Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
190 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
____________of its mass lays to the left of the body’s midline
|
2/3rds
|
|
__________is formed by the tip of the left ventricle, a lower chamber of the heart and rests on the diaphragm
|
Apex
|
|
______ of the heart is its posterior surface
|
The BASE
|
|
The largest portion of the heart is the _________
|
Left Atria
|
|
The four pulmonary veins open into_______
|
Left Atrium
|
|
__________ receives the inferior and superior vena cava
|
Right atrium
|
|
__________surrounds and protects it AND holds the heart in place
|
The Pericardium
|
|
WHat are the two parts of the pericardium
|
Fibrous and Serous
|
|
This is the tough inelastic and outer connective tissue (outer)
1. This prevents overstretching of the heart 2. Provides Protection 3. Anchors the heart in place |
Fibrous Pericardium
|
|
___________ is the thinner, delicate and forms double layer around the heart
|
Serous Pericardium
|
|
What are the two layers of the Serous Pericardium?
|
Parital
Viseral |
|
This is the outer layer of the Serous Pericardium and it fused to the fibrous pericardium
|
Partial Layer
|
|
This is the Inner later of the serous pericardium (aka epicardium) adheres tightly to the surface of the heart
|
Visercal Layer
|
|
lays Between the Parietal and Viseral Layers of the heart and reduces friction between the membranes as the heart moves
|
Pericardial Fluid
|
|
___________ is the space that contains the pericardial fluid
|
Pericardial Cavity
|
|
What are the 3 layers of the heart?
|
Epicardium (Viseral Layer)
Myocardium Endocardium |
|
This is the visceral layer of the serous pericardium)-
i. is the thin transparent outer layer of the wall ii. it is composed of mesothelium and connective tissue |
Epicardium
|
|
i. consists of cardiac muscle tissue
ii. constitutes the BULK of the heart. iii. This tissue is only found in the heart and is specialized in structure and function iv. Responsible for the pumping action of the heart v. Cardiac muscle fibers are involuntary, striated, branched and the tissue is arranged in inter lacing bundles of fibers |
Myocardium
|
|
i. Thin layer of simple squamous epithelium that lines the inside of the myocardium.
ii. Covers the valves of the heart and the tendons attached to the valves iii. It is continuous with the epithelial lining of the large blood vessels |
Endocardium
|
|
a. Superior Vena Cava-brings back blood mainly from parts of the body above the heart
b. Inferior Vena Cava-brings back blood mostly from parts of the body below the heart c. Coronary Sinus-drains blood from most of the vessels supplying the wall of the heart |
Veins that return blood to the heart
|
|
These are abnormalities in cardiac rhythm and conduction and they are differentiated by rate
|
Cardiac Arrhythmias
|
|
_____________ can be dangerous because they decrease cardiac output and in turn they decrease brain and myocardial profusion
|
Cardiac Arrhythmias
|
|
Cardiac Arrhythmias can be differentiated by rate explain this:
|
a. Tachy vs brady
b. QRS Duration can be wide or narrow |
|
These can cause sudden cardiac death and can be asymptomatic or symptomatic
A. syncope b. Dizziness c. Palpatations |
Cardiac Arrhythmias
|
|
__________ is the gold standard for cardiac arrhythmias
|
ECG
|
|
Definitive diagnosis for a cardiac arrhythmias is _______
|
Catheter Ablation
|
|
This Rhythm originates in the SA Node and follows appropriate conduction pathways. HR is 60-80 bpm
|
Normal Sinus Rhythm
|
|
This heart rate is slower than 60 bpm, this is due to increased vagal tone or normal pacemaker or organic disease of the sinus node
|
Sinus Bradycardia
|
|
This is < 45 bpm
and can cause: weakness syncope confusion |
Severe Bradycardia
|
|
This rate can increase with exercise or aministration of atropine
|
Bradycardia
|
|
If a patient presents with a heart rate of < 50 bpm, what do they have and how would you treat it?
