• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/368

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

368 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
CVD
cardiovascular disease
CVD is the cause of __% of all US deaths
37%
the avg heart weighs
250-300g
apical thrust is also known as
point of maximal impulse (PMI)
Apical thrust may be seen where
left anterior chest, midclavicular line, fifth intercostal space
the heart is contained in a fibrous sac called the
pericardium
the pericardial sac contains about __ml of fluid
30ml
the wall of the heart consist of how many layers
3
name the outer layer of the heart wall
epicardium
name the middle layer of the heart wall
endocardium
the innermost layer of the wall of the heart
myocardium
oxygenated blood reaches the heart via the ___ artery
coronary artery
how many main coronary arteries are there
2
the coronary arteries branch off at the____ and just above the ____
coronary ostia , leaflets of the aortic valve
the left main coronary artery branches into the ___ and ___
arteries
left anterior descending and circumflex arteries
the left coronary artery and its branches supply blood to what parts of the heart
L ventricle, interventricular septum, and part of the right ventricle
the right coronary artery supplies what parts of the heart
right atrium, right ventricle, and part of the left ventricle
the numerous anastomoses between the arterioles of the heart allow what to take place
allows the development of alternative routes in case of blockage
when the anastomoses of the coronary arteries allow an alternative route after a blockage this is known as
collateral circulation
the arteries and main vein of the heart cross the heart in a groove known as the
coronary sulcus
venous blood from the heart empties into the
coronary sinus
a large vein in the posterior portion of the coronary sulcus which ends in the right atrium of the heart
coronary sinus
the upper chambers of the heart
atria
the lower chambers of the heart
ventricles
the atria and the ventricles are seperated by the ____ valves
atrioventricular valves
valve that seperates right atrium from R ventricle
tricuspid valve
valve that seperates the right atrium and ventricle
tricuspid valve
the bicuspid valve is also known as
mitral valve
guide wires attached to heart valves to keep them from inverting
chordae tendieae
the chordae tendoneae attach to the ___ muscle
papillary
valves that seperate ventricles from the pulmonary and systemic circulation
semilunar valves
valve that seperates the r ventricle from the pulmoary artery
pulmonic valve
valve that seperates the l ventricle from the systemic circulation
aortic valve
the name for the two normal heart sounds and the name for the two abnormal heart sounds
normal S1,S2 abnormal S3, S4
first heart sound heard or S1 is the sound of what happening
AV valves closing
The S2 heart sound is the sound of what taking place
aortic and pulmonic valves closing
____ comprises one complete phase of atrial and ventrical relaxation followed by one atrial and ventricular contraction
cardiac cycle
appoximately 80% of ventricular filling is accomplished how
by gravity
the contribution of ventricular filling caused by the contraction of the atria is kown as
atrial kick
when do the AV valves snap shut
at the beginning of ventricular contraction
amount of time it takes to fill L atria with blood
0.52 seconds
amount of time ventricular contraction or systole last
0.28seconds
the left and right half of the heart is seperated by the
interventricular septum
Made up of all blood vessels from the L ventricle to the R atrium
systemic circulation
made up of all blood vessels from the R ventricle to the L atria
pulmonary circulation
Dyspnea, frothy sputum, crackles dx
pulmonary edema
how many layer make up the wall of an artery
3 layers
innermost wall of an artery
tunica intima
middle layer of arterial wall
tunica media
outermost layer of arterial wall
tunica adventitia
pressure exerted by blood on the arterial walls
blood preesure
only vein that carries oxygenated blood
pulmonary vein
only artery that carries deoxygenated blood
pulmonary artery
the amount of blood pumped out by either ventricle measure in ml/min
Cardiac output
the amount of blood pumped out by either ventricle in a single contraction
stroke volume
avg CO of adult
5-6ml/min
avg SV of adult
60-100ml
the number of contractions per minute
heart rate
frank starlin mechanim states that when the heart_______
is stretched it contracts with greater force
the pressure under which the ventricle fills is called
preload
the ability of the heart to increase or decrease its degree of contraction
contractility
a positive chronotropic effect does what
increases heart rate
dominant pacemaker
SA node
SA node is an abbreveation for
sinoatrial node
from where does the SA node recieve its blood supply
