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167 Cards in this Set

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A ferret demonstrating lethargy, ataxia, sialosis is most likely to have:
Answer
A. Insulinoma
B. Encephalitis
C. Rabies
D. Distemper
A. Insulinoma
If a female ferret is not intended for breeding an ovariohysterectomy should be performed by eight months, prior to her first estrus to prevent what condition?
Answer
A. Uterine adenocarcinoma
B. Ovarian carcinoma
C. Pubic symphysis fusion
D. Prolonged estrus
D. Prolonged estrus
The most common cause of sudden rear end paresis or paralysis in sugar gliders is:
Answer
A. Neoplasia of the brainstem
B. Spinal trauma, sometimes due to osteodystrophy
C. Polioencephalomalacia
D. Being dropped after biting the veterinarian’s hand
B. Spinal trauma, sometimes due to osteodystrophy
Gestation in a ferret is:
Answer
A. 63 days
B. 42 days
C. 21 days
D. 31 days
B. 42 days
A ferret with multiple large palpable abdominal masses probably has:
Answer
A. Hepatic carcinoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Insulinoma
D. Splenic hemangiosarcoma
B. Lymphoma
Hedgehog behavior and diet are best described as:
Answer
A. Shy insectivores willing to eat some plant material
B. Flighty fast-moving carnivores
C. Aggressive omnivorous burrowing animals
D. Friendly grazing herbivores
A. Shy insectivores willing to eat some plant material
Ferrets should be vaccinated for which of the following diseases?
Answer
A. Feline leukemia and Herpesvirus
B. Canine distemper and Rabies
C. Feline distemper and Rabies
D. Parvovirus and Distemper
B. Canine distemper and Rabies
What are female and male ferrets called?
Answer
A. Jills and Hobs
B. Jills and Jacks
C. Hinnys and Bucks
D. Does and Bucks
A. Jills and Hobs
Reproductively ferrets are:
Answer
A. Induced ovulators
B. Breed all year long
C. Seasonal breeders
D. Breeding is violent
E. A, C & D
E. A, C & D
Gastrointestinal disease in ferrets is:
Answer
A. Commonly seen
B. May be caused by viral agents, e.g. ECE virus
C. Can be associated with bacterial overgrowth & diarrhea
D. Can induce gastric ulcers, such as with foreign bodies, Helicobacter, IBD
E. May induce serum elevations of (gastric) lipase and globulin
F. All of the above
F. All of the above
Male mice have five pair of nipples that are present by about eight days of life.
Answer
A. True
B. False
B. False
A litter of recently weaned hamsters are presented with diarrhea, perineal staining, dehydration, and lethargy. What is the number one differential diagnosis?
Answer
A. Proliferative Ileitis
B. Wasting Syndrome
C. Giardiasis
D. Epizootic Viral Diarrhea of Infants
E. Malocclusion
A. Proliferative Ileitis
Ferret upper respiratory infections commonly are caused by:
Answer
A. Canine distemper
B. Calicivirus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Human flu virus
E. Aleutian disease virus
D. Human flu virus
Which of the following best characterizes the pet ferret?
Answer
A. Carnivore with a simple gut and 6-8 year lifespan
B. California state animal
C. Omnivore with aggressive personalities
D. Desert animals with a preference for high temperatures
A. Carnivore with a simple gut and 6-8 year lifespan
Hedgehogs are particularly prone to which ailments:
Answer
A. Obesity and neoplasia
B. Renal disease and cataracts
C. Immune mediated dermatopathies and lung disease
D. B and C
A. Obesity and neoplasia
A five-year old spayed female ferret with swollen vulva and alopecia likely has:
Answer
A. Female pattern baldness
B. Adrenal neoplasia
C. Insulinoma
D. Lymphoma
E. Ovarian remnant missed at time of spay
B. Adrenal neoplasia
Hepatitis in ferrets may be characterized as:
Answer
A. Having two common forms, suppurative & lymphocytic
B. Usually related to ongoing gastroenteritis
C. Often produces elevations in serum ALT & GGT
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Sugar gliders are best characterized by the following statement(s):
Answer
A. They are sociable and mellow, with outgoing calm dispositions.
B. Gliders are Australian marsupials with gliding membranes similar to those of flying squirrels.
C. They are somewhat omnivorous, but tend to be preferential carnivores (insectivores) when they have a choice.
D. All of the above
E. B and C
E. B and C
Rat and mouse pups are fully furred by what age?