|
1.Bradycardia
2. Start ACLS 3. Identify and treat the underlying causes of bradycardia |
|
If the patient has bradycardia and you also notice four indicative s/s that make the patient unstable and are _________ how would you treat it?
|
Unstable patient would have s/s
1. Hypotension 2. Acute mental status change 3. Signs of Shock 4. Acute Heart Failure Treat with Atropine 05mg bolus Repeat q 3-5 mins Max dose is 3mg |
|
If you are treating bradycardia with medication because the patient is unstable and you have already administered Atropine and it did not work...what do you do next?
|
1. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
2. Use Dopemine IV 2-10 mg/kg min 3. Use Epinephrine 2-10 MCG/min 1:10,000 solution |
|
If a heart rate is faster than 100 bmp it is considered______
|
Tachycardia
|
|
This is caused by a RAPID impulse from the SA node, the rhythm is generally regular but may vary with changes in position
|
Sinus Tachycardia
|
|
___________ occurs with:
Fever Dehydration Stimulants Infection Alcohol Withdrawl |
Tachycardia
|
|
If a patient with Tachycardia presents with Tachycardia but does not have:
Fever Dehydration Stimulants Infection Alcohol What should you consider? |
Consider starting ACLS Protocol
|
|
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia means what
|
Paroxymal= sudden
Supreventricular= above the ventricles |
|
__________ is the most common cardiac arrhythmia and it often occurs in patients without structural heart disease. The most common reason for this to happen is reentry
|
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
|
|
This usually has an ECG rate of 160-220 bmp heart rate of ABOVE 150 and has a regular rhythm. The P wave may be buried in the narrow QRS because the rate is so rapid
|
PSVT
|
|
This can be ASYMPTOMATIC but is frequently associated with:
Palpitations Rapid Heart Rate Mild Chest Pain Shortness of breath |
PSVT
|
|
This is the most common CHRONIC arrhythmia and the prevalence increases with age.
|
A Fib
|
|
With this Cardiac Arrhythmia multiple areas of the atrial myocardium are continuously discharging and the pattern is irregularly irregular
|
A fib
|
|
This Cardiac Arrhythmia is rarely life threatening unless the ventricular rate is rapid enough to cause
1. Hypotension 2. Myocardial Ischemia 3. Dysfunction |
A-fib
|
|
This rhythm is irregularly irregular (R-R is irregular) and has an Atrial rate of 400/min presenting as fibrillation waves (wavy baseline)
Ventricular rate is around 170-180 bpm |
AFIB
|
|
The ventricular rate is 170-180 bpm and the arial rate is approx. 400/min. What am I?
|
A-Fib
|
|
Up to 2/3 of patients experiencing their first episode of _______ will spontaneously revert to Sinus Rhythm within 24 hours
|
A-Fib
|
|
If a patient is stable with A-Fib and it is their first episode and it has been less than 24 hours how should you treat them?
|
Just monitor/IV/o2/No meds or pacing
|
|
The goal of treatment for A-fib should be to focus on _________
|
ventricular rate control
|
|
Patients with A-Fib >48 hours are at risk for _________
|
Cardioembolic events
|
|
If a patient has had A-Fib for >48 hours and are at risk for cardioembolic events how should you treat the patient?
|
These patients should not be cardioverted until anti coagulated * UNLESS they are unstable. Because they are at risk for an emboli
|
|
IF a patient is unstable and has A-Fib you should follow ACLS protocol and do what?
|
Prepare for cardioversion from 100-200J
|
|
If the patient is stable and has A-Fib the therapy is aimed at what?
|
Rate control and anti coagulation
|
|
If a patient is stable and has A-fib what medication do you not give underway?
|
Warfarin (Coumadin)
|
|
Embolitic event, rapid ventricular rate that could lead to myocardial dysfunction are all complication of what?
