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82 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which coronary artery supplies the SA node?
The sinoatrial node is supplied by the SA nodal artery, which may arise from the RCA (60%) or LCA (40%)
Describe dominance of circulation
The artery that supplies the posterior interventricular artery determines coronary dominance.
Right-dominant circulation: PIV and at least one posterolateral branch arise from RCA (80%)
Left-dominant circulation: PIV and at least one posterolateral branch arise from LCx (15%)
balanced circulation (5%)
Where does venus blood from the heart drain?
Most venous blood from the heart drains into the RA
Layers of the heart
endocardium
myocardium
epicardium (visceral pericardium)
pericardial space
parietal pericardium
What is the main difference between semilunar valves and atrioventricular valves?
Semilunar valves have no subvalvular apparatus
Atrioventricular valves have chordae tendinae and papillary muscles
Describe the pathway that impulses travel through the conduction system of the heart?
SA node -> AV node -> bundle of his -> LBB/RBB -> purkinje fibres
How are impulses carried from the right atrium to the left atrium?
Bachmann's bundle
Describe effect of sympathetic nerves on the cardiovascular system
Innervate SA node, AV node, ventricular myocardium, and vasculature
-SA node fibers (beta-1) increase HR
-Cardiac muscle fibers (beta-1) increase inotropy and cardiac output
-Stimulate of beta1 and beta2 receptors in vasculature causes vasodilation
What is the normal interval for P wave, PR, QRS, and QT
P - 0.12
PR - 0.12-0.2
QRS - < 0.12
QT - <0.46 or 1/2 R-R
What does 1 small square and 1 large square represent on an ECG
1 mm (1 small square) = 40 msec
5 mm (1 large square) = 200 msec
What features are necessary for normal sinus rhythm
P wave precedes each QRS; QRS follows each P wave
P wave axis is normal (positive in leads I, and aVF)
Rate between 60-100
What makes a normal axis on ECG
-30 to 90 degrees (i.e. positive QRS in leads I and aVF)
Criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
S in V1 + R in V5 or V6 > 35 mm
R in aVL > 11 mm
Criteria for right ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
right axis deviation
R/S ratio > 1 in lead V1
Criteria for left atrial enlargement on ECG
Biphasic P wave with negative terminal component of the P wave in lead V1
P wave > 120 msec, notched in lead II
Criteria for right atrial enlargement on ECG
P wave > 2.5 mm in height in leads II, III, or aVF
Describe the typical sequential changes of evolving MI
1st - hyperacute T waves
2nd - ST elevation in the leads facing the infarcted area (usually 3-5 hours)
3rd - significant Q waves (> 40 msec or > 1/3 of QRS) (hours to days post infarct)
4th - inverted T waves (1 day to weeks)
What defines significant ECG changes for STEMI
J point = the junction between the QRS complex and the ST segment
Need ST elevation at least 1 mm in 2 adjacent limb leads or at least 1-2 mm in adjacent precordial leads
DDx for ST elevation
Acute STEMI, ventricular aneurysm, LBBB, acute pericarditis, Vasospastic (prinzmetal's) angina
ECG changes in hyper and hypokalemia
hyperkalemia - tall peaked T waves, loss of P waves and widening of QRS, sine wave pattern
hypokalemia - ST segment depression, prolonged QT, U waves
ECG changes in hyper and hypocalcemia
hypercalcemia - shortened QT interval
hypocalcemia - prolonged QT interval
ECG changes in pericarditis
Early - diffuse ST segment elevation +/- PR segment depression, upright T waves
Late - Isoelectric ST segment, flat or inverted T waves
ECG changes in massive PE
Sinus tachycardia and AF/atrial flutter most common
RAD, RVH with strain - most specific sign is S1Q3T3 (S in I, Q and inverted T wave in III)
Troponin I and troponin T peak? Duration elevated? DDx of elevation
Peak 1-2 days. Elevated up to 2 weeks.
DDx - MI, CHF, AF, acute PE, myocarditis, chronic renal insufficiency, sepsis, hypovolemia
DDx for sinus bradycardia
Increased vagal tone or vagal stimulation
Vomiting
Myocardial ischemia or infarction
Sick sinus syndrome
Increased ICP
Hypothyroidism
Drugs (beta-blocker, CCB)
What is a first degree AV block
Prolonged PR interval (>200 msec)
What is a second degree AV block
Some of the atrial impulses are not conducted to the ventricles
Type I - gradual prolongation of the PR interval precedes the failure of conduction of a P wave (Wenckebach). AV block is usually in the AV node.
