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117 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What is the first job of the BIOS at system startup?
run the POST.
What does the CMOS store and what other component uses this information?
stores configuration information about the computer
used by the BIOS every time the system is booted up.
How is main memory distinguished from secondary memory?
Main memory is distinguished from “secondary memory” or disk drive storage due to the large speed
difference between them.
When power is removed from the computer, what happens to the stored information in ROM?
ROM is nonvolatile. Its contents are not lost when power is removed from the computer.
Why is RAM considered as volatile memory?
Remember that RAM is volatile, or temporary memory, which means that the contents of RAM are lost
when your computer loses power.
How do DRAM and SRAM different?
DRAM chips must be refreshed constantly or they lose their contents. SRAM chips will hold their data
without needing to be refreshed as long as power is supplied, thus the term static is used.
What is cache memory and what is normally stored in it?
Cache memory is a type of fast RAM (usually SRAM) where frequently accessed data is stored to increase
processing speeds.
What is the main goal of buffers?
The main goal of buffers is to temporarily hold data used by some type of hardware device until the device
is ready to utilize the data.
What is the purpose of the DMA controller?
To reduce this waste and free the CPU for other work, another chip is installed on the system board and
works in conjunction with the CPU. This chip is the DMA controller; its only function is to move data.
Define an interrupt.
An interrupt is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for
attention (from the CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating the need for a
change in execution.
How are interrupts commonly used?
Interrupts are a commonly used technique for computer multitasking, especially in real-time computing.
Describe data integrity in a simple manner.
Put simply, data integrity is described as the assurance that data is consistent, correct, and accessible.
What is parity?
Parity is a method in which the computer ensures the data it processes is accurate.
The difference between ECC memory and the parity method?
The difference between ECC memory and the parity method is that ECC can both detect and correct errors.
Explain what occurs to electrons when two materials are joined together.
When two materials are joined together, electrons are given off from one of the materials to the other
material. This changes the balance of charge on the two materials so that one material becomes positively
charged and the other becomes negatively charged.
How long does static electricity remain intact?
This static electricity remains intact until discharged by either a slow current drain or a high current spark.
How are ESD items separated into different classes?
According to their sensitivity to electrostatic charges.
What are the sensitivity ranges of the three classes of ESD items?
Class I—Those items sensitive to less than 1000 volts
What represents the hazard to the devices?
Class II—Those items sensitive from 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts.
What do you wear to eliminate conducting electricity to the workbench?
Class III—Those items sensitive from 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts.
What is a good rule of thumb when working with hand tools and ESDS devices?
It is not the potential to ground that presents the hazard to the device but the voltage difference between the
two potentials that is the culprit.
What is the first step you always follow when installing or removing an ESDS device?
To further ensure that the workstation is completely free of static charges, wear some type of conductive
wrist strap that is connected through a relatively high resistance to earth ground.
Which symbol identifies ESD devices?
Ensure all hand tools are properly grounded prior to use.
List the four logical steps in troubleshooting.
(1) Define the problem.
(2) Isolate the problem.
(3) Resolve the problem.
(4) Confirm the resolution.
Why is it a good idea to have some organizational aids in hand before you begin to disassemble
any piece of equipment?
Because some troubleshooting problems may require more than one session, it’s a good idea to have some
organizational aids in hand before you begin to disassemble any piece of equipment.
As a general rule, to what can we reduce the majority of all equipment problems?
As a general rule, you can reduce the majority of all equipment problems to the simplest things you can
think of.
What is one of the first things you must do if you are not personally familiar with a system?
One of the first things to do if you are not personally familiar with the system is to eliminate the user as a
possible source of the problem.
What should you do after you perform each correctional step?
Try to restart the system after you perform each correctional step.
What do most common software troubleshooting packages test?
The most common software troubleshooting packages test the system’s memory, microprocessor, keyboard,
display monitor, and the disk drive’s speed.
What is usually the first step in hardware troubleshooting?
Usually the first step in hardware troubleshooting is peripheral elimination. This means to disconnect
peripheral hardware one at a time in search of the problem peripheral device.
Describe signs of computer components overheating.
When electronic components overheat, they produce a noticeable odor, so you may be able to do some
troubleshooting with your nose.