|
A-Fib
|
|
This is usually associated with heart disease or COPD
|
Atrial Flutter
|
|
This originates from a localized area in the atria and looks like saw tooth flutter waves on the ECG. The atrial rate is 250-350 bpm
|
Atrial Flutter
|
|
Commonly _________has a flutter wave of 4:1. 4 flutter waves per 1 QRS
|
Atrial flutter
|
|
Synchronized cardioversion of (25J-50J) is very effective in converting up to 90 % of patients
|
Atrial Flutter
|
|
Chemical cardioversion with Ibutilide 1-2mg IV is 50-70% successful within 60-90 minutes for ________
|
Atrial Flutter
|
|
Anticoagulation is not necessary for patients with A-flutter _______
|
< 48 hours
|
|
Embolitic event in chronic______ is the same as chronic atrial fibrillation
|
a-flutter
|
|
________ are due to impulses originating from the ventricles
|
PVC
|
|
______ are very common, even in patients without heart disease BUT occur most in patients with
1. Ischemic Disease 2. Post-MI |
PVC's
|
|
Hypoxia
CHF Digoxin Toxicity Electrolyte abnormalities are the common causes of ______ |
PVC's
|
|
Patients with______ are at an increased risk of development of ventricular fibrillation, especially after AMI
|
PVC's
|
|
With this you would see a premature or WIDE QRS with a preceding P-wave
|
PVC
|
|
When you have a _____ the complications could be progression to V-tach or V-Fib
|
PVC
|
|
If this person is asymptomatic and has no organic heart disease, no treatment is necessary but you should send for med advice and if symptomatic MEDEVAC
|
PVC
|
|
This is 3 or more consecutive ventricular beats lasting < 30 seconds and terminating spontaneously
|
Non-Sustained V-tach
|
|
This type of ventricular tachycardia is there to stay and is continuous and severe
|
Sustained V-tach
|
|
This cardiac arrhythmia can be life threatening because it could lead to pulseless V-tach, V-Fib, rupture of ventricular wall, and death
|
V-Tach
|
|
With this cardiac arrhythemia you should check electrolytes because it can occur in patients with hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia
|
V-tach
|
|
With this cardiac Arrhythmia you should treat patients with Amioderone 150mg over 10 min DO NOT BOLUS, repeat as needed if it returns, then 1mg/min 6 hours maintenance
|
V-tach
|
|
With this rhythm you should R/O Dehydration and drug use
|
V-tach
|
|
Amioderone may cause cardioversion back to NSR with this rhythm
|
V-tach
|
|
This is totally disorganized depolarization of small areas of ventricular myocardium, no effective ventricular pumping, LIFE threatening
|
V-Fib
|
|
This is seen most commonly with severe ischemic disease
|
Ventricular Fibrillation
|
|
On this ECG you will find a zig zag pattern without P waves or QRS complexes and the protocol for treatment of this is ACLS for cardiac arrest
|
V-Fib
|
|
This is a generalized disease of the arteries leading to narrowing and occlusion
|
Atherosclerotic Disease
|
|
This disease puts you at risk for having:
Coronary Artery Diease Peripheral Artery Disease Stroke Aortic Disection |
Atherosclerotic Disease
|
|
This is the leading cause of death in the United States
|
CAD Coronary Artery Disease
|
|
Hypercholesterolemia and other lipid abnormalities provide important risk factors for this disease
|
CAD
|
|
Risk of getttng_____CAD increases with higher levels of low density lipoprotein (LDL) Cholesterol and decreases with higher levels of high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol. It is also important to check blood gluclose
|
CAD
|
|
If a patient is diagnosed with CAD what advice should you give your patient?
|
Advice them on lifestyle changes and increase activity and exercise, low fat diet high in fruits and vegetables
|
|
If a patient is diagnosed with ______ you should treat them with anti hyperlipidemic agents such as Statins: Simvistatin (Zocor)
|
CAD
|
|
If medication and diet do not help with CAD what is the other option?
