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74 Cards in this Set

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1. What is the name of the needle used for bone marrow biopsies?
a. Cutting Needle
b. Huber Needle
c. Jamshidi Needle
d. Milliner’s Needle
c. Jamshidi Needle
Which statement is NOT true about a ventral midline laparotomy?
a. The patient is placed in dorsal recumbancy.
b. When doing a spay, an incision is made cranial to umbilicus
c. The linea alba is where the aponeurosis of the transverse and internal and external oblique muscles attaches to midline
d. When cutting through the abdominal wall, the blade should be turned so the cutting blade is up.
b. When doing a spay, an incision is made cranial to umbilicus
In regard to tendon healing
a. The first phase is injury, second phase is repair, and third phase is rehabilitation
b. The first phase is inflammation, second phase is repair, and third is remodeling
c. The first phase is inflammation, the second is remodeling, and the third is repair
d. The location is more important than the cause or mobilization/immobilization
e. b and d
b. The first phase is inflammation, second phase is repair, and third is remodeling
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The palpebral reflex and the corneal reflex are two reflexes used to assess the sensory branch of the trigeminal nerve.
b. Cranial nerve VI is sensory & motor to the retractor bulbi & lateral rectus muscles.
c. Hemiwalking should only be done in small breed dogs, not large breed dogs.
d. The menace response tests cranial nerves II and V.
a. The palpebral reflex and the corneal reflex are two reflexes used to assess the sensory branch of the trigeminal nerve.
Marked hypotension, bradycardia, circulatory collapse, pale to gray mucous membranes and somnalence characterize which phase of circulatory shock?
a. Early decompensatory phase
b. Compensatory phase
c. Terminal decompensatory phase
d. Hypodynamic phase
c. Terminal decompensatory phase
Which of the following signs of lameness is NOT seen in neurologic lameness in small animals?
a.) crossing of limbs
b.) stumbling
c.) shortened stride
d.) weakness
e.) limb circumduction
e.) limb circumduction
Contamination is defined as:
a. the presence of sufficient bacteria in a wound causing illness
b. the establishment of organisms in a wound and subsequent host reaction
c. the presence of bacteria in the blood
d. the introduction of organisms into a wound
d. the introduction of organisms into a wound
One week following a routine mass removal from the ventral abdomen the patient developed severe abdominal pain. An abdominocentisis showed degenerate neutrophils and cocci bacteria, this would be an example of:
a. a superficial incisional surgical site infection
b. a deep incisional surgical site infection
c. organ or space surgical site infection
d. a complication
c. organ or space surgical site infection
Which of the following is false regarding Arthroscopy and Arthrotomy? (Basics of Joint Surgery-Tessa)
a.) Arthroscopy provides better visualization of the joint
b.) Arthrotomy is now considered the standard of care in the treatment of equine joint disease
c.) Arthroscopy is now considered the standard of care in the treatment of equine joint disease
d.) Arthrotomy is a surgical incision into a joint
b.) Arthrotomy is now considered the standard of care in the treatment of equine joint disease
Which one is characteristic of Hypertrophic Viable Nonunion?
a - One or both sides are poorly vascularized
b - Nonossified bridging callus
c - “Horse’s hoof” shaped callus
d - Commonly seen in distal radius/ulna fractures of toy breeds
b - Nonossified bridging callus
When looking at open wounds, tensile forces tearing tissue would cause which type of wound?
a. Incision
b. Avulsion
c. Laceration
d. none of the above
b. Avulsion
Which of the following is NOT true regarding cancer spread
a. Surgery can seed and spread the cancer
b. 75% of dogs (with osteosarcoma) that don’t have visible metastases in the lungs have micro metastases
c. Manipulating tumor causes cancer cells to enter circulation
d. None of the above.
b. 75% of dogs (with osteosarcoma) that don’t have visible metastases in the lungs have micro metastases
which of the following is NOT a monosynthetic?