Answer
A. At birth
B. 3-5 days
C. 12-14 days
D. Not before 17-18 days
C. 12-14 days
What is a frequent sequela of chronic enteritis in NHPs?
Answer
A. Peritonitis
B. Neoplasia
C. Cecal rupture
D. Amyloidosis
D. Amyloidosis
Which of the following species has a menstrual cycle?
Answer
A. Cynomolgus macaques
B. Owl monkeys
C. Marmosets
D. Squirrel monkeys
A. Cynomolgus macaques
What are the common causative agents of tuberculosis in NHPs?
Answer
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis
B. Mycobacterium leprae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium avium
D. Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium bovis
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis
In the state of Oregon, when was the cut-off date for new applications for exotic pet ownership of NHPs?
Answer
A. January 1, 2002
B. January 1, 2010
C. January 1, 2007
D. January 1, 1992
E. New applications are still being accepted.
B. January 1, 2010
Self-injurious behavior (SIB) is a complex condition which is believed to have a multifactorial etiology. Which of the following have NOT been correlated with increased risk of this behavior?
Answer
A. Rearing in social isolation
B. Frequency of clinical and behavioral procedures
C. Frequency of relocation (cage changing)
D. Amount of time in single housing
E. All of these may increase the risk of SIB
E. All of these may increase the risk of SIB
Which of the following is the most frequent cause of death in chimpanzees?
Answer
A. Neoplasia
B. Renal failure
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Cardiac disease
D. Cardiac disease
Which group of NHPs have estrous cycles?
Answer
A. Great Apes
B. Old World Primates
C. Lesser Apes
D. New World Primates
D. New World Primates
Which bacterium requires incubation at 42 degrees C and a 5-10% CO2 level for optimal growth in culture?
Answer
A. Yersinia
B. Salmonella
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Campylobacter
D. Campylobacter
(note - Yersinia likes it COLD)
What is a significant clinical concern in patients with rhabdomyolysis?
Answer
A. Thrombosis
B. Life threatening arrhythmias
C. Ascites
D. Renal failure
D. Renal failure
Which of the following are common opportunistic infections associated with retrovirus infection?
Answer
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Pneumocystosis
C. Shigellosis
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
E. A and B only
Which of the following species is nocturnal?
Answer
A. Tamarins
B. Owl monkeys
C. African greens
D. Rhesus macaques
B. Owl monkeys
Koplick’s spots are associated with which infection?
Answer
A. Chickenpox
B. Simian Immunodeficiency Virus
C. Measles
D. Monkeypox
C. Measles
The Rule of Nines is a tool for quantitating the severity of two different conditions. Which conditions are these?
Answer
A. Diarrhea and Alopecia
B. Dehydration and Rhabdomyolysis
C. Dehydration and Diarrhea
D. Rhabdomyolysis and Alopecia
D. Rhabdomyolysis and Alopecia
What is a risk factor for developing endometriosis?
Answer
A. Prior abdominal surgery
B. Prior pregnancy
C. Prior spontaneous abortion
D. Listeriosis
A. Prior abdominal surgery
Tularemia is a significant zoonotic concern for NHPs. What is the causative agent?
Answer
A. Mycobacterium tulare
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Herpesvirus tularis
D. Francisella tularensis
D. Francisella tularensis
New World Primates have a dietary requirement for which vitamin?
Answer
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin D2
C. Vitamin D3
D. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin D3
Vitamin C deficiency results in which of the following:
Answer
A. Hypertension
B. Fibrous osteodystrophy
C. Defects in collagen synthesis
D. Clotting deficiencies
C. Defects in collagen synthesis
What is the most likely causative agent for a macaque with severe gingivitis?