|
Surgery: Coronary artery Bypass grafting
Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (ballon angio plasty and coronary stenting) |
|
This is a symptom of a systemic atherosclerosis process
|
Lower Extremity Occlusive Disease (atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease)
|
|
There is a high correlation with patients who smoke and patients with diabetes that have ________
|
Lower Extremity Occlusive Disease (atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease)
|
|
A patient would present with Claudication: cramping pain or tiredness in the thigh, calf, foot, with walking or exercise and is relieved by rest
|
Lower Extremity Occlusive Disease (atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease)
|
|
Patients with this are at a high risk for amputation if the pain is unrelieved with rest.
|
Lower Extremity Occlusive Disease (atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease)
|
|
If a patient presents with loss of hair, thinning and cool skin, atophy of muscles and diminished pulses they may have _________
|
Lower Extremity Occlusive Disease (atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease)
|
|
This is a acute occlusion due to emboli or thrombus
|
Acute Arterial Occlusion of a Limb
|
|
Atrial Fibrillation is the MOST common cause and it can also be caused by valvular heart disease
|
Acute Arterial Occlusion of a Limb
|
|
When you have this disease and it is not caused from atrial fibrillation, emboli are predominantly due to emboli from the proximal internal carotid artery
|
Occlusive Cerebral Vascular Disease
|
|
If a patient has Occlusive Cerebral Vascular Disease do not treat with ________
|
Vagal Maneuvers or carotid massage
|
|
_________ is classified based on ECG findings as ST-segment elevated MI (STEMI) or non-ST segment elevation (NSTEMI) along with cardiac biomarkers (CK-MB and troponins)
|
Acute myocardial Infarction
|
|
_________ represents tissues ischemia without infarction
|
NSTEMI
|
|
AMI or _______ results from an occlusive coronary thrombus at the site of preexisting arthrosclerotic plaque
|
ST-segment elevated MI
|
|
Less commonly a, infarction can occur from ________ coronary vasospasms, hypotension, or excessive metabolic demand
|
Coronary Vasospasm
|
|
In young individuals with no risk factors you should consider cocaine use if a patient presents with an infarction caused by _______
|
coronary vasospasm
|
|
The sum of total ST-Segment elevation is a good indicator of the extent of the infarction and risk of subsequent events for _______
|
ACS- Acute Coronary Syndrome
|
|
_______ covers the spectrum of unstable cardiac ischemia from unstable patients angina to acute myocardial infarction. It is caused by hypo-perfusion of cardiac tissue
|
ACS-Acute Coronary Syndrome
|
|
Elevated Cardiac Enzymes may indicate_________ it may take 4-12 hours to become elevated
|
MI
|
|
what should you do if a patient is is dyspneic, hypoxic, has signs of heart failure or O2 sat < 94%. Maintain 02 sats ≥ 94%
|
– Oxygen 4L/min
|
|
The goal of treatment is to prevent further cardiac damage, during ACS. What must you do to achieve this?
|
Monitor and support ABC's
Get vitals and O2 Sat Cardiac Rhythm IV Access MONA-Oxygen, Aspirin, Nitroglycerin, Morphine |
|
Do not give patients with ACS – Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic Acid) 160-325mg to chew if:
|
Contraindicated in patients with ASA allergy or GI bleed
|
|
the 3rd step in preventing further cardiac damage medication wise would be to administer what?
|
Nitroglycerin (Glyceryl Trinitrate) 1 sublingual tablet/spray q3-5 for ongoing symptoms. Max dose 3 tablets.
|
|
If a patient is suffering from ACS ______ is contraindicated if they have hypotension SBP<90, marked bradycardia (<50) or tachcardia
|
Nitroglycerin
|
|
You would administer ________ for chest discomfort unresponsive to sublingual nitroglycerin
|
Morphine 4-8 mg
|
|
If hypotension develops after the use of morphine with patients that have ACS you should administer what as your FIRST line of therapy?