Type II - PR interval is constant; there is an abrupt failure of conduction of a P wave. AV block usually distal to the AV node
Which AV blocks require permanent pacing
second degree type II AV block is an indication for permanent pacing due to increased risk of high grade or third degree AV block
What is a third degree AV block
Complete failure of conduction of the supraventricular impulses to the ventricles. Ventricular depolarization initiated by an escape pacemaker distal to the block. No relationship between P waves and QRS ("P waves marching through")
DDx of sinus tachycardia
Fever, hypotension, hypovolemia, anemia, thyrotoxicosis, CHF, MI, shock, PE, etc.
What is atrial flutter? What causes it?
Rapid, regular atrial depolarization from a macro re-entry circuit within the atrium (most commonly right atrium).
Atrial rate 250-350 bpm.
AV block usually occurs; it can be fixed or variable.
Treatment of atrial flutter
Acute: if unstable (eg. hypotension, CHF, angina) use electrocardioversion.
If stable use rate control: beta-blocker, diltiazem, verapamil or digoxin or chemical cardioversion: amiodarone, type I antiarrythmics
Symptoms of atrial fibrillation
Palpitations, fatigue, syncope, and may precipitate or worse heart failure
What causes atrial fibrillation?
Single circuit re-entry and/or ectopic foci act as aberrant generators producing atrial tachycardia
What is the CHADS2 score used for?
CHADS2 predicts risk of stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation by looking at risk factors.
Whats are the components of the CHADS2 score?
Congestive heart failure (1)
Hypertension (1)
Age > 75 (1)
Diabetes (1)
Stroke/TIA prior (2)
Appearance of atrial fibrillation on ECG
No organized P waves due to rapid atrial activity
Irregularly irregular ventricular response and narrow QRS
Describe the management of atrial fibrillation
RACE
Rate control - beta-blockers, ditiazem, verapamil
Anti-coagulation - ASA, warfarin, dibigitran (depending on risk via CHADS2 score)
Cardioversion (electrical) - if AF > 24h require anticoagulation first
Etiology - treat underlying cause
What is the treatment of AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia?
Acute: valsalva or carotid massage, adenosine is first choice if unresponsive to vagal maneuvers
Long term: beta-blocker, diltiazem, digoxin
What is carotid massage?
Carotid massage is actually a constant pressure directed posteriorly against the carotid artery for 5-10 seconds. Always listen for bruits before palpation.
Define pre-excitation syndromes
Referes to a subset of supraventricular tachycardias, mediated by an accessory pathway, which can lead to ventricular pre-excitation
Describe Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
Congenital defect where an accessory conduction tract (bundle of kent; can be right or left atrium) abnormally allows early electrical activation of part of one ventricle. Impulses travel at a greater conduction velocity across the bundle of kent thereby effectively bypassing AV node.
Appearance of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome on ECG
PR interval <120
"delta wave" - slurred upstroke of the QRS (fusion of bundle of kent and normal pathway)
Widening of QRS complex
Which drugs should be avoided in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
Drugs that slow AV node conduction (digoxin, beta-blockers) should be avoided as this may cause preferential conduction through the bypass tract and then precipitate VF.
Clinical clues to differentiate between VT and SVT
History of CAD and previous MI - more likely VT
Variable S1 - more likely VT
Carotid sinus massage/adenosine terminates arrhythmia - more likely SVT
ECG clues to differentiate between VT and SVT
AV dissociation - VT
QRS width > 140 msec - VT
Extreme axis deviation - VT
Describe torsades de pointes
A variant of polymorphic VT that occurs in patients with baseline QT prolongation. Looks like a sine wave.
Etiology of torsades de pointes
Congenital long QT syndrome
Drugs - class IA and class III
Electrolyte disturbance - hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia
Treatment of torsades de pointes
IV magnesium, temporary pacing, isoproterenol and correct underlying cause of prolonged QT, electrical cardioversion
What are the most important pathogenetic mechanisms in ischemic heart disease?
Atherosclerosis and thrombosis
Describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis
Endothelial injury from htn, DM, smoking, dyslipidemia, RA
Monocyte recruitment, enhanced LDL permeability
Monocytes enter into initial space and differentiate into macrophages - LDL is converted to oxidized LDL
Macrophages uptake OX-LDL to become foam cells
Fibrous cap on plaque forms
Describe the Canadian Cardiovascular Society (CCS) classification of Angina
Class I - Angina with strenuous, rapid or prolonged activity
Class II - Angina brought at > 2 blocks or > 1 flight of stairs
Class III - < 2 blocks, < 1 flight of stairs
Class IV - inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Angina may be present at rest.