a. Polydioxanone
b. Polyglycolic acid
c. Polyglyconate
d. Poliglecaprone 25
b. Polyglycolic acid
In small animals, an arched back is a sign of:
a.) front limb lameness
b.) hind limb lameness
c.) all of the above
d.) none of the above
b.) hind limb lameness
Which obstruction leads to intestinal wall thickening?
a. Hemorrhagic strangulating obstruction
b. Ischemic strangulating obstruction
c. Non strangulating infarction
d. All of the above cause intestinal wall thickening
a. Hemorrhagic strangulating obstruction
A semiocclusive Nonadherent bandage allows....
a. Air to penetrate and exudate to escape
b. Exudate to escape and prevents air from penetrating.
c. Air to penetrate and exudate to stay on the wound
d. Air to penetrate only
a. Air to penetrate and exudate to escape
Which association of fracture repair treatment (Large Animals) with overall goal is incorrect?
A. internal fixation plates - early return to total limb function and allows rapid bone union
B. external coaptation splint - allows little movement of the fracture
C. external skeletal fixation - allows adjustibility and good stabilization
D. interlocking intramedullary nails - provides axial alignment and is used mostly in lighter animals
E. All are true!
B. external coaptation splint - allows little movement of the fracture
Which of the following is false?
a. To test the femoral nerve, use the patellar reflex, which causes a contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the stifle.
b. To test the triceps reflex, tap and tendon and observe for extension of the elbow only.
c. The gastrocnemius reflex tests both the tibial and sciatic nerves, and causes both extension of the hock and contraction of the semimembranosus muscle.
d. All statements are true.
d. All statements are true
What statement about locking compression plates is false?
a. Locking compression plates protect local blood supply.
b. Angular stability of screws largely increases the area of resistance to bending load.
c. It is necessary to accurately contour plates to create friction between the plate and the bone
d. The fixed angle between screw and plate increases the pull out strength.
c. It is necessary to accurately contour plates to create friction between the plate and the bone
Which of the following are the 4 A's of Fracture Repair? (Introduction to fracture management in small animals, T-Money)
a.)alignment, apposition, anatomy, & activity
b.)alignment, apposition, apparatus, & activity
c.)axial compression, articular cartilage, activity level, & anatomical alignment
d.) arrangement, apposition, apparatus, & activity
b.)alignment, apposition, apparatus, & activity
What is the purpose of a wet - dry bandage?
a. Inhibit bacterial growth
b. Promote vascular growth
c. Absorption and debridement
d. Provide padding
c. Absorption and debridement
What size of drill bit do you need for a 2.7mm screw?
a. 1.0 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 2.7 mm
d. 3.0 mm
b. 2.0 mm (although you'd need a 2.7mm also if you were lagging...)
In what order are the following performed to place a lag screw?
a. drill, measure, screw, drill, counter sink, tap
b. drill,drill, counter sink, measure, tap, screw
c. screw, drill, measure, counter sink, tap, drill
d. measure, drill, screw, drill, tap,counter sink
b. drill,drill, counter sink, measure, tap, screw
What is a safe standard time and temperature for autoclaving?
a. 5 minutes, 250oF
b. 20 minutes, 120oC
c. 13 minutes, 120oC
d. 20 minutes, 120oF
c. 13 minutes, 120oC
What is the critical number of organisms for a surgical site to be considered contaminated
a. >10^7
b. >10^5
c. >7^5
d. >5^7
b. >10^5
What 2 layers encompass the Parker Kerr oversew?
a. Connell then Lembert
b. Cushing then Gambee
c. Cushing then Lembert
d. Cruciate then Lembert
c. Cushing then Lembert
Ideal lavage solutions are:
a. Sterile, hypertonic, normothermic
b. Sterile, isotonic, normothermic
c. Non-toxic
d. Sterile, hyperthermic, non-toxic, isotonic
e. a and c
f. b and c
f. b and c
Which of the following do you not want to treat with limb amputation?