|
Fluids
|
|
________ is common post MI
|
Cardiac Arrhythmias
|
|
Pain relief with ______ is significant because its a vasodialator and it will show you that your coronart arteries are blocked, this wont work if is completely blocked
|
Nitroglycerin
|
|
__________ is defined as circulatory insufficiency that creates an imbalance between tissue oxygen supply and demand resulting in global tissue hypoperfusion. This leads to hypoxia, acidosis and eventual end organ damage and failure.
|
Shock
|
|
This leads to hypoxia, acidosis and eventual end organ damage and failure.
|
Shock
|
|
• Hypovolemic
• Cardiogenic • Distributive • Obstructive |
Categories of shock
|
|
Dobutamine a Beta Adrenergic agonist is 1st line choice for __________
Initial dose is 0.5-1mcg/kg/min titrate to effect |
cardiogenic shock.
|
|
Distributive shock has three Categories, what are they?
|
Sepsis, Anaphalaxis, and Neurogenic
|
|
This type of shock is caused from an over whelming infection with a massive release of bacterial endotoxins causing inability to maintain perfusion
|
Sepsis (type of Distributive shock)
|
|
This is a severe systemic hypersensitivity reaction where there is a massive release of histamine and other vasoconstrictive substances causing vasodilation, and POTENTIAL AIRWAY COMPROMISE due to edema and bronchospasm
|
Anaphylaxis (type of distributive shock)
|
|
This is caused by a spinal cord injury resulting in loss of sympathetic stimulation, fluids are no help for this, massive vasodialation happens during a spinal cord injury
|
Neurogenic (type of distributive shock)
|
|
If a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis what is the main treatment?
|
ABCs, secure Airway
Epinephrine (epipen) 0.3 mg SC/IM repeat q 10-15 mins Epipen delivers dose of 1:10,000 0.3mg IV fluid LR or NS bolus |
|
what are the 3 ancillary treatments for anaphylaxis?
|
Benedryl IV 50mg
Solumederol 125 mg IV Zantac 50mg IV |
|
This is broadly defined as inflammation of the heart muscle
|
Acute Myocarditis
|
|
With _________ one of the physical findings would be a pericardial friction rub
|
Acute Myocarditis
|
|
With this the ECG may show signs of pericarditis and you would see diffuse ST-segment elevations
|
Acute Myocarditis
|
|
With _________ Pericardial Friction run is the MOST COMMON sign, sounds like snow crunching or velcro
|
Acute Inflammatory Pericarditis
|
|
While using and EKG to diagnose Acute inflammatory Pericarditis you would see diffuse ST segments and the DDx will always be a heart attack
|
Acute Inflammatory Pericarditis
|
|
ECHO is the gold standard for Dx___________
|
Valvular Heart Disease
|
|
AMI/UA
PE Pericardial Temponade Esophageal Tamponade Esophageal Rupture Tension Pneumo/Pneumo Aortic Dissection/Rupture Acute Pneumonia These are all what? |
Big 7 life threating causes of chest pain
|
|
Costrochondritis, herpes zosterm and trauma are all considered non-emergent causes of __________
|
chest pain
|
|
Anxiety, depression, somatoform disorder are all considered non-emergent causes of __________
|
chest pain
|
|
esophageal reflux, pancreatitis, bilary choledocolithiasis, peptic ulcers are all considered non-emergent causes of __________
|
chest pain
|
|
Chest pain with exertion relived by rest is called______
|
Stable angina
|
|
If you patient is experiencing chest pain while resting you should consider it to be___________
|
Unstable Angina
|
|
if you patient presents with Chest pain behind left sternum described as squeezing, burning, pressing, or aching. Often characterized as a fist over the mid-chest with radiation to left shoulder or arm, back, neck or jaw. (pain and discomfort is much more severe with an MI)
|
Angina
|
|
Treat Angina with _________ because it is a potent vasodilator
|
Nitroglycerin 0.4mg SL q 5 mins max 3 doses
|
|
This is related to the presence of at least 1 of Virchows Triad
|
DVT
|
|
Venous Stasis
Hypercoaguable State Injury to the vessel wall |
Virchows Triad
|
|
If you have:
Recently traveled Use recreational IV Drugs older than 60 use birth control obese smoke immobilized or are on hyoercoaguable hormones then you are at risk for a __________ |
DVT
|
|
if you have unilateral leg swelling then you must rule out ________
|
DVT
|
|
IF you have s/s of DVT you must undergo __________
|
ultrasonography
|
|
The primary goal of treating________ is prevention of a PE
|
DVT
|
|
You would treat _______ with aggressive anticoagulation with Heparin 80 units/kg IV loading dose then initiate continuous infusion of 18mg/kg/hour
or use lovenox 1mg/kg SC q 12 hours |
DVT
|
|
Complications from ______ are pulmonary embolism and death
|
DVT
|
|
this is __________Muffled heart sounds, Jugular venous distension, Hypotension unresponsive to fluid challenge
|
Becks triad
|
|
Complications of procedure to treat _______ include RV and coronary artery perforation. Dysrhythmias.
