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82 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which coronary artery supplies the SA node?
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The sinoatrial node is supplied by the SA nodal artery, which may arise from the RCA (60%) or LCA (40%)
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Describe dominance of circulation
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The artery that supplies the posterior interventricular artery determines coronary dominance.
Right-dominant circulation: PIV and at least one posterolateral branch arise from RCA (80%) Left-dominant circulation: PIV and at least one posterolateral branch arise from LCx (15%) balanced circulation (5%) |
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Where does venus blood from the heart drain?
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Most venous blood from the heart drains into the RA
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Layers of the heart
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endocardium
myocardium epicardium (visceral pericardium) pericardial space parietal pericardium |
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What is the main difference between semilunar valves and atrioventricular valves?
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Semilunar valves have no subvalvular apparatus
Atrioventricular valves have chordae tendinae and papillary muscles |
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Describe the pathway that impulses travel through the conduction system of the heart?
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SA node -> AV node -> bundle of his -> LBB/RBB -> purkinje fibres
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How are impulses carried from the right atrium to the left atrium?
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Bachmann's bundle
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Describe effect of sympathetic nerves on the cardiovascular system
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Innervate SA node, AV node, ventricular myocardium, and vasculature
-SA node fibers (beta-1) increase HR -Cardiac muscle fibers (beta-1) increase inotropy and cardiac output -Stimulate of beta1 and beta2 receptors in vasculature causes vasodilation |
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What is the normal interval for P wave, PR, QRS, and QT
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P - 0.12
PR - 0.12-0.2 QRS - < 0.12 QT - <0.46 or 1/2 R-R |
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What does 1 small square and 1 large square represent on an ECG
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1 mm (1 small square) = 40 msec
5 mm (1 large square) = 200 msec |
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What features are necessary for normal sinus rhythm
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P wave precedes each QRS; QRS follows each P wave
P wave axis is normal (positive in leads I, and aVF) Rate between 60-100 |
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What makes a normal axis on ECG
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-30 to 90 degrees (i.e. positive QRS in leads I and aVF)
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Criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
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S in V1 + R in V5 or V6 > 35 mm
R in aVL > 11 mm |
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Criteria for right ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
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right axis deviation
R/S ratio > 1 in lead V1 |
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Criteria for left atrial enlargement on ECG
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Biphasic P wave with negative terminal component of the P wave in lead V1
P wave > 120 msec, notched in lead II |
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Criteria for right atrial enlargement on ECG
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P wave > 2.5 mm in height in leads II, III, or aVF
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Describe the typical sequential changes of evolving MI
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1st - hyperacute T waves
2nd - ST elevation in the leads facing the infarcted area (usually 3-5 hours) 3rd - significant Q waves (> 40 msec or > 1/3 of QRS) (hours to days post infarct) 4th - inverted T waves (1 day to weeks) |
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What defines significant ECG changes for STEMI
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J point = the junction between the QRS complex and the ST segment
Need ST elevation at least 1 mm in 2 adjacent limb leads or at least 1-2 mm in adjacent precordial leads |
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DDx for ST elevation
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Acute STEMI, ventricular aneurysm, LBBB, acute pericarditis, Vasospastic (prinzmetal's) angina
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ECG changes in hyper and hypokalemia
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hyperkalemia - tall peaked T waves, loss of P waves and widening of QRS, sine wave pattern
hypokalemia - ST segment depression, prolonged QT, U waves |
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ECG changes in hyper and hypocalcemia
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hypercalcemia - shortened QT interval
hypocalcemia - prolonged QT interval |
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ECG changes in pericarditis
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Early - diffuse ST segment elevation +/- PR segment depression, upright T waves
Late - Isoelectric ST segment, flat or inverted T waves |
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ECG changes in massive PE
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Sinus tachycardia and AF/atrial flutter most common
RAD, RVH with strain - most specific sign is S1Q3T3 (S in I, Q and inverted T wave in III) |
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Troponin I and troponin T peak? Duration elevated? DDx of elevation
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Peak 1-2 days. Elevated up to 2 weeks.
DDx - MI, CHF, AF, acute PE, myocarditis, chronic renal insufficiency, sepsis, hypovolemia |
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DDx for sinus bradycardia
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Increased vagal tone or vagal stimulation
Vomiting Myocardial ischemia or infarction Sick sinus syndrome Increased ICP Hypothyroidism Drugs (beta-blocker, CCB) |
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What is a first degree AV block
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Prolonged PR interval (>200 msec)
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What is a second degree AV block
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Some of the atrial impulses are not conducted to the ventricles
Type I - gradual prolongation of the PR interval precedes the failure of conduction of a P wave (Wenckebach). AV block is usually in the AV node. Type II - PR interval is constant; there is an abrupt failure of conduction of a P wave. AV block usually distal to the AV node |
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Which AV blocks require permanent pacing
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second degree type II AV block is an indication for permanent pacing due to increased risk of high grade or third degree AV block
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What is a third degree AV block
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Complete failure of conduction of the supraventricular impulses to the ventricles. Ventricular depolarization initiated by an escape pacemaker distal to the block. No relationship between P waves and QRS ("P waves marching through")
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DDx of sinus tachycardia
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Fever, hypotension, hypovolemia, anemia, thyrotoxicosis, CHF, MI, shock, PE, etc.