a. None, it is always a good option if other treatments don’t work
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Malunion Fracture
d. Secondary Carcinoma
d. Secondary Carcinoma
Which of the following is NOT a non-absorbable monofilament?
a. Ethilon (Nylon)
b. Novafil (Polybutester)
c. Prolene (Polypropylene)
d. Supramid (Polymerized caprolactam)
d. Supramid (Polymerized caprolactam)
What is the average recovery time for tendinous repairs in SA?
a. 2-3 months
b. 1 month
c. 5 + months
d. 4-6 weeks
d. 4-6 weeks
Which of the following is NOT true in regard to the reparative phase of bone healing?
a. Begins 3 weeks post injury
b. Overlaps with the inflammatory phase
c. Overlaps with the remodeling phase
d. This stage is vulnerable to interfragmentary motion
a. Begins 3 weeks post injury
Which of the following is not an ancillary method to determine intestinal viability?
a. Hemorrhage from the enterotomy site
b. Dopplar ultrasound
c. Fluorescein dye
d. Luminal pressure
a. Hemorrhage from the enterotomy site
Which of these is not a suture pattern appropriate for tendons?
a. Locking loop
b. Warsaw
c. 3-loop pulley
d. Krackow
b. Warsaw (it's a town in Poland and a ska band)
What type of shock results form endotoxemia?
a. Hypovolemic/Hemorrhagic
b. Distributive/Vasogenic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Obstructive
b. Distributive/Vasogenic
Which of the following is false regarding intramedullary pins?
a. The pin diameter must be 70% of the medullary canal width
b. Intramedullary pin should never be used alone
c. Pins have adequate resistance to axial compression
d. Pins are resistance to bending in any direction
c. Pins have adequate resistance to axial compression
which student is demonstrating the fracture with the most compressive force? See student demo
a. Sami
b. Rachel
c. Caroline
d. Matt
c. Caroline (she was doing a self fist-bump if you remember...I doubt that she can do this now with all the melittin in her hand!)
At what spinal cord segments does the nerve required for the patellar reflex exit the spinal cord?
a. L4-L6
b. L4-L7
c. L3-L5
d. L5-L6
a. L4-L6
If you are doing a lameness exam on a horse and you notice he is lame on his right hind leg only when lounged in a circle, what grade of lameness do you assign him according to the AAEP grading scale?
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grade 4
b. Grade 2
Which is NOT one of the 3 phases of bone healing?
A. inflammatory phase
B. proliferative phase
C. remodeling phase
D. reparative phase
B. proliferative phase
Which is not a type of compression bone plate?
A. DCP: Dynamic Compression Plate
B: LC-DCP: Limited-Contact Dynamic Compression Plate
C. LCP: Locking Compression Plate
D. L-CCP: Limited-Cortical Compression Plate
D. L-CCP: Limited-Cortical Compression Plate
Which is an INCORRECT way to splint a large animal fracture?
A) Region 1 fracture with dorsal splint to carpus
B) Region 2 fracture with caudal & lateral splint to calcaneus
C) Region 3 fracture with caudal & lateral splint to shoulder
D) Region 4 fracture with no splint
C) Region 3 fracture with caudal & lateral splint to shoulder
Which is NOT a radiographic sign of nonunion
A) Fuzzy or wooly fracture line
B) Sclerosis at fracture ends
C) Absent callus
D) Medullary cavity sealed off
A) Fuzzy or wooly fracture line
Regarding strangulating obstructions in GI surgery of large animals, which of the following is false?
A. HSO results in venous occlusion but continued arterial flow to cause dark purple and thickened walls.
B. ISO results in arterial occlusion but continued venous flow to cause necrotic bowel walls while remaining thin.
C. NSI results in intravascular obstruction without intestinal incarceration.
D. Both B & C
E. None of the above are false.
B. ISO results in arterial occlusion but continued venous flow to cause necrotic bowel walls while remaining thin.
Which of the following nerves are anesthesized with a high 4-point block?
