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262 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Describe Right to left shunt and the disorders generally that cause
Blue Babies-
The "T" Syndrome issues
• Tetralogy of Fallot(1*)
• Transposition of vessles
• Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
(TAPVC)
• Tricuspid atresia
• Persistent truncus arteriosus
Describe left to right shunt and the disorders generally that cause...
Blue Kids (later in life, not a birth)
The D-Disorders
VSD - most common
ASD -causes loud S1 with long S2 split
PDA- close with indometacin
What is Eisenmengers syndrome?
Uncorrected Left to Right shunt VSD,ASD,PDA that leads to progressive pulmonary HTN and eventually revers the L->R to a R-> which is what causes the cyanosis latter in life
What are the four componets of Tetraology of Fallot?
PROVe
(sub-)Pulmonary stenosis (most important)
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Overriding Aorta (Overrides the VSD
Ventricular Septal Defect

-Boot shaped heart on CXR due to enlarged RV
What causes Tetraology of Fallot?
anteriosuperior displacement of the infandibular septum
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: 22q11 syndromes
Truncus Arteriosus
Tetraolgy of Fallot
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: Downs Syndrome
ASD & VSD
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: Congenital Rubella
Septal Defects, PDA
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: Turners Syndrome
Coarction of the Aorta
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: Marfans Syndrome
Aortic insufficency
Give the defect that goes with the disorder: offspring of Diabetic mother
Transpostion of the great vessles
Describe the findings seen with coarction of the aorta.
In adults you see notching of the ribs, hypertension in the upper extermities, and weak pulses (hypotension) in the lower extremities
Murmer throguh systole with thrill
Cardiomegaly

In Infants steosis is proximal to ductis, in ADults Distal to Ductus
What type of arterosclerosis would you expect to see with Eisenmengers syndrome?
Hyperplastic due to the diastolic pressure being greater than 120
What are the complications of congenital heart disease?
Cardiac Hypertophy and dialation
Failure to Thrive
Infective endocarditis
Complications form infections in childhood
What are the features of ASD?
Pulmonic Valve Murmer thorugh systole
Left to Right shunt
Pulmonary HTN is uncommon
What is the most common type if ASD?
Septum Secundum Type 1*
(Septim primum is 2nd)

If fixed then no change in survival
What are the frequency, most common location
and outcomes of VSD?
20-30% isolated defect
can be membrabnous or muscular: membranous most common
Why does cyanosis developing babies with large persistent VSD?
Pulmonary hypertension reverses the Left to Right shunt to a Right to Left one
Where is an ifracrystal ventricular septal defect?
in the muscle
How does a patent ductus arteriosus present?
Machine like constant murmur with normal cardiac function at birth
How do you maintian patentcy in a Patent Ducuts Arteriosus? How would you close it?
To keep open: Proataglandin E
To close: indomethacin or ibuprofen
what is the embryology of an Atrioventricular septal defect? What is the most common association/occurrence of this related to
Failure of fusion of endocardial cushions

Assocuated with DOWNS Syndrome
What gene is indicated in tetralogy of fallot?
NOTCH
Define transposition of the great arteries
Aorta arises from right ventricle and is anterior and right of pulmonic artery: pulmonic arter arises from the left ventricle
its a "ventriculoarterio' discordance
What is the difference between a stable and unstable transpostion?
Stable has a VSD which "fixes" the problem and
Unstable: incompatible with life and requires creation of an intimidate shunt
What is a persistant truncus arteriosis?
When there is a Single great artery overiding both ventricles. It is associated with a VSD
What disorder do you see a persistant truncus?
22q112 deletion
What is tricuspid atresia?
When is it most often seen?
Occlusion of tricuspid orfice
assocoated with hypoplasia of the right ventricle and is due to uneven division of the AV canal
What is a Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection?
When the pulmonary VEINS don't enter the left atrium
Volume and pressure hypertrophy of right heart
• Left atrium is hypoplastic
What are some clinical associations with coarction? *(Bolded)
Valve defects: bicuspid aortic
Berry aneurysm, circle of Willis
Rib notching
Lots of collaterals

