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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The flow of electricity may be compared to
a. a streak of lightning.
b. water running through a pipe.
c. water passing through the ground.
d. lightning passing through the ground.
b. water running through a pipe.
What unit of measurement is used to measure electrical current?
a. Volts.
b. Ohms.
c. Amperes.
d. Coulombs.
c. Amperes.
How is electrical current measured when you want to describe its effect on the human body?
a. Ohms.
b. Amperes.
c. Resistance.
d. Milliamperes.
d. Milliamperes.
Resistance is any condition that
a. opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.
b. increases the voltage of electrical flow.
c. aids the conduction of electricity.
d. keeps a circuit closed.
a. opposes or restricts the flow of electricity.
An electrical outlet must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) when it is
located within how many feet of a sink?
a. 6.
b. 8.
c. 10.
d. 12.
6
Which safety rule should be observed where extension cords are used?
a. Extension cords should be taped to a wall instead of lying on the floor.
b. A long extension cord should be coiled.
c. Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.
d. Extension cords should not be used for small appliances.
c. Extension cords must not be run through ceiling holes.
Who is responsible for helping supervisors mark all circuit breaker boxes with the correct
voltage?
a. Shop personnel.
b. Ground safety personnel.
c. Civil engineering personnel.
d. Circuit breaker box manufacturer.
c. Civil engineering personnel.
What type of electrical cell can be restored to a charged condition by passing an electrical
current through the cell in the opposite direction of the discharging current?
a. Primary cell.
b. Storage cell.
c. Electrode cell.
d. Negative electrode cell.
b. Storage cell.
When electrical pressure is generated by chemical action, the device in which this occurs is
called
a. a neutronic cell.
b. an electrical cell.
c. a chemical cell.
d. a lead cell.
b. an electrical cell.
An electrical cell consists of
a. a negative electrode, electrolyte, and a circuit.
b. positive and negative poles, and a potential circuit.
c. a positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.
d. an electrolyte compound, a circuit continuity, and an electrical charge.
c. a positive electrode, negative electrode, and an electrolyte.
In battery shop operations, how should sulfuric acid and water be mixed together?
a. Pour water slowly into acid.
b. Pour acid slowly into water.
c. Combine in a metal container.
d. Combine with a diluting agent.
b. Pour acid slowly into water.
Where can you find the standard for Air Force electrical systems and operations?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) USAF directives.
b. National Electric Code (NEC).
c. Department of Defense (DOD) Electrical Systems Instruction.
b. National Electric Code (NEC).
One complete cycle of alternating current (AC) is composed of
a. one alternation of current.
b. one negative pulse of current.
c. two alternations of current (both in the same direction).
d. two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other).
d. two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other).
Which safety device resembles an interlocked machine guard?
a. Gate.
b. Holdout.
c. Pull-out.
d. Presence sensing.
a. Gate.
The primary factor influencing the severity of electrical shock to the human body is the
a. length of the exposure.
b. amount of the current flow.
c. level of the voltage applied.
d. frequency of the electrical charge.
b. amount of the current flow.
How much current causes a normally harmless shock to be felt?
a. 1 milliampere.
b. 25 milliamperes.
c. 1 ampere.
d. 25 ampere.
a. 1 milliampere.
What is the purpose of placing bonding wire between two metal objects?
a. Continuity of system grounds.
b. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.
c. Dissipation of static electrical charges to a ground.
d. Prevention of accumulations of dynamic electricity.
b. Equalization of static charges that may be generated.
Grounding is used to control
a. static electrical charges only.
b. dynamic electrical charges only.
c. both dynamic and static electrical charges.
d. bonded equipment.
c. both dynamic and static electrical charges.
An example of a system ground is a
a. three-prong adapter.
b. double-insulated tool.
c. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
d. wire attached to the frame of a tool and a metal bar.
c. return wire attached to a ground in the earth.
Grounding is effective when
a. there are no breaks in the grounding path.
b. the grounding path is broken before it reaches the ground.
c. dynamic charges are converted into static charges.
d. static charges are converted into to dynamic charges.
a. there are no breaks in the grounding path.
It is hard to maintain an effective ground for portable electric equipment because
a. the equipment is relatively small in size.
b. the equipment is moved about so much.
c. the equipment uses a three-wire cord.
d. the grounding prong on the plug has probably been removed.
b. the equipment is moved about so much.