right coronary artery
how long does it take for the elec. impulse from the SA node to spread across the 2 atria
0.08seconds
AV junction includes what structures
AV node , bundle of his ,
in 85-90% of the population the AV nodes blood supply comes from the
right coronary artery
10-15% of the populations AV node recieves blood from the
circumflex artery
conduction of the SA node electrical impulse is delayed in the AV node for about ____
0.12s
After elec. impulses leave the AV node the travel through the _____ to the ___ & ___
bundle of his then to the R and L bundle branches
the elec impulse from the SA node travels to where when it leaves the R&L bundle branches
purkinje fibers
how long does it take for the electrcal impulse to travel across the ventricles
0.08s
the process by which muscle fibers are stimulated to contract
depolarization
resting cell has a normal charge of about
-90mv
____ helps maintain the depolarized state of cardiac muscle tissue and suppiles ____ for use in the contraction of muscle tissue
calcium ions , calcium Ions
the Na+/K+ pump moves 3 __ ions for every 2 __ ions
3sodium for every 2 potassium
electrolyte imbalance that causes increased mocardial irritability
hypokalemia
hyperkalemia causes
decreased automaticity/conduction
causes decreased contractility and increased myocardial irritability
hypocalcemia
causes increased contractility
hypercalcemia
hypomagnesemia causes
decreased conduction
hyper magnesia causes increased
myocardial irritability
SA node rate
60-100
Av node rate
40-60
purkinje rate
20-40
period when the heart muscle is partially charged , but not enough to create a full contraction
relative refractory period
P wave represents
depolarization of the atria
P-R interval
time from the beginning of the P wave to beginnng of the
QRS complex
pause between P wave and QRS is created by
coduction being slowed through the AV junction
QRS complex represents
depolarization of the ventricles
normal amount of time for PR interval or PRI
0.12-0.20s or 3-5 boxes on the ecg paper
T wave represents
repolarizatin of the ventricles
the beginning of the T wave is referred to as
the J point
baseline on ecg strip is called the
isoelectric line
an elevated or depressed ST segement may indicate
myocardial ischemia
time between two succesive QRS complexes
R-R interval
parasympathetic nervous system sends messages mainly through the
vagus nerve
cholinergic also known as
parasympathetic
Adrenergic also known as
sympathetic
parasympathetic blocking drugs
atropine
the only drug we will use that acts directly on the parasympathetic nervous system
atropine
Epi is also known as
adrenalin
alpha drugs effect on arteries
vasoconstriction
beta drugs effect on arteries
vasodilation
alpha drugs can have what effect on the lungs
minor bronchoconstriction
beta drugs have what effect on the lungs
bronchodilation
isoproterenol is a pure
beta agent
phenylephrine ( neo-synephrine ) is a pure
alpha agent
neo-synephrine has what effect
vaso-constriction
isoetharine and terbutaline are
bronchodilators
isoproternal has what effects on the body
increase HR, dilates bronchioles, used in extreme asthma cases
nor-epi has what effect and is used for what
vasoconstriction, used when hypotension is caused by vasodilation( such as neurogenic shock)
propranolol has what effect and use
slows HR, used to decrease the work load of heart and decrease pain of chronic angina
the pressure (resistance) in which the ventricle contracts
afterload
high afterloads can be caused by
arteriosclerosis
_____ may be the first clue to L sided heart failure
dyspnea
acute episode of SOB in which pt suddenly awakens with a feeling of suffication
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea(PND) is classic sign of
L sided heart failure
when dyspnea worsens when a pt lies down
orthopnea
_______ occurs when Co suddenly declines leading to a reduction of cerebral perfusion
syncope
sensation of an abnormally fast or irregular heart beat
palpitations
blood pressure drop of 10mm/Hg
with each inspired breath
pulsus paradox
when pulse alternates in strength from one pulse to another
pulsus alterans
pt's with systolic pressure from 120-139 or diastolic from80-89 are considered
prehypertensive
systolic pressure less than 90 may indicate
severe hypotension
the cold sweaty skin of MI pt reflects massive ___ __
peripheral dilation
JVD indicates what type of heart failure
R sided
AICD
automated implanted cardioverter defibrillator
____ is when a muscle is deprived of oxygen
ischemia
CAD
coronary artery dieease
when heart muscle has been ischemic long enough to die this is called an
infarct
narrowing of the arteries from fatty deposits
artherosclerosis
a hardening of the arteries
arteriosclerosis
swishing sound heard over the carotid artery that containdicate carotid sinus massage
bruits