What are FRUs?
FRUs are the portions of the system that are conveniently replaced in the field.
What does FRU troubleshooting involve?
FRU troubleshooting involves isolating a problem within one section of the system. A section consists of
one device such as a keyboard, video display, video adapter card, I/O adapter card, system board, disk drive
or printer.
Why is it often helpful to simply reseat connections and adapter cards in the expansion slots when
a problem occurs?
Corrosion may build up on the computer’s connection points and cause a poor electrical contact to occur.
When you reseat the connection, the contact problem often disappears.
Name four components you can replace in a desktop computer.
There are many components that can be upgraded or replaced within the computer. This includes but is not
limited to the motherboard, the microprocessor, RAM modules, hard drives, and the floppy drives.
What is the easiest hardware installation on a computer?
Upgrading or replacing memory is perhaps the easiest installation you will accomplish.
What is a major portion of a COMSEC manager’s job?
Training those individuals who are responsible for the COMSEC program within their units.
List four types of publications that are used in COMSEC operations.
Any four of the following:
(1) AFPDs.
(2) AFMANs.
(3) AFIs.
(4) AFSSIs.
(5) AFSSMs.
(6) General COMSEC publications.
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US
government?
DIRNSA.
Who appoints a COMSEC manager?
Wing/installation commander.
Who is responsible for achieving an installation’s secure communications posture?
The COMSEC manager.
List the two main points to remember about security containers
1) The combination to any security container is the same classification as the highest classification of
material contained within that container.
(2) Never store items that could be the target of thieves in any security container used for the storage of
COMSEC material.
What does a controlling authority do?
Oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC material
Which type of COMSEC material requires the most strenuous accounting practices?
ALC–1.
What are three forms which a COMSEC manager must prepare each month?
(1) SF 701, Activity Security Checklist.
(2) SF 702, Security Container Check-sheet.
(3) AF Form 1109, Visitor Register.
For what is the AF Form 1109, Visitor Register, used?
Used to record access to COMSEC material by persons not on the authorized access list.
Why do we establish access lists?
To designate personnel who require frequent access to COMSEC material
When must you change security container combinations?
When placed either in or out of service. When an individual is no longer authorized access. Annually. If the
container is found open, but was certified as having been locked. Following repair of the container that does
not degrade the container’s integrity. If there’s a possibility that the combination has been compromised.
When is a daily security check required on COMSEC material? Why is it required? Where are the
results of the security inspection recorded?
At the end of each workday or shift. To ensure that all classified COMSEC material is properly stored and
safeguarded. Record the results of the security inspection on SF 701.
What is the purpose of an access list?
It establishes a person’s right and need to know.
What form is normally used to record daily, shift, or other local inventories of COMSEC
material?
AFCOMSEC Form 16.
List the inventory requirement for each category of accounting legend code material.
a. ALC–1.
b. ALC–2.
c. ALC–4.
a. ALC–1. Inventory material by short title, edition, accounting control number, and quantity.
b. ALC–2. Accounted for continuously, just as ALC–1, except you inventory and account by quantity
rather than by the accounting control number.
c. ALC–4. This material is not required to be accounted for on the daily or shift inventory.
What is the preferred method of listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16?
You should arrange the list of material alphabetically by short title, then numerically, showing the edition,
quantity, and the accounting control number.
When must you reconcile any discrepancies noted while conducting the inventory of COMSEC
material?
Immediately.
Why is the COMSEC manager required to conduct inventories?
To ensure proper accountability of COMSEC material between the COMSEC account and the COR at the
CPSG.
Which COMSEC items are required to be semiannually inventoried?
ALC–1 and ALC–2 items that have not been placed into effect.
How does the COMSEC manager inventory accountable COMSEC items if he/she is
geographically located in a distant location from those COMSEC items?
Ask the user to verify its holdings by letter or message.
List the distribution for the semiannual inventory report.
Send the original copy to CPSG. Copy two will be sent to your MAJCOM. The third copy is filed in the
account record file.
What is a COMSEC user?
Any individual or unit required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids in the performance of official duties
Define COMSEC aids.