Which of the following is not a specific characteristic of effective grounds?
a. All paths must be continuous.
b. Equipment grounds should never exceed two ohms.
c. All grounding points must be provided adequate protection against physical damage.
d. The natural ground circuit resistance should be kept as far as possible below the maximum
permissible limits.
b. Equipment grounds should never exceed two ohms.
Which device is the simplest way to control an electrical circuit?
a. Fuse.
b. Relay.
c. Interlock.
d. Circuit breaker.
a. Fuse.
What is a relay?
a. A link of metal placed in series with a circuit.
b. A switch that, when released, allows the current to flow uninterrupted.
c. A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.
d. A device that tells the circuit breaker to interrupt current flow when the temperature rises.
c. A device that communicates the information in a signal to another device.
In electrical work, what is generally used to control large, high-voltage currents with a lowvoltage,
low-current signal?
a. Fuses.
b. Relays.
c. Interlocks.
d. Circuit breakers.
b. Relays.
Which circuit control device works in reverse order?
a. Fuses.
b. Relays.
c. Solenoids.
d. Interlocks.
d. Interlocks.
An interlock interrupts circuit flow
a. by actuating a complex switch mechanism.
b. by controlling the electrical circuit from a distant location.
c. when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.
d. by sending an electronic signal when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack.
c. when an electronics component tray is removed from its rack, releasing a button.
When electrical parts are exposed, the workspace clearance must have a radius of at least
a. three feet.
b. four feet.
c. five feet.
d. six feet.
a. three feet.
a. three feet.
Electrical resistance gloves that are in active use must be dielectric tested every
a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
c. 6 months.
Who designates the electrical hazard areas that require the use of insulating matting?
a. Supervisor.
b. Functional manager.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Installation commander.
a. Supervisor.
On machinery, tagout devices used with energy isolating (lockout) devices should be
attached at
a. the entrance to the area.
b. the same point as the lock.
c. eye level on the machine or equipment.
d. various, but conspicuous, locations throughout the affected area.
b. the same point as the lock.
When a tag is used during the lockout/tagout procedure, it must have a minimum unlocking
strength of at least
a. 100 lbs.
b. 75 lbs.
c. 50 lbs.
d. 25 lbs.
c. 50 lbs.
When there are no changes in procedures, process, or systems associated with the
lockout/tagout program, retraining must take place at least every
a. two years.
b. 18 months.
c. year.
d. 6 months.
c. year.
How often must the safety staff evaluate a lockout/tagout program to ensure the
requirements of the program are being followed?
a. Quarterly.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Annually.
d. Anytime a system is locked or tagged out.
c. Annually.
What ingredient present in most solvents makes them organic?
a. Fat.
b. Dye.
c. Salt.
d. Carbon.
d. Carbon.
Which base agency should be contacted if the material safety data sheet (MSDS) is not
available for a particular cleaning solvent?
a. Public health.
b. Ground safety.
c. Bioenvironmental engineering.
d. Civil engineering environmental flight.
c. Bioenvironmental engineering.
Color is added to aviation and motor gasolines to indicate the presence of
a. alkyl lead compounds.
b. lead oxide compounds.
c. lead sulfuric compounds.
d. tetraethyl lead compounds.
a. alkyl lead compounds.
If a worker spills hydrocarbon fuels on the skin, he or she may experience
a. a mild rash.
b. slight dizziness and dulled senses.
c. cracked skin, severe burns, or blood poisoning.
d. lung and mucous membrane damage.
c. cracked skin, severe burns, or blood poisoning.
Proper handling of hydrocarbon fuels eliminates any possibility of them being spilled in the
same area as
a. sand or dirt.
b. lead sulfide.
c. tetraethyl lead.
d. propellant oxidizers.
d. propellant oxidizers.
What is the hidden danger in the fumes of nitric acid?
a. They are immediately intoxicating when inhaled.
b. They are immediately incapacitating when inhaled.
c. Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.
d. Initial symptoms of poisoning are seemingly severe but quickly taper off resulting in
unwarranted stress.
c. Initial symptoms of poisoning are slight but become severe later on.