(can have aching legs when walking, systolic murmur)
What murmer is heard with aortic stenosis?
Prominent crescendo, decresendo systolic ejection murmur with thrill
Define hypoplastic left heart syndrome.
• Severe stenosis or atresia of aortic valve with an Underdeveloped left ventricle and aorta
What Gene is associated with Williams Syndrome?
Elastin (ELN) gene
List the features of Williams Syndrome
Deletion of chromosome 7 takes our ELN gene
Thickend ascending aorta causing supravalvular stenosis
Facial abnormality elfin like with flat nose, always smiling
Hypercalcemina in infancy causing colic, vomiting and metastatic calcification risk
Pro-Platelet Aggregation agonists
ADP
Thrombin
TxA2
Collagen
Epinepherine
PAF (from basophils and Mast cells)
What are the biological variations that impact lab test resuults..
TIME, both cercadian and in relation to other activites like eating or medication use
AGE
GENDER
PREGANCNY
POSTURE
EXERCISE
What will EtOH influence on labs?
TAGS
What will caffeine influence on labs?
Increased catecholamines, glucose
And
Elevated lipids w/ chronic consumption
What important lab value changes for Kiddos? Elderly?
Kiddos: Lymphocytes must exceed 2500/mm3
Alkaline phosphatase due to bone growth
What important lab value changes for Elderly?
Albumin, creatnine and lymphocytes are all reduced
What are the gender lab variations?
Hormone/Fe/Hemoglobin
Less muscle means lower:
AST, BUN, CK and others
What lab variations would you expect with a marathon runner?
lower mean cell hemoglobin, glucose, and WBC
Higher billirube and BUN
Higher muscle enzymes and muscle byproduct
What is the guassian distribution?
usual interval is 2 SD from test mean; ‐95% of persons w/o disease will have
analyte result in this range 
What is incidence?
Incidence: number of patients in whom the disease develops in a 1 year period
What does BUN measure?
Reflects the breakdown of amino acids in liver that is excreted from the kidenys, thus:

IT is a marker for decreased GLOMULAR FILTRATION
What are the gender lab variations?
Hormone/Fe/Hemoglobin
Less muscle means lower:
AST, BUN, CK and others
What lab variations would you expect with a marathon runner?
lower mean cell hemoglobin, glucose, and WBC
Higher billirube and BUN
Higher muscle enzymes and muscle byproduct
What is the guassian distribution?
usual interval is 2 SD from test mean; ‐95% of persons w/o disease will have
analyte result in this range 
What is incidence?
Incidence: number of patients in whom the disease develops in a 1 year period
What does BUN measure?
Reflects the breakdown of amino acids in liver that is excreted from the kidenys, thus:

IT is a marker for decreased GLOMULAR FILTRATION by itself can indicate decreased profution, dehydration or heart failure
What is Azotemia?
High BUN and CREATNINE usally indicates some form of renal failure
What would cause a low BUN lab?
-Low protein diet
-Advanced Liver disease
Are there non-reanal reasons why BUN would be elevated?
yes.
GOI Bleed or
Catabolism such as:
Fever
Burns
Diabetes and
Intensive exercise
What does Creatinine measure?
it is the catabolic end product of sk muscle that yielded ATP
Insensitve but SPECIFIC for renal imparment
What is Indirect bilirubin?
Direct?
Unconjugated and not H2o soluble
Direct is conjugated in the liver
What causes Prehepatic Jaundice? Intrahepatic jaundice?
Posthepatic Jaundice?
Pre-Hemolysis
Intra: Liver disease
Post- Gallstone in bile duct
What is the alkaline phosphatase test (ALP) used for? When might you see higher then expected results that are non-pathologic?
The alkaline phosphatase test (ALP) is used to help detect liver disease or bone disorders.