swelling and pain along veins that can lead to blood clots
phlebitits
PE cause aprroximately ___ deaths per yr
200,000
ACS
acute coronary syndrome
term used to describe any group of symptoms consistent with myocardial ischemia
ACD: acute coronary syndrome
Acute myocardial ischemia usually presents as
chest pain
Q wave MI equals
heart attack
STEMI
ST elevation myocardial infarction
pt with chest pain and no ST segment elevation are having
unstable angina
the principal symptom of CAD
angina pectoris
the majority of MI's involve the
left ventricle
what is the leading cause of death in america
AMI
Levine sign
when a pt unconsciously clenches a fist when describing ches pain
___to__ of pt's with an AMI will not have chest pain
10-20%
name 3 types of pt's not likely to have chest pain when having an MI
diabetics, heart transplant, older people
Symptoms for a women having an MI
nausea, light headedness, epigastric burning, sudden onset of weakness, unexplained tiredness
___ is a light sensitive medication and must be stored in a dark airtight container
nitro
MONA
morphine, oxygen, nitro, ASA
if a pt is experiencing an AMI and not just angina Nitro is likely to have what effect on the pt's pain
none
If nitro does not releive pain give morphine at what doses
2-4mg IV titrated
After giving morphine what should be done if the pt starts having bradycardia
notify medical control immediately
side effect of morphine
drops blood pressure
Alternative drug for pain relief when nitro is ineffective and you can not or do not want to use morphine
fentanyl
VOMIT
vitals, oxygen, monitor, IV, transport
the majority of AMI's are the result of
a thrombus
fibrinolytic treatment given within __ of the onset of sympyoms can sometimes abort the AMI altogether
30-60minutes
activase, streptase, and retavease are all types of ___
fibrinolytics
____ heart failure will result in pulmonary edema
left sided
signs and symptoms of left sided heart failure
restlessness, agitation, severe dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated BP, crackles, frothy pink sputum
how should oxygen be delivered to pt with r sided heart failure, suffering from pulmonry edema
BVM, positive pressure will help drive fluid from lungs
how should pt with r sided heart failure and pulmonary edema be positined
sitting up with feet dangling
drug treatment for R sided heart failure with pulmonary edema with wheezing :
Nitro0.4mg SQ. lasix0.5-1.0mg/kg,morphine3mg SIVP, Albeuterol & atrovent if wheezing is present
What drug may be given to pt in R sided heart failure to maintain BP if transport time is long
dopamine
Most common cause of R sided heart failure
L sided heart failure
swelling of the liver
hepatomegaly
treatment for R sided heart failure
make pt comfortable
signs of R sided heart failure
vein engorgemant, JVD, edema
occurs when excessive fluid build up in the pericardium
cardiac tampomade
classic symptom of cardiac tamponade
narrowing pulse pressure
signs of cardiac tamponade
narrowing pulse pressure, hypotension,JVD, muffled heart sounds
becks triad
narrowing pulse pressure, JVD, muffled heart ounds
Becks triad indicates
cardiac tamponade
alternating small-and large amplitude QRS complexes
electrical alterans
changes in blood pressure can only be recognized after ___ blood pressures have been taken
Three
how can you tell cardiac tamponade fron tension pneumothorax
breath sounds will be equal and trachea will be midline in cardiac tamponade
ultimate treatment for cardiac tamponade
percardiocentesis
If percardiocentesis is not allowed alternative treatment for cardiac tamponade
rapid transport
when __% of L ventricle has been infarcted cardiogenic shock develops
40%
signs of cardiogenic shock
pale cold skin, anuria, rapid shallow respirations, thready tachy pulse, possible hypotension
treatment for cardiogenic shock
100% oxygen, supine, IV, 100-200ml fluid bolus, dopamine,
dopamine dose for cardiogenic shock
5mcg/kg/min, slowing infusion if blood pressure reaches 90-100mm/Hg and increasing infusion if pressure drops to 70mm/Hg
to prepare a dopamine infusion add ___mg of dopamine to a __ bag of NS
400mg dopamine to a 250ml bag of NS
greek word meaning widening
aneurysm
65% of all aneurysm occur
ascending aorta just distal to the aortic valve
if aortic dissection extends back into the aortic valve it may cause
the valve to be unable to close
most common chief complaint with acute dissecting aortic aneurysm
chest pain ( worst ever) sharp, tearing ripping, like a knife
pain from dissecting aortic aneurysm comes on ___ and is usually felt where
suddenly, and felt anterior chest or between the shoulder blades
how to tell the difference between pt with aneurysm or AMI
Aneurysm, shrp pain sudden onset, AMI preceeded by heartburn,weakness, sweating, pain is pressure, tends to come on gradually
you can tell that an aneurysm is in the innominate artery how?