When handling fuming nitric acids, respiratory protection is required whenever the
a. vapors exceed the threshold limit value.
b. vapors are below the threshold limit value.
c. potential exists for the concentration of vapors to meet upper control limits.
d. potential exists for the concentration of vapors to exceed upper control limits.
a. vapors exceed the threshold limit value.
Which class of flammable liquid has a flash point below 73ºF and has a boiling point at or
above 100ºF?
a. IA.
b. IB.
c. IC.
d. ID.
b. IB.
What is the maximum number of gallons of Class I flammable liquids that may be stored in
a storage cabinet at one time?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.
d. 120.
Which kind of chemical may react vigorously at room temperature with carbon-containing
substances to produce fires or explosions?
a. Acids.
b. Bases.
c. Caustics.
d. Oxidizers.
d. Oxidizers.
Which of the following is an objective of the AF Hazardous Materials Management Process
(HMMP) program?
a. Increase awareness of life cycle costs.
b. Reduce hazardous materials storage costs.
c. Minimize dependency on hazardous materials.
d. Increase awareness of hazardous materials usage.
c. Minimize dependency on hazardous materials.
For a shop where workers are exposed to bloodborne pathogens, when must the exposure
control plan be reviewed and updated?
a. Six months prior to a safety inspection.
b. Monthly or whenever an exposure occurs.
c. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
d. Twice annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
c. Annually or whenever modified tasks affect exposure.
What role does HAZMART play in the installation hazardous material management
program (IHMP)?
a. Provides secure facilities for storing hazardous material (HAZMAT).
b. Issues government-owned HAZMAT.
c. Authorizes requests for HAZMAT.
d. Assesses safety risks of HAZMAT.
b. Issues government-owned HAZMAT.
What is used to track hazardous material (HAZMAT) purchases?
a. AF Form 3952, Chemical/Hazardous Material Request/Authorization.
b. Government wide purchase card.
c. Standardized Air Force tracking system.
d. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.
c. Standardized Air Force tracking system.
What type of fuel storage tank can be located next to buildings?
a. Cone roof.
b. Floating roof.
c. Vaulted (self-diking).
d. Horizontal cylindrical.
c. Vaulted (self-diking).
What type of fuel storage tanks are used to store gasoline at base service stations?
a. Vaulted.
b. Cone roof.
c. Floating roof.
d. Underground.
d. Underground.
Which factor is not considered when determining the size of secondary containment?
a. Local weather activity.
b. Height of existing dike wall.
c. Frequency of dike drainage.
d. Location of the storage tank.
d. Location of the storage tank.
Where security fences are not provided, how far from the diked areas of underground fuel
storage tanks must danger signs be posted?
a. 50 feet.
b. 75 feet.
c. 100 feet.
d. 125 feet.
a. 50 feet.
How long must a worker wait after receiving fuel to manually gauge or measure a fuel tank?
a. 120 minutes.
b. 90 minutes.
c. 60 minutes.
d. 30 minutes.
d. 30 minutes.
The quantity of fuel permitted in a test laboratory is limited to
a. 5 gallons.
b. 10 gallons.
c. 15 gallons.
d. 20 gallons.
b. 10 gallons.
Under dry conditions, electrode resistance to ground should not exceed
a. 10 ohms.
b. 15 ohms.
c. 25 ohms.
d. 30 ohms.
c. 25 ohms.
The handling of caustic solutions in liquid oxygen (LOX) plant operations requires the use
of
a. boots, gloves, and face shield.
b. gloves, acid sleeves, and chemical goggles.
c. rubber gloves, aprons, and face shields or chemical goggles.
d. respiratory gear, full protection suit, and chemical resistant boots.
c. rubber gloves, aprons, and face shields or chemical goggles.
When liquid nitrogen is converted to gas, it expands to
a. 860 times its original volume.
b. 695 times its original volume.
c. 120 times its original volume.
d. 90 times its original volume.
b. 695 times its original volume.
What physiological danger does liquid oxygen (LOX) present to personnel?
a. It can freeze human tissue.
b. It can scorch human tissue.
c. Its fumes cause blood poisoning.
d. Its fumes cause severe headaches and nausea.
a. It can freeze human tissue.