A. Palmar metacarpal nerves
B. Lateral palmer nerves
C. Medial branches of metacarpal nerves
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above.
D. Both A & B
The Hyperdynamic phase of circulatory shock correlates with which of the following:
a. Class I Blood Loss
b. Class II Blood Loss
c. Class III Blood Loss
d. Class IV Blood Loss
b. Class II Blood Loss
Which of the following is NOT a monofilament non-absorbable suture type?
a. Ethilon
b. Supramid
c. Prolene
d. Novafil
b. Supramid
Which of the following describes a clean-contaminated procedure?
a) Ovariohysterectomy
b) Splenectomy
c) Rumenotomy
d) A and B
e) All of the above
d) A and B
Regarding proper bandage placement, which one of the following is an incorrect statement?
a) All non weight bearing bandages risk nerve damage.
b) The joint above and below a fracture should always be stabilized.
c) The 90/90 Splint stabilizes all joints in the thoracic limb.
d) All bandages get e-collars.
e) Occlusive materials used in the primary layer include polyurethane film, hydrogel, and hydrocolloid.
c) The 90/90 Splint stabilizes all joints in the thoracic limb.
Which of the following is true when performing laparotomy closure?
A. Peritoneal layers must be included in the suturing to improve healing
B. Muscle is important to include in the sutures to be sure that dehiscence doesn’t occur
C. The external sheath of the rectus abdominis must always be included in suturing
D. The holding layer for suturing the abdomen is the rectus abdominis muscle
E. It is important to include fat in the closure of the linea alba to decrease dead space
C. The external sheath of the rectus abdominis must always be included in suturing
What do cancer patients need:
A. TLC = Tumor, Location, Condition
B. TLC = Thymus, Liver, Colon
C. TLC = Tender, Loving, Care
D. TLC = Time, Ligation, Cutting
A. TLC = Tumor, Location, Condition
Which of the following is false?
A. Delirium (alert, overactive, responds inappropriate to stimuli) usually indicates brainstem lesions
B. Depression (obtunded-inattentive, little spontaneous activity, drowsy) can be caused by systemic illness or brain disease.
C. Stupor (appears to be asleep but can be aroused by noxious stimuli) or coma (unconscious, can?t be aroused even with noxious stimuli) is commonly caused by a brain stem lesion or severe diffuse disease of the forebrain.
A. Delirium (alert, overactive, responds inappropriate to stimuli) usually indicates brainstem lesions
Choose the wrong answer in regard to full-thickness lesions: In the treatment of damaged articular cartilage lesions are debrided –
A. Until firmly attached cartilage is reached
B. Edges are debrided to be rounded
C. Subchondral bone is debrided to subchondral bone plate (remove calcified cartilage that impedes repair process)
D. Necrotic bone is debrided to healthy bleeding bone
B. Edges are debrided to be rounded
Active drains are classified as the following, except:
A. Application of negative pressure
B. Rigid tubes, fenestrated
C. Increased efficiency assisted by gravity
D. More difficult to maintain
C. Increased efficiency assisted by gravity
Which of the following is true regarding the ligasure device
A. Is a ligating clip applier used to rapidly occlude vessels and other tubular structures
B. Contains shears that allow you to cut in between coagulated tissue
C. Requires a grounding pad and adequate patient contact to prevent patient burns
D. Requires the surgeon to accurately judge tissue impedance to prevent extensive tissue damage
B. Contains shears that allow you to cut in between coagulated tissue
Which of the following is true of regarding the Gambee suture pattern?
A. It is an interrupted suture pattern that passes through the serosa, muscularis, and submucosa, but does not penetrate the intestinal lumen and therefore prevents wicking of the intestinal material
B. It is similar to the vertical mattress suture pattern in that it passes through the same layers as the vertical mattress does.