Specific COMSEC material other than equipment, such as keying material, codes, call signs, and so forth.
Where are requests for COMSEC equipment processed through?
The Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
List the different databases used to track each CRO account.
Communications security management (CM2).
What are two ways you can receive classified COMSEC material?
(1) The DCS.
(2) The US Postal System.
If there is a discrepancy in the classification marking or received COMSEC material, what do you
do?
Send a message to the originator, keep the wrappers, and await disposition instructions
At a minimum, what is the distribution of transfer report copies for received COMSEC material?
Return one copy to CPSG, send one copy to the MAJCOM, and put one copy in Folder 1 of the COMSEC
account file.
How do you determine which COMSEC materials to issue to each CRO account?
By consulting the COMSEC account data base (UCM2).
What form is used as a hand receipt when issuing COMSEC aids to a CRO?
SF 153.
Before the user being authorized to pick up COMSEC material, on what topics must the
COMSEC account manager train the CRO?
On individual user responsibilities to provide adequate storage facilities for the material, continuous
safeguarding, proper destruction, administrative procedures, and the reporting of all COMSEC incidents to
the COMSEC account manager
When may hand receipts for COMSEC issued material be destroyed?
When a properly executed destruction certificate is received from the CRO or the material is returned to the
COMSEC account.
When transferring or shipping COMSEC material, the COMSEC account manager is responsible
for what four duties?
(1) Obtaining approval for the transfer of material.
(2) Ensuring the COMSEC aids are properly prepared for shipment.
(3) Ensuring only authorized means of shipment are used.
(4) Submitting accounting and transfer reports on a timely basis.
From whom does a COMSEC account manager get approval for transfer of material? Who should
be included as information addresses?
The controlling authority, NSA, or CPSG. Information addresses include your MAJCOM and CPSG.
What form is normally used as a transfer report of COMSEC material?
SF 153, COMSEC Material Report.
What does the voucher number on the SF 153, COMSEC Material Report, consist of?
A voucher number consists of the last two digits of the current year, a dash, and the next consecutive
number from the AFCOMSEC Form 14.
What are some exceptions to the rule of destroying superseded keying material within 12 hours?
Deferring destruction to the first duty hour following night supersession, or deferring to the first duty hour
following a weekend or a holiday weekend supersession.
How many people must be present to destroy, witness, and sign the destruction certificate of
COMSEC material? What are the duty titles of these people?
Two. Destruction Official and Witness
List some approved methods for destroying COMSEC material
Pulping, crosscut shredding, chopping, or pulverizing.
Who originates dissemination messages for COMSEC material?
CPSG.
What should the COMSEC manager do if a CRO does not respond in picking up a dissemination
message?
Inform the individual’s commander as soon as possible and make a MFR of the sequence of events.
If the user fails to respond in a reasonable amount of time, how can this affect the mission?
The mission and critical communications could be affected in regards to security damage. Failure to comply
with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident.
Who is responsible for preparing the EAP for the protection, security, or destruction of COMSEC
material in case of an emergency?
COMSEC manager.
Describe the two categories of emergency situations
(1) Accidental emergencies that include aircraft crashes, vehicle collisions, and natural disasters, such as
fire, flood, earthquakes, hurricanes, and so forth.
(2) Hostile actions that are intentional. These include enemy attack, civil disturbances, and covert acts
such as bomb threats.
What are the basic elements of an EAP?
The classification of material held, names and addresses of points of contact, assignment of definite
responsibilities, authorization to implement the plan, and training on the plan. Also include the location of
material by storage container and prioritization of material to be destroyed.
Name four areas that must be included in an EAP for accidental situations.
(1) Instructions for admitting fire fighters to areas containing COMSEC material.
(2) Specification of who assumes responsibility for the COMSEC material while the plan is enacted.
(3) Identification of what must be either secured or evacuated.
(4) Determination of how and when to execute each phase of the plan.
Which units must have both emergency and precautionary destruction plans?
Units stationed overseas and those subject to deployment overseas
Name the three options available in planning for emergency destruction of material
(1) Secure the material.
(2) Remove it from the scene of the emergency.
(3) Destroy it.
What directives are CROs required to follow in administering their COMSEC accounts?