Liquid oxygen (LOX) is stored at what temperature?
a. –297ºF.
b. –257ºF.
c. –247ºF.
d. –237ºF.
a. –297ºF.
A cryogenic liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tank of more than 100 gallons must be at least 75
feet from
a. any railway.
b. aircraft parking areas.
c. combustible structures.
d. other flammable gas tanks.
b. aircraft parking areas.
A fire or open flame device can be used during construction activities only when
a. adequate ventilation exists.
b. approved by the site supervisor.
c. approved by the ground safety manager.
d. the site is sufficiently barricaded from public access.
b. approved by the site supervisor.
One complete cycle of alternating current (AC) is composed of
a. one alternation of current.
b. one negative pulse of current.
c. two alternations of current (both in the same direction).
d. two alternations of current (one in one direction and one in the other).
A
At least how high must barriers or curbing be at the edges of excavations to protect vehicles
that are loading and unloading?
a. 6 inches.
b. 8 inches.
c. 10 inches.
d. 12 inches.
b. 8 inches.
Self-propelled construction equipment must be equipped with
a. all-weather tracks, repair kits, and radios.
b. first-aid kits, repair kits, and emergency lights.
c. operator’s manual, fire extinguishers, and radios.
d. first-aid kits, fire extinguishers, and emergency lights.
d. first-aid kits, fire extinguishers, and emergency lights.
Booms on construction equipment must be at least how many feet from overhead high voltage power lines?
a. 18.
b. 15.
c. 12.
d. 10.
d. 10.
What is the best vehicle for clearing the sides of sloping land?
a. Dozer.
b. Grader.
c. Front-end loader.
d. Wheel-type ditcher.
a. Dozer.
Before the operator of a chain saw starts the engine, how far must the chain saw be from the
fueling point?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 20 feet.
d. 50 feet.
b. 10 feet.
Which type of crane is considered the Air Force “workhorse”?
a. Mobile hydraulic crane.
b. Front-end loader.
c. Mechanical crane.
d. Dozer crane.
a. Mobile hydraulic crane.
What is the main disadvantage of using the mobile hydraulic crane?
a. The cab is stationary.
b. The operator must leave the cab to operate the hook block.
c. The operator has to use a combination of levers and brake pedals to move loads.
d. The hydraulic fluid flow is controlled by the operator through levers that engage control
valves.
a. The cab is stationary.
When lifting loads with heavy equipment, the operator must avoid raising any load
a. higher than 50 feet.
b. weighing over 100 pounds.
c. whose contents might shift while being lifted.
d. that causes the tracks of the equipment to leave the ground.
d. that causes the tracks of the equipment to leave the ground.
How often must cables and sheaves on cranes be inspected for defects?
a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. At the end of each shift.
a. Daily.
Which soil compacting equipment is best for compacting plastic soils?
a. The 13-wheel roller.
b. The steel wheel roller.
c. The sheep-foot roller.
d. Pneumatic-tire roller.
c. The sheep-foot roller.
Which piece of equipment is best suited to finish rolling flexible pavements and subgrades?
a. The 13-wheel roller.
b. The steel wheel roller.
c. The sheep-foot roller.
d. Pneumatic-tire roller.
b. The steel wheel roller.
Which soil compacting equipment can usually compact a four-inch layer of loose soil to 95
percent compaction in two to four passes?
a. The 13-wheel roller.
b. The steel wheel roller.
c. The sheep-foot roller.
d. Pneumatic-tire roller.
d. Pneumatic-tire roller.
A loader can be safely operated on a straight slope up to
a. 15 percent.
b. 20 percent.
c. 30 percent.
d. 40 percent.
c. 30 percent.
What harrow would most likely be used to smooth soil on a softball field?
a. Disk.
b. Spring-tooth.
c. Spike-tooth.
d. Multiple use.
c. Spike-tooth.
What harrow would likely be used to mix and stir soils during stabilization?
a. Disk.
b. Spring-tooth.
c. Spike-tooth.
d. Multiple use.
b. Spring-tooth.
Which circuit control device works in reverse order?
a. Fuses.
b. Relays.
c. Solenoids.
d. Interlocks.
d. Interlocks.
The sides of excavations in loose dirt must be braced and shored if the excavations are more
than
a. two feet deep.
b. three feet deep.
c. four feet deep.
d. five feet deep.
c. four feet deep.