Will be higher in pregnancy and kiddos
What does Lactate Dehydrogenase testing show you?
•Used as a cardiac (MI) indicator Significant plasma elevation occurs with small amounts of tissue injury
• High plasma levels associated with break down of erythrocytes (hemolysis); platelets
What is AST and what does it measure?
aspartate aminotransferase
seen in wide variety of tissues including liver, skeletal and heart
What is ALT?
(alanine aminotransferase)
More specific for liver

B6 Def can show falsely low ALT
What enzymes/markers are elevated in an acute MI?
Creatine Kinase (and isoenzyme MB)
AST
Lactate Dehydrogenase
Myoglobin
Troponin I and T
What enzymes are increased in liver disease?
AST
ALT
Alkaline phosphatase
Gamma glutamyl transferase‐ GGT
LH or LDH ‐lactate dehydrogenase
What enzymes are elevated wtih muscle diseases?
‐ CK (creatine kinase)
‐ AST
‐ LD
Aldolase
‐ Nonenzyme proteins: myoglobin
What enzymes are high in bone disease
Alkaline phosphatase
What doe the total plasma proteins consist of?
Albumin and globulin
how is globulin calcualted?
Total plasma - albumin
What does globulin include? Where are the componets made?
alpba, beta in liver
gamma from plasma cells (major component of globulin
What does prealbumin measure?
Nutrition status (short term, only 2 day half-life)
Describe job and concentration of albumin
2/3 plasma protein concentration
It is a carrier protein that maintains INTRAVASCULAR oncotic pressure
17 day half life
What causes high albumin labs?
dehydration (infrequent finding)
What causes decreased albumin?
Much more common lab finding:
1) Decreased synthesis from malnutrtion, decreased liver finction or chrinic inflammation
2) loss from renal disease, acites or protein‐losing gastroenteropathy
What is the major a-1 globulin? When is it increased? Decreased?
α‐1 antitrypsin
Decreased with Pulmonary Emphysema and liver cirrhosis

it is a protease inhibitor that counters the effects of leukocyte elastase
What is CRP?
C-reactive Protein
Sensitive indicator of tissue necrosis, 
acute infection and inflammation; itis an acute phase reactant

Cardiac risk factor
What is the significance of increased a-2 globulins?
High levels indicates acute damage- they are the clean up crew
What are the Acute Phase Reactions/Reactants?
‐Neutrophilia ‐Thrombocytosis (platelets increase
Fibrinogen increased
‐Alpha‐2‐macroglobulin increased
‐C‐reactive protein increased
‐Haptoglobin increased
‐Albumin decreased
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate increased
What does ESR measure?
increased ESR is a nonspecific indicator 
of inflammation
Where are Gamma globulins, immune globulin, IG all produced?
in/by plasma cells
What are the three types of Increased immunoglobulin?
Polyclonal gammopathy:
Monoclonal 
Oligocolona
What causes Polyclonal gammopathy?
autoimmune disease; chronic infections 
What causes Monoclonal gammopathy?
plasma cell malignancy or
premalignancy or lymphoma
What causes oligocolonal gammopathy?
Multiple Sclerosis and other CSF indicated diseases
What pathway and factors does the PT test assess?
Extrinisic pathway
Facotrs 2,5,7,10 and fibrinogen
What clotting factors are NOT activated with the intrinsic pathway?
7 & 13
What pathway and factors does the PIT test assess?
Partial Thromboplastin Time
Intrinsic pathway
2,5,8,9,10,11,12
What is the most important fibrinolytic protease?
Plasmin. it splits fibrin
What factor conversion to its activated form links the fibrinolytic, coagulation, compliment and kinin systems?
Factor 12 to 12a
What are thrombolytic disorders?
Disorders that are antithrombolytic (hemmorrhagic) or prothrombolytic (hypercoaguable)
What labs are increased with exudates?
WBC and lactate dehydrogenase
What are most common cuases of exdates
Infections/inflammation
repain/angiogenisis (new vessles are leaky)
Malingnancy which also causes angiogenisis
What are the lab values for tansudates?