C. A continuous suture pattern used in a hollow viscus that is similar to the vertical mattress pattern
D. An interrupted suture pattern used to suture intestine that passes through the strongest layer of the intestine 4 times in total
D. An interrupted suture pattern used to suture intestine that passes through the strongest layer of the intestine 4 times in total
Which of the following is NOT an example of orthopedic postop care:
A. Recheck films at 8 wks
B. Long term NSAID therapy
C. Strict rest
D. Physical therapy
B. Long term NSAID therapy
With the 3 loop pulley:
a. each pass is 60° to the next
b. flat tendons are easier to repair
c. the pattern is near-far, middle, middle, far-near
d. it is easier to place than the locking loop
c. the pattern is near-far, middle, middle, far-near
Palliative treatments include all of the following except:
a. bisphosphonates
b. chemotherapy
c. opioids
d. NSAIDs
b. chemotherapy
Damage to the abducens n (CN VI) results in all of the following except
a. ventromedial strabismus
b. decreased physiologic nystagmus
c. reduced miosis
d. weakness of retractor bulbi m.
c. reduced miosis
What is the preferred suture material for laparotomy closure?
a. gut
b. poliglecaprone
c. polyglacton 910 (vicryl)
d. polydiozanone (PDS)
d. polydiozanone (PDS)
Name the INCORRECT association
a. Staphylococcus aureus on the skin of a dog
b. Steptococcus zooepidemicus on the skin of a cow
c. Staphylococcus aureus on the skin of a horse
d. Salmonella on the skin of reptiles
c. Staphylococcus aureus on the skin of a horse
Which is not a sign of front limb lameness?
a. rounded haunches
b. leaning back
c. bunny hop gait
d. head up when affected leg strikes the ground
c. bunny hop gait
What type of compression plate has threaded and nonthreaded portions in the holes?
a. limited contact dynamic compression plate (LC-DCP)
b. locking compression plate (LDP)
c. dynamic compression plates (DCP)
b. locking compression plate (LDP)
In this phase of bone healing the fracture is highly vulnerable to interfragmentary healing:
a. inflammatory phase
b. remodeling phase
c. swelling phase
d. reparative phase
d. reparative phase
Which fluid should be used to lavage a drain
a. hypertonic saline
b. lactated ringer’s solution
c. mannitol
d. dextran
b. lactated ringer’s solution
Which is NOT one of the 4 A’s of fracture repair
a. apposition
b. apparatus
c. alignment
d. activity
e. assessment
e. assessment
Which is NOT a bone screw used in orthopedic surgery?
a. cancellous screw
b. cerclage screw
c. cortical screw
d. cannulated screw
e. locking screw
b. cerclage screw
On which of the following should you not to do preoperative biopsy?
a. unknown skin mass
b. testicular mass
c. liver mass
d. bone mass
e. none of the above, you should do a biopsy on all of those listed above
b. testicular mass
What is the most common/appropriate abdominal incision approach for a C-section in cattle?
a. left paralumbar fossa
b. right paralumbar fossa
c. ventral midline
d. caudal paramedian
a. left paralumbar fossa
On the AAEP grading scale: lameness consistently observable at trot under all circumstances is
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grade 4
e. Grade 5
c. Grade 3
What is the timeline that causes irreversible damage intestinal mucosa?
a. 30-60 minutes
b. 3-4 hours
c. 6-8 hours
d. 12-15 hours
no answer...go look it up!
Which of these are NOT true regarding synovectomy? (basics of joint surgery lec. 5.13.11-slide 13
a. it assists with visualization
b. it helps with treatment of septic arthritis
c. it augments treatment of chronic osteoarthritis
d. it controls rheumatoid arthritis in equines
d. it controls rheumatoid arthritis in equines
Tension pneumothroax and pulmonary embolization are categorized under what category of shock? (shock and fluid therapy-4.13.11-slide 6)
a. distributive
b. obstructive
c. hypovolemic
d. cardiogenic
b. obstructive
What is a characteristic of a Grade II open fracture?
a. prognosis is usually good
b. may require reconstructive surgery
c. no loss of soft tissue or bone
d. the cause of communication is the bone penetrating the skin
c. no loss of soft tissue or bone