Answer
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella
D. Shigella
What predisposing factors are associated with the development of reactive arthritis?
Answer
A. Aging
B. Trauma
C. Fed a high protein diet during rapid growth stages
D. Recent enteric or urogenital bacterial infection
D. Recent enteric or urogenital bacterial infection
Macaques are host to which virus that poses a significant zoonotic concern for humans?
Answer
A. Herpesvirus tamarinus
B. Macacine herpesvirus B
C. Herpes simplex 2
D. Hepatitis B
B. Macacine herpesvirus B (Macacine herpesvirus 1)
What is the goal of Environmental Enrichment for NHPs?
Answer
A. Decrease boredom
B. Promote species typical behavior
C. Improve dexterity
D. Redirect undesirable behaviors
B. Promote species typical behavior (this is the BEST answer but it does decrease boredom and redirect undesirable behaviors)
What is the treatment of choice for tuberculosis in NHPs?
Answer
A. Treatment is not recommended for NHPs
B. Isoniazid
C. Penicillin
D. Rifampin
A. Treatment is not recommended for NHPs (euthanize)
Name the type of herpesvirus that causes only mild disease in the natural host, but severe disease in aberrant hosts.
Answer
A. Deltaherpesviruses
B. Betaherpesviruses
C. Alphaherpesviruses
D. Gammaherpesviruses
C. Alphaherpesviruses (Saimirine herpesvirus 1 is naturally in squirrel monkeys but fatal to owl monkeys and tamarins)
What is the most common type of neoplasm in aging macaques?
Answer
A. Intestinal adenocarcinoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
A. Intestinal adenocarcinoma
Syphacia obvelata and Syphacia muris do NOT typically infect:
A Gerbils
B Humans
C Rats
D Mice
E Hamsters
B Humans
What should be done for mice that barber severely?
A. Change light cycle
B. Change diet
C. Treat with ivermectin
D. Treat with TMS
E. Separate them
E. Separate them
Benign fibroadenoma mammary gland tumors occur commonly in what species?
A. Rats
B. Hamsters
C. Guinea pigs
D. Beavers
E. Gerbils
A. Rats
Like elephants, deer, and horses, rats do not have:
A. Pineal glands
B. Gall bladders
C. Adrenal glands
D. Tricuspid valves
E. Preputial glands
B. Gall bladders
A newly weaned rat is losing weight and failing to thrive. What is the first rule out?
A. Malabsorption syndrome
B. Incisor malocclusion
C. Antibiotic induced enteritis
D. Weaning depression
E. Maternal overgrooming
B. Incisor malocclusion
How can gerbil epileptic seizures be eliminated?
A. Shorten diurnal cycle
B. Seizrues persist for the gerbils’ life
C. Circl of willis ligation
D. Penicillin
E. Increase cage size and exercise
B. Seizrues persist for the gerbils’ life
The Harderian gland secretes porpyrin that contributes to what condition in rats?
A. Amyloidosis
B. Otitis
C. Gingivitis
D. Glaucoma
E. Chromodacryorrhea
E. Chromodacryorrhea
Proper restraint of rodent patients is important to:
A. Prevent injury to the animal
B. Prevent additional stress to the animal
C. Prevent handler injury
D. Assist the veterinarian in making an accurate diagnosis
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Rat and mouse pups are fully furred by what age?
A. At birth
B. 3-5 days
C. 12-14 days
D. Not before 18 days
C. 12-14 days
What is the average gestation length for a female hamster?
A. 15-17 days
B. 21-23 days
C. 28-30 days
D. 31-33 days
A. 15-17 days
Gerbils are monogamous and pair for life.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Male mice have five pair of nipples that are present by about eight days of life.
A. True
B. False
B. False
What is the expected life span of a gerbil?
A. 14-18 months
B. 18 months to 2 years
C. 3-4 years
D. 5-6 years
C. 3-4 years
A Sprague-Dawley rat has an ulcerated growth on the side of its face. The owners keep the area clean and dry and treat it with antibiotic ointment but it does not heal. What is your primary differential diagnosis?