different blood pressure in each arm
death from ascending aortic rupture is usually result of
cardiac tamponade
treatment for aortic aneurysm
calm pt, 100% O2, IV NS, If pt not hypotensive morphine 2mg q 10-15 min max 10mg
symptoms of AAA
abdominal or back pain in the umbilicus or lower back areas, cannot be relieved by changing position, radiates to thigh or groin, feels need to defecate
Sign of AAA
pulsating mass palpable in the abdomen
treatment for AAA
Large bore IV, fluids, O2, if signs of shock treat as shock
swishing sound over carotid artery
bruit
calve pain that can lead to a painful limp
claudication
presence of claudication indicates signifigant
peripheral artery constriction
STEMI
ST elevated myocardial infarct
UA/STEMI
unstable angina/ non ST segment elevated myocardial infarct
Type of angina that follows a recurent pattern
stable angina
occurs when a portion of cardiac muscle is deprived of coronary blood flow long enough to cause necrosis
AMI
The majority of AMI's involve what part of the heart
left ventricle
Most AMI's that involve the L ventricle are the result of ocllusion of the___ artery or one of its branches
L coronary artery
the SA node pace at a rae of
60-100
the AV junction paces at a rate of
40-60
The purkinje pace at a rate of
20-40
the P wave represents
the depolarization of the atria
the PR interval represents
the depolarization of the atria and delay of the AV junction
The QRS complex represents the
depolarization of the ventricles
ST segment represents
period of time between ventriular depolarization and beginning of repolarization
period of time between ventriular depolarization and beginning of repolarization
ST segment represents
treatment algorithm for asthma
O2, IV, Albeuterol, atrovent, Morphine, bicarbonate, MAG
treatment algorithm for Left heart failure
O2, IV, MONA, Pacing
QRS complex represents
depolarization of the ventricles
T-wave represents
repolarization of the ventricles
R-R interval represents
Time between two ventricular depolarizations, one cardiac cycle
A pure beta agent
phenylephrine
phenylephrine is a pure ____
beta agent
Nor-epi is AKA
levophed
of all deaths due to AMI ___% are due to arrythmias
90%
chest pain from angina AMI may last how long compared to chest pain from Angina
more than 15 minutes vs angina which will subside in smaller amount of time
in __% of AMI's pain will radiate into the arms
25%
women complaining of one or all of the following may be having ___: nausea, light headedness, heartburn, sudden onset of weakness, unexplained tiredness
AMI
____ may help to limit ischemic myocardial injury & reduce the amount of ST segment elevation
oxygen
phosodiesterase 5 AKA PDE-5 are what typr of drug
used to treat ED
pt is having AMI dose for morphine
2-4mg PRN
the majority of AMI's are the result of _____
thrombus/ blood clot usuallly in the coronary arteries
Peripheral vasoconstriction signs
pallor and elevated blood pressure
pallor and elevated blood pressure may indicate
PAD
algorithm for L sided heart failure
O2, BVM, pt sitting up feet dangling, IV, nitro, lasix, albeuterol, atrovent, morphine, if long transport dopamine
AVG adult dose for lasix
20-40g
if pt is experiencing pulmonary edema, and already taking lasix, what is the proper dose
twice pt's normal dose
morphine dose for L sided heart failure
3mg if pt is not hypotensive
systemic venous distention most obvious sign
JVD
JVD most likely caused by __ sided heart failure
Right-
pitting edema usually caused by ___ heart failure
Right side
goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock
identify , and treat before it becomes irreversible
how can you differeniate between cardiogenic shock and hypovolemic shock
give a 100-200ml fluid bolus, if pt is in hypovolemic shock pulse and pressure will rise
how do you prepare a dopamine infusion
add 400mg to 250mlNS titrate at 5mcg/kg/min
treatment algorithm for dissecting aneurysm
O2, IV, monitor, morphine, rapid transport
dose of morphine for dissecting aneurysm
2mg q 10-15 min.: max 10mg
hypertension is BP of ___ and above
140/90
3 most common complications of hypertension
stroke, renal damage, heart failure
most common symptom directly related to hypertension
headache
signs and symptoms of symptomatic hypertension
headache weakness, epitaxis, blurred vision
bp at or above__ is considered severe hypertension
200/130
MAP stands for
mean arterial pressure