|
Pericardial Tamonade
|
|
When trying to diagnose ________Helical CT pulmonary angiography is the imaging study of choice. You can also do a CXR and an ultrasound
|
Pulmonary Embolism
|
|
The goal of treatment for ________ is to prevent further PE
|
PE
|
|
If you have S/S of DVT it is dx as a_________ until proven otherwise
|
PE
|
|
You would treat _______ with aggressive anticoagulation with Heparin 80 units/kg IV loading dose then initiate continuous infusion of 18mg/kg/hour
or use lovenox 1mg/kg SC q 12 hours |
PE and DVT
|
|
This is the primary disease of the aging, 75% of cases are in people who are 65 or older
|
CHF
|
|
This heart issue can be right or left sided
|
Congestive Heart Failure
|
|
With ______ you would find Paroxymal Nocturnal Dyspnea (PND) as one of your physical findings
(PND- attacks of sever shortness of breath and coughing that generally occurs at night) |
CHF
|
|
When diagnosing CHF ______ is the gold standard for diagnosis
|
ECG
|
|
If you saw a patient that had sudden severe chest pain that radiates through to the back, described as ripping or tearing pain your
DX and TX would be what? |
Dx Aortic Dissection
CXR CT scan DDx Acute MI PE TX Goal is to lower b/p to SBP 100-120 until surgery Pain control: Morphine Sulfate 4-8mg IV Surgery is definitive therapy |
|
What is the definite therapy or treatment for Aortic dissection?
|
Surgery
|
|
What is the treatment goal for aortic dissection?
|
Lower B/p SBP 100-120 until surgery
|
|
What is the pain control that you would use for a patient DX with an aortic dissection
|
Morphine 4-8 mg IV
|
|
this is a bacterial or fungal infection of the valvular or endocardial surface of the heart
|
Endocarditis
|
|
While examining a patient that has a fever, cough, back or flank pain and pain in the abdomen you notice petechiea on the palate, conjunctiva and beneth the finger nails. You also notice Spilinter hemmorragaes: red lineal streak under the nail plate and within the nail bed. You also observe that the patient has janeway lesions which were painless, erythematous lesion on palms or soles and while doing an eye exam you notice exudative lesions in the retnia which normally only occurs inn 25% of patients. While during the heart exam you note a new heart murmur?
What is the DX? What is the Tx? |
Dx: Endocarditis
Tx: Unasyn and nafcillin and gentamicin or you can use vancomycin 1gm IV q 12 plus ceftriaxone 2 gm IV qd |
|
________ is the term applied to 95% of hypertensive patients when know single cause can be identified, it is a mix of genetic and environmental factors. Onset between 25-55 years of age. This is made worse by excessive alcohol, smoking and obesity
|
Essential Hyertension
|
|
_________ has an identifiable cause, this is suspected in patients with HTN at an early age or when the first symptoms appear after age 50
|
Secondary Hypertension
|
|
a Patient that presents with a blood pressure of <120/80 would be considered to have _______
|
Normal B/P
|
|
a Patient that presents with a blood pressure of 120/139 - 80/89 would be considered to have _______
|
Pre-hypertension
|
|
a Patient that presents with a blood pressure of SBP140-159/DBP 90-99 would be considered to have _______
|
Stage 1 hypertension
|
|
a Patient that presents with a blood pressure of SBP >160 and a DBP of > 100 would be considered to have _______
|
Stage 2 hypertension
|
|
A patient presents with renal disease, renal artery stenosis and is pregnant. This person will most likely have what abnormality in their vital signs?