Causes
low protein LD does not exceede plasma
Hydrostatic pressure increase
Oncotic pressure decrease
Lympoh obstruction
increases sodium intake
What are the causes of local edema due to decreased colloid osmotic pressure?
How does it frequently present?
periorbital edema
1) Protein loss
2) Decerase protein production
3)movement of fluid into tisse exacerbated by renin/angiotens/aldo system
4)Generalized Edema
What is lymphedema?
imparedlymoh drainage leading to edema
What are the 1* and 2* causes of lymphedema
1* Milroys, or inherited defect of lymph vessles or nodes
2*Aquired, trauma, mets.
how does lymphedema often present?
Localized, unilateral, often extremities
What is dependent edema?
Edama that that is gravity/hydrostatic related
Like pregnancy, RV heart failure, air travel
What is anasarca?
severe generalized edema
caused by CHF, shock, and nephrotic syndrome
Signs of heart failure?
Rales
Edema
JVD
Icterus
Hepatomegaly
What causes pulmonary edema?
Left heart failure!!! This is a question!
What would you expect to see microscopically in chronic pulmonary edema?
siderophages coming to gobble up the iron from rupture RBCs since the pressure is so high
what is the 1* cause of edema inthe brain
hypertensie crisis...
Exhibited by paplidema, confusion, etc. Gyri get smashed
What are serous effusions?
edema in serous cavities that are within membrane surfaces in the abdomen and chest.
What is present in chlyous effusions
Triglycerides and chilomicrons... this gives milky color
What is Hyperemia?
Consider ACTIVE
local arteriolar dialation (blushing, inflammation)
What is congestion?
Passive hypermia or passive
congestion
Caused by obstructed venous return or increased back pressure from CHF
What are causes of acute passive congestion?
Shock
Acute Inflammation
or Sudden Right Sided Failure
What are the causes of chronic passive congestion?
In Lung
- Left sided heart failure or mitral stenosis (will see heart failure cellls and brown induration)
In Liver and Lower Exteremities
-Right sided heart failure
-(can see nutmeg liver)
What causes hepatic congestion
Right sided heart failure
will see nutmeg liver
ewlevated ALT, AST, LD and siderophores that can cause fibrosis
What are the causes of hepatosplenomegaly?
Right HF
Portal vein occlusion
hepatic cerrhosis
What is brown induration?
Brown= hemosideran laden macrophages
Induration = hardening (due to fibrosis)
Venous insufficiency due to bad deep valves. complications include stasis ulceration
True or false:
Thrombus is always pathological
True
It is an overextension of the bodys function
What are lines of Zahn
The striped features of a thrombus higlighting alternating pale pink bands of platelets with fibrin and red bands of RBC's forming a true thrombus
Where do internal hemorrhages occur?
Brain
Lung
Where are external hemorrhages?
GI
GU
Ducts/Skin
Blunt force injury that damages vessels without disruption of tissue
Contusion
(bruise, echimosis)
What do you call petechia of the intestines?
punctuate hemmorhages
What is the difference between Purpura and Ecchymoses?
Eccymoses are larger
What causes hepatic congestion
Right sided heart failure
will see nutmeg liver
ewlevated ALT, AST, LD and siderophores that can cause fibrosis
What are the causes of hepatosplenomegaly?
Right HF
Portal vein occlusion
hepatic cerrhosis
What is brown induration?
Brown= hemosideran laden macrophages
Induration = hardening (due to fibrosis)
Venous insufficiency due to bad deep valves. complications include stasis ulceration
True or false:
Thrombus is always pathological
True
It is an overextension of the bodys function
What are lines of Zahn
The striped features of a thrombus higlighting alternating pale pink bands of platelets with fibrin and red bands of RBC's forming a true thrombus
Where do internal hemorrhages occur?
Brain
Lung
Where are external hemorrhages?
GI
GU
Ducts/Skin
Blunt force injury that damages vessels without disruption of tissue
Contusion
(bruise, echimosis)
What do you call petechia of the intestines?
