a.Allocation notice

b.IDA worksheet

c.Projected duty update-inbound application

d.Assignment RIP
b.IDA worksheet