when MAP exceeds ___ the blood brain barrier is breached
150mm/Hg
treatment for hypertension encephalopathy is
lower blood pressure gradually over 30-60 minutes
drug of choice for the treatment of hypertensive encephalopathy
labetalol
labetalol is AKA
normodyne, trandate
labetalo is cotraindicated in a pt with
asthma, COPD
labetalol dose for hypertensive encephalopathy
SIVP 20 mg q 10 min PRN or drip at 250mg/250ml @ 2mg/min
drip rate for labetalol
2mg/min
a disturbance in the normal cardiac rythm
dysrrythmia/arrythmia
hypoxia, metabolic alkolosis, hypokalemia can all lead to
electrical instabilty
the numbers 300,150,100,75,60,50 in reference to reading an ecg allow you to do what
rapidily identify rates
amount of time between 2 heavy black lines on an ekg strip
0.2s
0.04s is equal to how many small boxes
1
how many leads do you attach to a pt in order to obtain a 12 lead ekg
10
the four limb leads are color coded. which color goes where on pt
white: r arm
black: L arm
Red: leg
Green : r leg
2 chest leads that are over L side of heart or are known as L chest leads
v-5, v-6
2 chest leads that are over r side of heart or are known as R chest leads
v-1, v-2
which chest leads are over the interventricular septum
V-3,V-4
the response of automaticity foci in a pause in the pacemaking activity
escape
rythm 20-40bpm, no p waves, widened QRS
idioventricular or ventricular escape rythm
for a QRS to be considered widened what must the duration be
greater than .12s or 3 small boxes
MAT
multifocal atrial escape rythm
40-60BPM, no visible P wave, QRS less than .12s, rythm regular DX
junctional rythm
quick way to tell the difference in a ventricular rythm and a juntional rythm
duration of the QRS complexes
___ automaticity foci are the worlds most sensitive O2 receptors
ventricular
number one cause of ventricular foci irritabilty
lack of oxygen
number one cause of atrial foci irritabilty
adrenergic substances
PAB
premature atrial beat
SVT
supraventricular tachycardia
PVC
premature ventricular contraction
PAC
premature atrial contraction
rate of 85, normal PQRST, followed by a premature but otherwise normal PQRST. pattern is continuous (2 beats normal pause, 2 beats normal pause etc) DX
atrial bigeminy
A rythm in which you have a pattern of two normal PQRST's and the second PQRST is always followed by a premature beat. constant and repeating ( two normal one premature , 2 normal -1 premature etc) dx
atrial trigeminy
describe junctional bigeminey
when you have a premature junctional beat following every normal pqrst
if you have a premature QRS with no P wave or an inverted P wave and the QRS duration is .10s this is a premature___ beat
junctional
if you have a premature QRS with no P wave and the QRS duration is.14s you would label this a premature_____ contraction
ventricular
if the ventricular foci are irritable and the pt shows no signs of hypoxia you would expect the pt may be _____
hypokalemic
if you suspect that the pt is having PVC's what will the pulse feel like
you should feel an extra pulse every time there is a PVC
normal PR interval
.2s or 5 small boxes or one large box
if th PR interval exceeds .2s what do you suspect
Some type of AV block ( first degree block
what is a first degree block
whan the AVnode holds the impulse from the atria or SA node for a peiod longer than normal ( widened PR interval)
Type 1 second degree block is also known as
wenckebach block
tpe 2 second degree block is also known as
mobitz block
which heart block is also known as a classical heart block
mobitz type 2 second degree heart block
easiest way to spot a third degree block
p waves and QRS are disassociated
Which heart block is also known as a complete heart block
third degree heart block
severe hyperkalemia can cause what rythm
asystole
easiest way to tell rythm is not ventricular in nature
normal QRS duration or a QRS that is less than .12s
if you see a wide QRS complex with two Rwaves this indicates
a bundle branch block
if you suspect a budle branch block you should check which leads
V-1, V-2,& V-5 V-6
R & L chest leads
if any PR interval exceeds one large squre you have some kind of ____
block
the first two things you should check on every EKG
PR interval and QRS duration
leads 2,3 & AVF are considered ____ leads
inferior
leads AVL & 1 are considered ____ leads
lateral
chest leads measure on a ____ plane
horizontal
myocardial infarction, coronary occlusion, and heart attack all have what in common