punctuate hemmorhages
What is the difference between Purpura and Ecchymoses?
Eccymoses are larger than 1-2 cm
blue/purple to blue green to brown/yellow
What are petechia or puntuate hemorrhages associated with?
Thromobocytopenia
(Low or dysfunctional platelets) and suffocation
What are purpura?
Confluent petechia greater than 3mm caused by low or dysfunctioanl platelets (throbocytopenia) and vascular inflammation or trauma
Where do you find bridging strands of fibrous tissue or blood vessles?
in laceration wounds (Blunt force trauma)
What type of skin injury usually heals without a scar?
Abrasion
Hemoptysis;
Coughing up blood
Excessive menstrual bleeding is called?
Menorrhagia
Signs of Primary Hemostasis Disorders
excessive beleeding gums, nosebleeds, gi bleeds, cuts, and bruises
What is primary hemostasis?
it is the intimidate response to a vascular injury.
Endothelium + Platelet component
What is secondary hemostasis?
Permanent clot/healing components
Involves:
procoagulants + anticoagulants + fibrinolytic agents
What are the prothrombolytic effects/componentsof the endothelium?
vWBF stored there
Procoagulants like tissue factor and 9a & 10a
and antifibrionolyic plasminogen activating inhibotor made here
What are in the a-granules of platelets?
P Selectin
Fibrinogen/Fibrnectin
Factors V and VIII
Heparin binding PF 4
Growth Factors PDGF, TGF-B
What are in the dense granules of platelets?
Metabolism and recruitment factors
ADP
Seratonin
Epinpherine
Calcium
What two disease can cause adhesion dysfunction?
von Willebrand disease
Bernard-Soulier syndrome GP1B deficienct which is on platelets
GpIIb GpIIIa have what function? What is the defect in this refered to as?
Forms fibrinogen bridge aiding in aggregation of platelets in 1* homeostasis.
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
What are the antiplatelet drugs?
ADP receptopr inhibitors (Plavix)
NSAIDS (block TxA2)
GIIbIIIa Inhibitors
What is the role of prostacyclin, PGI2?
it is a vasodialator and strong platelet aggregate inhibitor
What are the causes of thrombocytopenia and what is it?
It is a low platelet disorder
caused by bone not making enough or too many being destroyed in periphery like in autoimmune and HIV disorders
What are the lab tests for platelet disorders?
Bleeding time
Platelet function analyzers (neasures bleeding time)
Thromboelastograph
When are bleeding times prolonged?
in von willebrand and platelet dysfunctions
what platelet disorder causes storage pool defects? what are they?
Glansmann Thrombasthenia
decreased a-granules and dense bodies
What therapy is monitored with PT?
coumadin
What therapy is monitored with aPPT?
unfractionated heparin
What clotting factor deficiencies are X linked? How do you test?
Factors 8 & 9
Tested via aPTT test
What clotting factor disease are usually autosomal dominant?
vWB disease (rarely recessive)
How are most of the clotting factor deficiencies pass on?
autosomal Recessive
What role does vitamin k have in anticoagulation?
allows calcium binding for procoagulants protein C and protein S
What role does vitamin k have in procoagulation?
it is mostly PRO coagulation
Allows for ca binding for facttors 2, 7, 9 10
What factors are vitamin K dependent?
2,7,9,10
How does coumadin/warfarin work as a blood thinner?
it is a vitamin K antagonist so it hinders clotting/ factors assocaited with vitamin k
People with homoplillia a and b have what prolonged lab?
aPTT
What are the natural anticogualants?
Antithrombin III
Protein C
Protein S
How does antithrombin III work?
It is activated by binding to heparin like molecuels on endothelial cells
The complex then inhibits thrombin and factors 9,10 and 11
What does activated protein c & s incavtivate?
5a and 8 a
What are the activators of the fibrinolytic cascade/
Factor 12a dependent
tPA
Uroklinase
Streptokinase
What are the the products of the fibrinolyitc cascade?
fibrin degradation products and d-dimer
What are the components of Virchows Triad?
Endothelial Injury
Stasis or turbulance of blood
hypercoaguability