Define chronic stable angina
Symptom complex that results from an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand in the myocardium
Factors that decrease myocardial oxygen supply
Decreased luminal diameter: atherosclerosis, vasospasm
Decrease duration of diastole: tachycardia
Decreased hemoglobin: anemia
Decreased SaO2 hypoxemia
congenital anomalies
Factors that increase myocardial oxygen demand
Increased heart rate
Increased contractility
Increased wall stress: myocardial hypertrophy, aortic stenosis
What are the 3 major precipitants of unstable angina
3 E's: Exertion, emotion, eating
Typical signs and symptoms of unstable angina
Retrosternal chest pain, tightness, or discomfort radiating to left (+/- right) shoulder/arm/neck/jaw, associated with diaphoresis, nausea, anxiety
Define Levine's sign
Clutching fist over sternum when describing chest pain
Which drugs should beta-blockers not be combined with
Verapamil/diltiazem combined with beta-blockers may cause symptomatic sinus bradycardia or AV block
What is the effect of beta-blockers and CCB in treatment of chronic stable angina
Increase coronary perfusion and decrease demand (HR, contractility) and BP (afterload)
Define variant (Prinzemtal's angina)
Myocardial ischemia secondary to coronary artery vasospasm, with or without atherosclerosis
Uncommonly associated with infarction or LV dysfunction
Typically ST elevation on ECG
Treat with nitrates and CCB
What are the most compelling features that increase likelihood of MI
ST segment elevation
New Q wave
Chest pain radiating to both right and left arm simultaneously
Presence of S3
Hypotension
What are the most compelling features that decrease likelihood of MI
Normal ECG
Pleuritic chest pain
Pain reproduced on palpation
Sharp or stabbing chest pain
Positional chest pain
Define acute coronary syndrome
ACS includes the spectrum of unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI
What percent of MI's are unrecognized or "silent"? Which patients is this most common in?
30% of MI's are "silent" due to atypical symptoms. This is more common in women, DM, elderly, post heart transplant.
What investigations should be ordered in acute coronary syndrome
ECG
CXR
Troponin/CK
CBC, INR/PTT, lytes and magnesium, creatinine, urea, glucose, serum lipids
Treatment of NSTEMI
BEMOAN
beta-blocker
enoxaparin
morphine
oxygen
ASA
Nitrates
How is NSTEMI clinically defined
Presence of 2 of 3 criteria:
Symptoms of angina/ischemia
Rise and fall of serum biomarkers of myocardial necrosis
Evolution of ischemic ECG changes (without ST elevation or new LBBB)
Define STEMI
Syndrome of acute plaque rupture and thrombosis with total coronary occlusion resulting in myocardial necrosis
Describe the role of anti-platelet and anticoagulation therapy in management of NSTEMI
ASA 162-325 mg
Clopidogrel 300 mg loading dose, then 75 mg QD in addition to ASA.
Subcutaneous LMWH unless renal failure then use IV unfractionated heparin
What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if PCI is planned
ASA 162-325 mg
clopidogrel 300 mg loading dose and IV GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor + unfractionated heparin during procedure
What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if thrombolysis is planned
ASA 162-325 mg
LMWH (enoxaprin) until discharge from hospital; can use unfractionated heparin as alternative because of possible rescue PCI
What anti-platelet and anticoagulation drugs should be given in a STEMI if no reperfusion therapy is planned
ASA 162-325 mg chewed
LMWH (enoxaprin) until discharge
What can be used if beta-blockers are contraindicated or if beta-blockers/nitrates fail to relieve ischemia in ACS
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g. diltiazem, verapamil)
Which patients with acute coronary syndrome is thrombolysis not administered in?
Thrombolysis is NOT administered for unstable angina and NSTEMI.
Only for STEMI.
What are the absolute contraindications to thrombolysis in STEMI
Prior intracranial hemorrhage
Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
Significant closed head or facial trauma (<3 months)
Ischemic stroke (<3 months)
Active bleeding
Suspected aortic dissection
What are the relative contraindications to thrombolysis in STEMI
Uncontrolled HTN sBP >180, dBP >110
Current anticoagulation
Ischemic stroke > 3 months
Noncompressible vascular punctures
When is thrombolysis preferred to PCI in STEMI
Onset of pain < 3 hours, catheter team not available in < 1 hour, and no contraindications to thrombolysis
When would medical management be used for STEMI (no reperfusion therapy)
Onset of pain > 12 hours and patient stable
Describe long term management post ACS
1. Anti-platelet and anti-coagulation therapy - ASA 81 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg QD (at least one month, 12 months if stent placed)
2. beta-blockers - metoprolol 25-50 mg bid or atenolol 50-100 mg QD. Use CCB if BB contraindicated.
3. Nitrates - symptom relief but do not improve outcome
4. ACEi - if diabetic, CHF, LVEF < 40%, and anterior MI
5. Statins - irrespective of cholesterol level - atorvastatin 80 mg QD
6.
Which ACS patients should not receive nitrates?
Right-sided MI patients who have become preload dependant.
Complications of MI
CRASH PAD
Cardiac Rupture
Arrhythmia
Shock
Hypertension/Heart failure
Pericarditis/Pulmonary Emboli
Aneurysm
DVT