A. Zymbal’s gland tumor
B. Demodectric mange
C. Tooth root abscess
D. Cheek pouch impaction with rupture and secondary infection
E. Staphylococcus dermatitis
A. Zymbal’s gland tumor
What is true of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis Virus (LCMV)?
A. Often causes severe disease in hamsters
B. Can cause illness in humans
C. Typically causes severe disease in rats
D. Mice do not carry or transmit LCMV
B. Can cause illness in humans
Which rodent is NOT primarily nocturnal?
A. Mice
B. Gerbils
C. Rats
D. All of the above are primarily nocturnal
E. Hamsters
B. Gerbils
A litter of recently weaned hamsters are presented with diarrhea, perineal staining, dehydration, and lethargy. What is the number one differential diagnosis?
A. Giardiasis
B. Wasting syndrome
C. Proliferative ileitis
D. Malocclusion
E. Epizootic viral Diarrhea of Infacts
C. Proliferative ileitis
What is the SECOND largest rodent?
A. Rabbit
B. Beaver
C. Nutria
D. Capybara
E. Muskrat
B. Beaver
Rodent caging should:
A. Be made of reinforced cardboard to facilitate sanitation by inexpensive cage replacement
B. Provide minimal toys and no hideouts that obstruct visualization of the animal
C. Be large enough to provide species specific behavior, movement and postural adjustments
D. Be as small as possible to make it easier to catch the animal and minimize odor and allergens
E. Be made of a rough material that provides a scratching surface for the animal’s claws
C. Be large enough to provide species specific behavior, movement and postural adjustments
In which species are intramuscular injections advised?
A. Mice
B. Rats
C. Gerbils
D. Hamsters
E. None of the above
E. None of the above
What is NOT true of rodents?
A. Predominantly gram-negative gut flora
B. Hindgut fermenters
C. Exhibit coprophagy
D. Largest order of mammals
A. Predominantly gram-negative gut flora
Which adult rodent can be restrained briefly by lifting it mid-tail?
A. Hamster
B. Gerbil
C. Rat
D. Mouse
D. Mouse
Which site would be best for blood collection from an awake sea otter?
Answer
A. Femoral vein
B. Lumbar sinus plexus
C. Jugular vein
D. Between the chevron bone
A. Femoral vein
(Plexus is for harbor seal, use the jug in a sedate otter, and chevron bones are in dinosaurids)
T or F:
Orcas are a type of dolphin.
True! It is in order delphinidae!
Morbillivirus is most closely related to which of the following?
Answer
A. Seal pox
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Avian influenza
D. Canine distemper
D. Canine distemper
What is the scientific name of the Hawaiian Spinner Dolphin?
Answer
A. Stenella longirostris
B. Odobenus rosmarus
C. Tursiops truncatus
D. Megaptera novaeangliae
A. Stenella longirostris
Which of the following has baleen?
Answer
A. Gray whale
B. Walrus
C. Killer whale
D. Sea otter
A. Gray whale
Which would be expected to have the least blubber with a normal health status?

Answer
A. Gray Whale
B. Sea Lion
C. Sea Otter
D. Polar Bear
C. Sea Otter (this is a crap-tastic question as otters and bears technically don't have blubber!!!)
T or F:
Black colored teeth in sea lions is normal.
True
Marine mammals under anesthesia have a significant respiratory related difference, what is it?

Answer
A. Apnea and thus high blood oxygen saturation
B. Apnea and thus low blood oxygen saturation
C. Hyperventilation and thus low blood oxygen saturation
D. Hyperventilation and thus high blood oxygen saturation
B. Apnea and thus low blood oxygen saturation
Which of the following is NOT a measure used when studying cetacean movement patterns?
Answer
A. Reorientation rate
B. Linearity index
C. Mean leg speed
D. Coefficient of association
D. Coefficient of association
T or F:
The primary difference between dolphins and porpoises is their teeth.
False!
While this is a significant difference, I guess the main difference is in their rostral length.
T or F:
The trachea is the only aspect of the respiratory system in marine mammals that has cartilage.