Pathogenisis of throimbosis
What injurious agents to the endothelium can cause thrombosis?
Cigarette smoke
Sepsis (acitvates endotelium)
Malignancy
What are the most to least common thrombophillias?
Factor V Liden mutation
Prothombin 20210A Mutation
_____________
Proteins C, S And antthrombin III
_____________
Hyperhomocysteinemia (very rare!)
Describe Factor V Liden Mutation
Most frequent cause of hereditary thrombophillia

Mutation causes factor Va to be resistant to digestion of activated protein C
60% of patients with recuttent DVT have what? how can you test?
Factor V Leiden
Tested acitvated protein c resistance
Describe prothrombin20210A
2nd most common hereditary thrombophillia
gene mutationresults in 3x the amount of prothrombin being made and therefore more thrombosis
What is the cause of hyperhomocystinemia?
mutation in meythyhydrofolate reductase which causes increase in homocystine which can cause thrombosis
Can be reduced by B6 and B12 suppliments
What is the most typical cause of Secondary Hypercoaguability
bedrest/immobilization
What is HIT?
heparin induce thrombocytopenia
Consequence of high Molecular weigh heparin where antibodies to heparin/platelet complex can cause thrombosis
Describe Antiphospolipid antibody syndrome
prothrombic disorder wehre autoantibodies complex with antigens on phospolipids. results in
-Fetal loss
thromboembolism
-thromboCYTOPENIA AND NEUROLOGICAL CONDITIONS
Libman-Sacks Endocarditis is associated with what thrombolytic disorder
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
What factor results in along PTT but has no risk for bleeding or clotting?
XII
Superficial saphenous ithrombophlebits usually cause what complications?
Venous insufficent and vericose ulcers of the skin but NOT (rarely) embolous
What lab test EXCLUDED DVT?
Normal D-Dimer
What are the most common causes of arterial thrombi?
Athrosclerosis
-Turbulance
-Endothelial injury
What are the fate of thrombi?
Embolize
Dissolve
Propagate (grow bigger)
Scarrin- Organization and recanilization (vessle can look occluded)
Types of Emboli
-Which is most common?
FAT BAT
Fat
Air
Thrombous (Most Common)
Bacteria
Amniotic Fluid
Tumor
What are the most common source of pulmonary emboli?
95% in deep veins of the leg above the popiliteal fossa

Second most common are right mural thrombi
What pulomnary Emboli are fatal?
Saddle
they cause obstructive shock
What gross or microscoopic feature may be seen with Pulmonary artery thrombosis
Web Formation ???
What is the predominat source of arterial thrombi?
Mural thrombi (80%) for left ventrical with infarct or left atrium with fibrilation
What are other non mural sources of arterial thrombi?
Aortic aneurism
ulcerated atherosclerosis
vegetation
paradoxical embolism
Describe Trousseaus syndrome
Some malignancies, especially adenocarcinomas of the pancreas and lung, are associated with hypercoagulability. Can result in DIC or other clots
What causes 99% of all infarcts?
Thromboembolytic diseases
Where do you tend to see whit infarcts?
Heart kidney Spleen

There are not collaterals to provide revascualriazation
Where do you tend to see red infarcts?
Lung
testes
ovaries
intestines
Multiple blood source
How long can neurons survive infarct? Cardian myocytes? Fiibroblasts?
Neurons 3-4 minutes
Myocytes 30-60 minutes
Fibroblasts and skeletal muscle can tolerate hours
What is the job of endothelial lipoprotein lipase?
Extracts TAG from VLDL for storage in fat and use in muscle
Where do intermediate density lipoproteins go/
It has two options...
1)Uses LDL receptor to get to liver (50%) or other organs
2)Metabolized to LDL in the liver where excess gets eaten by mactophages that turn into foam cels
What is Neiman Pick type C disorder
Problem with NPC tranport protin that takes cholesteol out of the lysozyme for use by the cells ????/
What is 7 HMG Co-A Reductase used for?
it is the RLS for cholesterol synthesis
What does cholesterol acitvate and inhibit?
Activates ACAT which favors intercellular cholesterol storage and down regulation of LDL receptor syntehsis