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What is atrial flutter? What causes it?
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Rapid, regular atrial depolarization from a macro re-entry circuit within the atrium (most commonly right atrium).
Atrial rate 250-350 bpm. AV block usually occurs; it can be fixed or variable. |
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Treatment of atrial flutter
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Acute: if unstable (eg. hypotension, CHF, angina) use electrocardioversion.
If stable use rate control: beta-blocker, diltiazem, verapamil or digoxin or chemical cardioversion: amiodarone, type I antiarrythmics |
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Symptoms of atrial fibrillation
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Palpitations, fatigue, syncope, and may precipitate or worse heart failure
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What causes atrial fibrillation?
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Single circuit re-entry and/or ectopic foci act as aberrant generators producing atrial tachycardia
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What is the CHADS2 score used for?
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CHADS2 predicts risk of stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation by looking at risk factors.
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Whats are the components of the CHADS2 score?
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Congestive heart failure (1)
Hypertension (1) Age > 75 (1) Diabetes (1) Stroke/TIA prior (2) |
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Appearance of atrial fibrillation on ECG
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No organized P waves due to rapid atrial activity
Irregularly irregular ventricular response and narrow QRS |
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Describe the management of atrial fibrillation
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RACE
Rate control - beta-blockers, ditiazem, verapamil Anti-coagulation - ASA, warfarin, dibigitran (depending on risk via CHADS2 score) Cardioversion (electrical) - if AF > 24h require anticoagulation first Etiology - treat underlying cause |
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What is the treatment of AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia?
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Acute: valsalva or carotid massage, adenosine is first choice if unresponsive to vagal maneuvers
Long term: beta-blocker, diltiazem, digoxin |
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What is carotid massage?
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Carotid massage is actually a constant pressure directed posteriorly against the carotid artery for 5-10 seconds. Always listen for bruits before palpation.
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Define pre-excitation syndromes
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Referes to a subset of supraventricular tachycardias, mediated by an accessory pathway, which can lead to ventricular pre-excitation
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Describe Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
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Congenital defect where an accessory conduction tract (bundle of kent; can be right or left atrium) abnormally allows early electrical activation of part of one ventricle. Impulses travel at a greater conduction velocity across the bundle of kent thereby effectively bypassing AV node.
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Appearance of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome on ECG
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PR interval <120
"delta wave" - slurred upstroke of the QRS (fusion of bundle of kent and normal pathway) Widening of QRS complex |
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Which drugs should be avoided in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
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Drugs that slow AV node conduction (digoxin, beta-blockers) should be avoided as this may cause preferential conduction through the bypass tract and then precipitate VF.
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Clinical clues to differentiate between VT and SVT
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History of CAD and previous MI - more likely VT
Variable S1 - more likely VT Carotid sinus massage/adenosine terminates arrhythmia - more likely SVT |
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ECG clues to differentiate between VT and SVT
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AV dissociation - VT
QRS width > 140 msec - VT Extreme axis deviation - VT |
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Describe torsades de pointes
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A variant of polymorphic VT that occurs in patients with baseline QT prolongation. Looks like a sine wave.
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Etiology of torsades de pointes
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Congenital long QT syndrome
Drugs - class IA and class III Electrolyte disturbance - hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia |
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Treatment of torsades de pointes
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IV magnesium, temporary pacing, isoproterenol and correct underlying cause of prolonged QT, electrical cardioversion
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What are the most important pathogenetic mechanisms in ischemic heart disease?