thay are essentially all the same thing
inverted T wave indicates
ischemia
ischemia, injury, and necrosis together are considered the ___ ___ ___
nyocardial infarction triad
characteristic sign of ischmia
inverted T wave
diminished coronary blood flow will show up how on an EKG
inverted T wave
flat T waves or minimal T wave inversion in a limb lead may indicate what when viewed in limb leads
nothing most likely normal
the term injury means what in relation to time when reading an ecg
recent or acute
ST segment eleveted indicates
injury (infarct)
earliest consistent sign of an infarct
elevated ST segment
Prinzmetals angina
angina with out excertion
BBB
bundle branch block
RBBB with ST segment elevationin leads V1, V2, V3
brogada syndrome
what drug can cause a depressed ST segment
digitalis
nearly 59% of sudden deaths due to heart disese in healthy young people is due to
brugada syndrome
drug treatments for asthma in normal order
albeuterol, atrovent, solumedrol, MAG
normal drug treatments for COPD/CHF/Pulmonary edema in order
lasix, nitro, morphine,positive pressure ventilation
normal drug treatments for pneumonia in order given
oxygen, NS
VOMIT
vitals, oxygen, monitor, IV, transport
drug treatments for torsades de pointes in order given
MAG
drug treatments for PEA in order given
EPI 1:10,000, Atropine(3 rounds) Vasopressin ( substituted for 1st or 2nd round of epi or not at all),amiodarone, lidocaine
EPI dose for braycardia
2-10 mcg/min titrate for effect
drug treatment for angina in order
oxygen, ASA, nitro, morphine
mneumonic for drug treatment for angina
MONA
MONA
morphine, oxygen, nitro, aspirin
what drug is used for chemical cardioversion
adenosine
drug treatment for pulseless V-tach/V-fib/ PVC's in order given
lidocaine, amiodarone (if lidocaine does not work), DEFIB
EKG rythm that may look a lot like a ribbon, cheyne stokes respirations or a voice recording
torsades de pointes
drug treatment for asystloe
epi/atropin three round every 5 minutes, conitnue with epi every 5 minutes after 3 round
only treatment for a heart block
TCP
TCP
transcutaneous pacing
drug treatment for 2nd degree heart block
none TCP is only treatment
drug treatment for pt whos rythm is PVC's only and has a pulse
non if you resolve PVC's you may remove pulse (VOMIT)
1 box on the EKG strip is equal to how much time
0.04seconds
normal P wave duration
less than .12s
ST segment is what on the EKG
line between end of QRS and beginng of T wave( do not confuse ST segment elevation with a large T wave)
what should you suspect if the ST segment is elevated 1mm above isoelctric line
myocardial ischemia
a tall sharply peaked T wave indicates
hyperkalemia
the beginnig of the QRS until the end o the T wave is the ____
Q-T interval
a prolonged Q-T interval may indicate
AMI/hypocalcemia/pericarditis
normal Q-T interval duration
0.36-0.44s (9-11 boxes)
prolonged Q-T interval exceeds how many boxes
more than 11
PAC
premature atrial complex/contraction
tachy cardia of unknown origin is labeled as a ____
SVT
in order for a tachy rythm to be considered an SVT the rate must exceed
150bpm
PSVT
witnessed SVT
key to identifying A-fib
R-R intervals are regularly irregular
PR interval longer then .12s indicates
first degree block
if you pt is on warfarin/coumadin you should not be supised to see what type of rythm
A-fib
number one concern with A-fib
blood clots
no palpable pulse-rate of 20-40, no P waves, widened QRS Dx
idioventricular rythm
regular rythm,no P waves, QRS qreater than .12s, rate greater than 100 Dx
V-tach
the most common polymorphic V-tach seen
torsades de pointes
rate greater then 100,QRS complex varies in height and pattern Dx
torsades de pointes
if pt is in fine v-ib what does this tell you
heart has been without oxygen for some time
lead that is placed over the 4th intercostal space at the right sternal border
v-1
lead place over the 4th ntercostal space at the left sternal border
V-2
V-3 is placed where
between V-2 & V-4
lead that is placed over the 5th intercostal at the midclavicular line
V-4
lead placed at the anterior axillary in line wtih V-4
V-5
lead placed at the midaxillary line in line with V-4
V-6
if you are unable to identify a tachycardia as an SVT or V-tach how should it be treated
As V-tach
the Ron T phenomenom will cause a pt to go into
V-fib
if you are cardioverting a pt and he goes into v-fib what should you do
prepare to defib immediately