It inhibits HMG Co A reductates at that just makes more cholesterol
What is the most common cause of Famillal Hyperlipidemia?
LDL Receptor defects
Autosomal Dominant
Accumulation of cholesterol in the vessel walls is called ___________ while accumlation in the skin is called ___________.
atherosclerosis
xanthomas
What is difference between heterozygous and homozygous with familial hypercholesterolemia?
Herterozygoes have 2-3x the amount and develop sx in early adulthood
Homo zygote have total cholesterol >500 and exhibit problems as young children
What are the three steps in healing damaged intima?
Recruitment of smooth muscle
smooth muscle mitosis
elaboration of ECM
What are the 2 factors regulating blood pressure?
Cardiac output and TPR
Hypertensive criteria
140/90 or greater
What is difference between essential secondary and benign htn?
Most common is Essential (90-95%) Idiopathic
Secondary usually due to a kidney proble,
Benign means that is is modest and has been fairly stable for several years
What is malignant HTN?
>200/120
Will cause death within 2 years if untreated
What are two types of arteriolosclerosis and what are they associated with?
– Hyaline arteriolosclerosis (benign <120 dyastolic)
– Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (malignant >120 diastolic) Looks like inions
What disease is common in hyaline arteriolosclerosis?
Diabetes melitus
What are the three patterns of 
aterioslcerosis? Which is most important?
Atherosclerosis (dominant pattern) ‐
Monckeberg’s medial calcific sclerosis ‐
Arteriolosclerosis ‐ Proliferation or hayline thicking of small vessles
What is the lesion that characterizes 
atherosclerosis?
Lesion is an atheroma or fibrofatty plaque
Raised focal plaque within intima with a lipid core and covering fibrous cap
Constitutional Risk factors of Ischemic heart disease?
Increaseing Age
Male
Genetics
Family History
Modifiable Risk factors of Ischemic heart disease?
Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension
DM
Cigarette smotking
CRP
Describe the response to injury hypothesis of vasculture
Endothelial injury
Accumulation of lipoproteins
Monocyte adhesion to endothelium,migration into intima, transform into 
macrophages and foam cells
– Platelet adhesion
Factor release from activated platelets, 
macrophages and vascular wall cells
–Smooth muscle cell proliferation and ECM  p
production
–Lipid accumulation
Two biggest factors in endothelial injury
Hemdynamic disturbances and Hypercholesterolemia
What happens with Chronic hyperlipidemia?
Lipoproteins accumulate in intima – Lipds are oxidized by oxygen free radicals
Oxidized LDL ingested by macrophage through scavenger receptor
Accumulates in phagocytes = foam cell
– Oxidized LDL stimulates release of factors =  
monocyte recruitment into lesion
Oxidized LDL cytotoxic to endothelium –
Dysfunctional endothelial cells axpress what adhesion molucule?
VCAM 1
When do fatty streaks appear?
Cna be before 1 year, but usually before 10 years
What is the hallmark of atherosclerosis?
– Atheromatous plaques
What are the components of an Atheromatous plaque?
Cells SMC’s macrophages T lymphocytes
– ECM
– Lipids ‐ intra and extracellular
When does acthrosclerosis become "critical"?
With a 70% occlusion
Angina may be felt
What are the complications of atherosclerotic occlusions?>
– Mesenteric occlusion = bowel ischemia
Chronic ischemic heart disease
– Ischemic encephalopathy
– Intermittent claudication
What are the three categories of acute Plaque change?
Rupture/fissuring
Erosion/ulceration
Hemorrhage into the atheroma
Consequences of atherosclerosis  major
Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
Cerebral infarction (stroke)
Aortic aneurysms
Peripheral vascular disease (gangrene of legs)
False Aneurism
– Extravascular hematoma that 
communicates with intravascular space
List Disorders what can contribute to aneurysm and the component that goes with...
Marfan syndrome – defective Fibrillin
Loeys‐Dietz syndrome- abnormalities of elastin & collagen
Ehlers‐Danlos syndrome- Defective collagen type III synthesis
Vitamin C deficiency- Altered collagen cross‐linking
Most common predisposing factors for aneurysms
Atherosclerosis and Hypertension
Thoracic aortic aneurism is associated with what disease?
syphalis
Most common preexisitng condition for aortic dissection?
Cystic medial degeneration
Type A Debakey
Aortic Dissection
proximal lesions, affect ascending or 
both ascending and descending
Type B Debakey
Aortic Dissection
distal lesions, beginning distal to 
subclavian
What are the two most common mechanisms 
for vasculitis?
Immune and Infectious
What are common clinical findings for vasculitis?
–Fever, myalgias, arthralgias, malaise
–Tissue ischemia
What are the three main mechanisms which initiate noninfectious vasculitis?
Immune complex depostion
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
Anti‐endothelial cell antibodies
What is an ANCA?
Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic antibodies
 What are the two types of ANCA?
• Anti‐myeloperoxidase  (MPO‐ANCA) 
• Anti‐proteinase‐3 (PR3‐ANCA)
What is P-ANCA associated wtih?
microscopic polyangiitis,
Churg‐Strauss syndrome
What is C-ANCA associated wtih?
Wegners
Anti‐Endothelial cell antibodies are associated with what vasculitides?
Kawasaki  Disease
Giant cell (temporal) arteritis affects what size vessels? What is the major morphologic finding?
large
Graulomatous Inflammation
Sen in people over 50
Giant Cell (Temporal) Arteritis is associated with what other disorder?
polymyalgia rheumatica 
What are the significant clinical features with giant cell temporal arteritis? How do you get a dx?
get sed rate and biopsy
One sized vision loss which can be perminant needs to be top concern.