|
High blood pressure
|
|
If a patient has pheochromocytoma, crushing syndrome and hyperthyroidism then this person will most likely have what abnormality in their vital signs?
|
High blood pressure
|
|
Patients using drugs or taking certain drugs and estrogen may be_______
|
hypertensive
|
|
________hypertension is usually asymptomatic
|
Essential
|
|
Blood pressure must be elevated on > 3 separate occasions and measured on separate days in order to be considered as this
|
hypertension
|
|
If a patient has hypertension what medication should you put them on in order to treat it? This is the first line.
|
HCTZ Hydrochorothiazide 12.5-25mg PO daily
|
|
A hypertensive urgency is blood pressure that must be reduced within a few hours, where as _________ requires a substantial reduction in blood pressure within 1 hour to prevent serious morbidity or death
|
Hypertensive Emergency
|
|
This blood pressure is usually strikingly elevated with the DBP > 130 mmHG but correlation between pressure and end organ damage is poor
|
Hypertensive emergency
|
|
If patient present with a SBP of 220 and diastolic BP of 130 what is happening with this patient?
220/130 |
Patient is having a hypertensive emergency
|
|
The complications of end organ damage due to a hypertensive emergency would damage what organs?
|
Kidney, brain, heart, retina
|
|
Use _______ to reduce hypertensive urgency DBP ,110 over 24 hours. If the patient is already on an antihypertensive agent, reinitiate that hypertensive agent
|
PO medications
|
|
For ______ you would not use PO meds, you would use IV medication such a Labetolol 20mg IV and start Metroprolol 25-50mg PO BID
|
Hypertensive Emergency
|
|
This is blunt trauma to the chest causing a myocardial contusion and necrosis, commonly caused by high speed MVA and the steering wheel in MVA's
|
Cardiac Contusion
|
|
This is commonly asymptomatic except for chest wall pain, sometimes you may find anterior chest injuries such as broken ribs and a chest wall contusion. Tachycardia is disproportionate to the degree of trauma. What is the DX?
|
Cardiac Contusion
|
|
This is a sudden transient loss of consciousness associated with inability to maintain postural tone
|
Cardiac Syncope
|
|
The most common causes are vasovagal reflex from pain or fear and uncompensated drop in cardiac output when assuming upright posture
|
Cardiac Syncope
|
|
_________ is divided into structural cardiopulmonary lesion vs dysrhythmias
|
Cardiac Syncope
|
|
__________ cardiac syncope can be caused by valvular issues, hypertropic cardiomyopathy, AMI and PE
|
Structural
|
|
Dysrhythmias that cause ________would be
bradycardia, AV block, V-tach, A-Fib and PSVT, this would indicate an electrical problem |
cardiac syncope
|
|
When a patient goes into cardio pulmonary arrest one of the very first things that you should do is_______
|
Maintain airway patency
|
|
If a patient is in PEA or asystole what treatment should you render?
|
CPR for 2 mins
IV access Epi 1 mg q3-5mins Rhythm NOT shockable CPR for 2 mins Epi 1 mg q3-5mins Repeat |
|
For a patient with _______ reduce B/P by 25% within 2 hours then 160/100 in 2-6 hours
|
Hypertensive Emergency
|
|
If a patient presents with a new onset heart murmur and a fever then it is _____ until proven otherwise
|
Endocarditis
|