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Atherosclerosis and thrombosis
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Describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis
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Endothelial injury from htn, DM, smoking, dyslipidemia, RA
Monocyte recruitment, enhanced LDL permeability Monocytes enter into initial space and differentiate into macrophages - LDL is converted to oxidized LDL Macrophages uptake OX-LDL to become foam cells Fibrous cap on plaque forms |
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Describe the Canadian Cardiovascular Society (CCS) classification of Angina
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Class I - Angina with strenuous, rapid or prolonged activity
Class II - Angina brought at > 2 blocks or > 1 flight of stairs Class III - < 2 blocks, < 1 flight of stairs Class IV - inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Angina may be present at rest. |
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Define chronic stable angina
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Symptom complex that results from an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand in the myocardium
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Factors that decrease myocardial oxygen supply
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Decreased luminal diameter: atherosclerosis, vasospasm
Decrease duration of diastole: tachycardia Decreased hemoglobin: anemia Decreased SaO2 hypoxemia congenital anomalies |
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Factors that increase myocardial oxygen demand
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Increased heart rate
Increased contractility Increased wall stress: myocardial hypertrophy, aortic stenosis |
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What are the 3 major precipitants of unstable angina
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3 E's: Exertion, emotion, eating
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Typical signs and symptoms of unstable angina
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Retrosternal chest pain, tightness, or discomfort radiating to left (+/- right) shoulder/arm/neck/jaw, associated with diaphoresis, nausea, anxiety
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Define Levine's sign
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Clutching fist over sternum when describing chest pain
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Which drugs should beta-blockers not be combined with
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Verapamil/diltiazem combined with beta-blockers may cause symptomatic sinus bradycardia or AV block
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What is the effect of beta-blockers and CCB in treatment of chronic stable angina
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Increase coronary perfusion and decrease demand (HR, contractility) and BP (afterload)
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Define variant (Prinzemtal's angina)
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Myocardial ischemia secondary to coronary artery vasospasm, with or without atherosclerosis
Uncommonly associated with infarction or LV dysfunction Typically ST elevation on ECG Treat with nitrates and CCB |
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What are the most compelling features that increase likelihood of MI
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ST segment elevation
New Q wave Chest pain radiating to both right and left arm simultaneously Presence of S3 Hypotension |
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What are the most compelling features that decrease likelihood of MI
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Normal ECG
Pleuritic chest pain Pain reproduced on palpation Sharp or stabbing chest pain Positional chest pain |
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Define acute coronary syndrome
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ACS includes the spectrum of unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI
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What percent of MI's are unrecognized or "silent"? Which patients is this most common in?
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30% of MI's are "silent" due to atypical symptoms. This is more common in women, DM, elderly, post heart transplant.
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What investigations should be ordered in acute coronary syndrome
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ECG
CXR Troponin/CK CBC, INR/PTT, lytes and magnesium, creatinine, urea, glucose, serum lipids |
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Treatment of NSTEMI
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BEMOAN
beta-blocker enoxaparin morphine oxygen ASA Nitrates |
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How is NSTEMI clinically defined
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Presence of 2 of 3 criteria:
Symptoms of angina/ischemia Rise and fall of serum biomarkers of myocardial necrosis Evolution of ischemic ECG changes (without ST elevation or new LBBB) |
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Define STEMI
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Syndrome of acute plaque rupture and thrombosis with total coronary occlusion resulting in myocardial necrosis
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Describe the role of anti-platelet and anticoagulation therapy in management of NSTEMI
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ASA 162-325 mg
Clopidogrel 300 mg loading dose, then 75 mg QD in addition to ASA. Subcutaneous LMWH unless renal failure then use IV unfractionated heparin |
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What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if PCI is planned
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ASA 162-325 mg
clopidogrel 300 mg loading dose and IV GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor + unfractionated heparin during procedure |
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What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if thrombolysis is planned
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ASA 162-325 mg
LMWH (enoxaprin) until discharge from hospital; can use unfractionated heparin as alternative because of possible rescue PCI |
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What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if no reperfusion therapy is planned
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ASA 162-325 mg chewed
LMWH (enoxaprin) until discharge |
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What can be used if beta-blockers are contraindicated or if beta-blockers/nitrates fail to relieve ischemia in ACS
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Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g. diltiazem, verapamil)
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Which patients with acute coronary syndrome is thrombolysis not administered in?
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Thrombolysis is NOT administered for unstable angina and NSTEMI.
Only for STEMI. |
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What are the absolute contraindications to thrombolysis in STEMI
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Prior intracranial hemorrhage
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion Known malignant intracranial neoplasm Significant closed head or facial trauma (<3 months) Ischemic stroke (<3 months) Active bleeding Suspected aortic dissection |
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What are the relative contraindications to thrombolysis in STEMI
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Uncontrolled HTN sBP >180, dBP >110
Current anticoagulation Ischemic stroke > 3 months Noncompressible vascular punctures |
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When is thrombolysis preferred to PCI in STEMI
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Onset of pain < 3 hours, catheter team not available in < 1 hour, and no contraindications to thrombolysis
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When would medical management be used for STEMI (no reperfusion therapy)
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Onset of pain > 12 hours and patient stable
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Describe long term management post ACS
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1. Anti-platelet and anti-coagulation therapy - ASA 81 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg QD (at least one month, 12 months if stent placed)
2. beta-blockers - metoprolol 25-50 mg bid or atenolol 50-100 mg QD. Use CCB if BB contraindicated. 3. Nitrates - symptom relief but do not improve outcome 4. ACEi - if diabetic, CHF, LVEF < 40%, and anterior MI 5. Statins - irrespective of cholesterol level - atorvastatin 80 mg QD 6. |
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Which ACS patients should not receive nitrates?
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Right-sided MI patients who have become preload dependant.
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Complications of MI
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CRASH PAD
Cardiac Rupture Arrhythmia Shock Hypertension/Heart failure Pericarditis/Pulmonary Emboli Aneurysm DVT |