Treat with steroids
Takayasu arteritis affects what size vessel? What is the other name ?
Large
also known as "aortic arch syndrome", "nonspecific aortoarteritis" and the "pulseless disease
What are the major morphologic findings of Takayasu?
intimal fibrosis and vascular narrowing of the aorta and sometimes pulnonary arteries

Blockage due to granulomatous inflammation
What are the major sx of Takayasu?
Occular disturbances and weakening of pulses in upper extremity
Who is most commonly affected with Takayasus?
Young asian women in their 20's
PAN affects what size vessels?
Medium
PAN affects renal and visceral vessels, what does 
it spare?
Pulmonary
What are the morphologic features of PAN?
Segmental transmural necrotizing inflammation
Do patients with PAN get glomerulonephritis?
Renal artery often involved, major cause of death however small vessels not affected so no 
glomerulonephritis
Common manifestations of Polyarterits Nordosa...
Fever of unknown origin, weight loss, 
hypertension, abdominal pain, melena, muscle 
aches and pains, peripheral neuritis
Treatment/Prognosis for PAN?
Fatal if untreated, corticosteroids and 
cyclophosphamide result in 90% remission/cure
What are the three features of Churg Strauss syndrome? What anca is associated wtih it?
Asthma, allergic rhinitis
and eosinophillia
P-ANCA in 50% OF Patients
What other vasculitis has the same 
characteristic lesions as Churg Strauss?
PAN- you can see granulomas
What is the other name for Kawasaki disease?
Mucocutantous Lymphnode syndrome
What arteries does Kawasaki involve?
Coronary
• Coronary arteritis can lead to aneurysm that rupture or thrombose = acute MI
• Leading cause of acquired heart disease in children
how does Kawasaki appear?
• Fever conjunctival and oral erythema and • Fever, conjunctival and oral erythema and 
erosion, edema of hands and feet, erythema 
of palms and soles and later desquamation of palms and soles and later desquamation
• Cervical lymphadenopathy
how do you treat Kawasakis?
IV immunoglobulin and ASA
What size vessels are affected in microscopic polyangiitis? How does it present? •
• Major clinical features?
Also called hypersensitivity vasculitis pr leukocytoclastic vasculitis

Pressents with palpable pupura

Clinically see hemoptysis, hematuria, proteinuria, arthralgias, bowel pain, muscle pain/weakness, hemorrhage
How can you make a dx for microscopic polyangiitis?
P-ANCA and skin biopsy
What is the triad that characterizes Wegener Granulomatosis?
Acute necrotizing granulomas of Upper and Lower respiratory tracts
nec/gran vasculitis of small and medium vessles primarily in upper lung/airway
Renal diesase
What is the clinical clue for Wegners? HOw do you diagnose? Whos is affected?
Ulcerative lesions of nose, pharynx, or palate
Dx with C-ANCA
M>F over 40 y
What is Thromboangiitis Obliterans?
Who get it?
–Buerger Disease
–Segmental, thrombosing, acute and chronic inflammation of intermediate and small arteries.

YOUNG MALES THAT ARE HEAVY SMOKERS
What disorder has cold sensitivity of the hands? What should the DDX also include
(Raynaud)
Happens with younf women, but be sure to rule out SLE. Sclederma, Bergers, atherosclerosis
What is a disorder of the deep vein legs called that can cause clots to form?
Thrombophlebitis
What may be the first sign of a DVT?
Thrombophlebitis
The superior vena caval syndrome is cause by what? Clinical Features?
Neoplasmsn that compress: Carcniomas or lymphomas
Features are: Dusky Cyanosis
dialation of veins of head and arms:
(Deoxygenated blood is trying to return)
The inferior vena caval syndrome is caused by what? Clinical features?
Compression of trhe inverior vena cava or thrombus that propigates upward
Clinical:
Leg edema, distention of superficial lower legs and Massive proteinuria since the renal veins are involved