Air Force and local directives you as the COMSEC manager published.
What Air Force form is used to conduct CRO inspections?
AF Form 4160, Air Force Information Assurance and Assessment Program Criteria, inspection checklist.
Who must coordinate on CRO COMSEC OIs?
The base COMSEC manager
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories must directly correlate with what documents?
The dates with the SF 153 transfer or destruction certificates.
How long are AFCOMSEC Forms 16 kept and where are they filed?
AFCOMSEC Forms 16 are kept for six months and you will find six of them in the CRO 6-part folder.
Define TPI.
A system of storage and handling designed to prohibit individual access to certain COMSEC keying
material.
What type of locking device is used in TPI?
A dual combination X–07 electronic lock.
Define TPC.
The continuous surveillance and control of nuclear COMSEC material and equipment always by a
minimum of two authorized individuals.
What program must an individual be cleared through prior to assuming TPC duty?
The PRP prior to assuming duty.
Who is the approval authority for PRP clearances?
Commanders of units possessing TPC requirements are the final approval authority for PRP clearances.
Who is usually the TPC team chief?
Base COMSEC managers
What device is the DOD PKI’s current high assurance mechanism?
Fortezza cards.
With what Air Force program are Fortezza cards associated?
DMS.
What directory system are users certificates posted to?
The X.500 directory system.
What do CKL identify?
Certificates that represent a potential security risk.
What must personnel working in TPI positions be able to detect?
Incorrect or unauthorized security procedures concerning the task being performed.
Define TDC.
TDC is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and
non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources.
What does the nature of the AEF concept requires us to do in regards to TDC equipment?
The nature of the AEF concept requires us to reduce the size, increase the flexibility and capacity of
deployable communication systems
What TDC characteristics should and proposed what should TDC equipment strive to have?
Proposed TDC equipment should strive to have the following characteristics: functionality,
modularity/scalability, open system standards, interoperability, mobility, survivability, security, security,
and operability.
What are three major components of TDC?
(1) LMST.
(2) ICAP.
(3) NCC-D
Describe the ICAP.
ICAP is a suite of modules and accessory kits providing the communications backbone for deployed units.
The ICAP is comprised of COTS circuit switches, hubs and routers, multiplexers, and on-base transmission
(radio and laser) and encryption devices.
How does the LMST meet the requirement to interface with legacy TRI-TAC and new ICAP
equipment?
Commercial industry standard and military specification connectors built into the signal entrance panel and
coupled to flexible baseband equipment allow the LMST to interface with legacy TRI-TAC and newer
ICAP equipment without modification.
What does NCC-D provide and what is it comprised of?
NCC-D provides network management, information protection, and network core services for deployed
operations. NCC-D is comprised of COTS servers and software packaged in transit cases for deployed
operations.
Why is the BAM the center of the TDC ICAP?
It is the module that all others are added to to provide communications support.
Why is the P-MUX generally located at the primary hub of a deployed base?
The P-MUX module is generally located at the primary hub of a deployed base. There it receives data and
voice traffic and condense it for more efficient transmission.
What is initial communications support designed to provide?
Initial communications support is designed to provide basic communications to a bare base operation within
72 hours of deployment notification and remain in place for up to 30 days.
Why are communications teams part of the first crews to enter a deployed location?
For this reason, communications teams are part of the first crew to enter a deployed location. They provide
the communicating link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities as well as
providing messaging capabilities back to the garrison units.
Why is 30 days a significant time period in communications support?
The mission of technicians providing sustained communications support is to ensure AEF and AEW
commanders have connectivity and an uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, ingarrison
units, and to command structures for the duration of the contingency.
What is the mission of communications technitions providing sustained communications support?
Sustained communications support becomes part of the deployments if it extends past 30 days.
What is the importance of being in exercises in the pre-deployment phase?
This is the time period whare you will be involved in exercises to ensure you are familiar with the
deployment process and with your equipment.
What are the two focuses of the establishing services phase?
The focus will be two-fold:
(1) Connect your equipment to the outside world.
(2) Connect your customers to you.
What are the two possible destinations in the re-deployment phase?
(1) Relocating back to your home base.
(2) Relocating to another deployed location where your services are required.