When ladders are required in trenches, they should be placed so that workers must travel no
more than how many feet in any direction to reach an exit?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25.
d. 25.
Toeboards placed on scaffolds must be at least
a. two inches high.
b. four inches high.
c. six inches high.
d. eight inches high.
d. eight inches high.
A bricklayer’s square scaffold must have
a. at least two tiers.
b. frame squares nine feet wide and three feet high.
c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.
d. outrigger beams that project six feet beyond the face of the building.
c. braces of 1 by 8 inches on both the front and rear sides.
On an outrigger scaffold, planking must be laid tight and extended
a. to within one inch of the scaffold edge.
b. three inches beyond the scaffold edge.
c. to within six inches of the building wall.
d. to within three inches of the building wall.
a. to within one inch of the scaffold edge.
Regular hoisting rope is made up of
a. 6 strands with 7 wires.
b. 6 strands with 19 wires.
c. 6 strands with 37 wires.
d. 8 strands with 19 wires.
b. 6 strands with 19 wires.
A hoisting chain must be removed from service when it has elongated more than
a. 1 inch in 12 inches.
b. ½ inch in 12 inches.
c. ? inch in 12 inches.
d. ¼ inch in 12 inches.
d. ¼ inch in 12 inches.
How far above a platform or landing must a portable ladder extend?
a. Two feet.
b. Three feet.
c. Four feet.
d. Five feet.
b. Three feet.
Rungs on ladders must be strong enough to support at least
a. 200 pounds.
b. 300 pounds.
c. 400 pounds.
d. 500 pounds.
d. 500 pounds.
When ladders are used during aerial work, how many people may ascend or descend the
structure at any one time?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
a. One.
When a worker doing floor removal must straddle two planks, the planks must be no more
than
a. 5 inches apart.
b. 8 inches apart.
c. 16 inches apart.
d. 22 inches apart.
c. 16 inches apart.
When removing materials from a demolition site, what is the maximum weight for any
object being dropped through a chute?
a. 50 pounds.
b. 100 pounds.
c. 150 pounds.
d. 200 pounds.
c. 150 pounds.
Which base agencies perform a pre- and post-season inspection of the softball fields?
a. Safety, civil engineering, and public health.
b. Safety, bioenvironmental, and public health.
c. Safety, bioenvironmental, and civil engineering.
d. Safety, bioenvironmental, and fire department.
a. Safety, civil engineering, and public health.
Bleacher seating must have guardrails if it is at least how many feet from the ground?
a. Two.
b. Four.
c. Six.
d. Eight.
b. Four.
Playing field bleachers must always be
a. mobile if the field is used for multiple activities.
b. positioned well back from the sidelines.
c. inspected prior to the season.
d. inspected during the season.
b. positioned well back from the sidelines.
Approximately how many days prior to opening day must a preseason inspection of the
swimming pool be conducted?
a. 90.
b. 60.
c. 30.
d. 10.
c. 30.
What type of protection is mandatory when playing racquetball?
a. Eye protection only.
b. Eye and head protection.
c. Eye and leg protection.
d. Eye, leg, and head protection.
a. Eye protection only.
What type of protective equipment should be provided for workers in the pots and pans area?
a. Rubber gloves only.
b. Water proof shoes and rubber gloves.
c. Water proof apron and rubber gloves.
d. Water proof apron, waterproof shoes, and rubber gloves.
c. Water proof apron and rubber gloves.
In food preparation areas, where should electrical switches for equipment be located?
a. Within enclosures.
b. At least two feet above the countertops.
c. Away from areas where wet processes are used.
d. Where employees do not have to touch metal equipment to reach them.
d. Where employees do not have to touch metal
How often should hood filters over a grill be washed?
a. Once a week.
b. Twice a day.
c. Once a day.
d. After each meal period.
d. After each meal period.
In meat market storage areas, sawdust may be used on floors
a. with a drain.
b. made of tile.
c. made of wood.
d. made of concrete.
d. made of concrete.
When not in use, meat hooks should be stored in
a. areas away from the meat market.
b. containers or on racks.
c. individual sheaths.
d. meat coolers.
b. containers or on racks.