False-o-rino!
Which animal is a hind gut digester similar to horses and elephants?
Answer
A. Sea otter
B. Killer whale
C. California Sea Lion
D. Manatee
D. Manatee
T or F:
Odontecetes ingest plankton as their main source of protein.
False! This describes the baleen whales
Which is true of the Marine Mammal Protection Act?
Answer
A. It is illegal to 'take' any marine mammal.

B. 'Take' means 'to harass, attempt to harass, capture or kill any marine mammal'.
C. Level A Harassment is 'any act of pursuit, torment or annoyance that has the potential to injure a marine mammal or marine mammal stock in the wild'.
D. Level B Harassment is 'any act of pursuit, torment or annoyance which has the potential to disturb a marine mammal or marine mammal population in the wild by causing disruption of behavioral pattern...'.
E. All of these statements are true.
E. All of these statements are true.
T or F:
The baleen cetaceans have six compartments in their GI tracts.
False!
Which zoonotic disease is most prevalent among California sea lions along the Pacific coast?
Answer
A. Rabies
B. Brucellosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Q Fever
C. Leptospirosis
What is an example of a phocid?
Answer
A. Harbor Seal
B. Whale
C. Tiger Shark
D. Orca
A. Harbor Seal
A guinea pig with cervical swellings is likely to have _________ caused by _________.
Answer
A. lymphadenitis, Streptococcus zooepidemicus
B. abscesses, Bordetella bronchiseptica
C. leukemia, cytomegalovirus
D. scurvy, vitamin C deficiency
A. lymphadenitis, Streptococcus zooepidemicus
The correct length of tubing to insert for oral gavage in a rabbit is measured from:
Answer
A. Incisors to end of sternum (manubrium)
B. Front of jaw to first lumbar vertebra
C. Nares to elbow, with the rabbit in ventral recumbency
D. Opening of mouth to last rib
D. Opening of mouth to last rib
What are appropriate blood draw sites for guinea pigs?
Answer
A. Lateral saphenous vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Auricular vein or artery
E. Only A, C, and D
E. Only A, C, and D
Signs of enteric pain in chinchillas include:
Answer
A. frequent defecation
B. lacrimation and/or salivation
C. stretching postures
D. pawing at the abdomen
C. stretching postures
Fur-slip is a defense against predators in which species?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
C. Chinchillas
Nonhuman Primate Review Question: New World and Old World Primates have a dietary requirement for Vitamin ____. New World Primates also have a dietary requirement for Vitamin ____.
Answer
A. B6, C
B. B12, D3
C. C, D2
D. D2, C
E. C, D3
E. C, D3
Guinea pig sows should generally be bred by ___ months of age because after this time, ____ may occur.
Answer
A. 9, ovarian cysts
B. 8, myometrial regression
C. 7, rejection of boars
D. 6, pubic symphysis fusion
E. None of the above
D. 6, pubic symphysis fusion
Antibiotics are used cautiously in the guinea pig because the _______ gut flora may be killed off, resulting in__________.
A. gram-positive, enterocolitis
B. gram-negative, sepsis
C. protective, fungal overgrowth
D. enteric, intestinal stasis
A. gram-positive, enterocolitis
Cecotrophy helps lagomorphs recover nutrients produced in the hind-gut, including:
A. B vitamins
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin C
D. Omega fatty-acids
A. B vitamins
Which species nurse their offspring just once daily?
A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
A. Rabbit
Which species does not have foot-pads?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
A. Rabbits
Which species is a spontaneous ovulator?
A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. A and B
E. B and C
E. B and C
Use a dust bath to maintain coat cleanliness is important in which species?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
C. Chinchillas
Torticollis in rabbits is often caused by _________, while the same condition in guinea pigs is most often due to ___________.
A. Bordetella bronchiseptica, Staphyloccus aureus
B. Psoroptes cuniculi, Streptococcus zooepidemicus
C. Pasteurella multocida, Bordetella bronchiseptica
D. Bordetella bronchiseptica, Chirodiscoides cavii
C. Pasteurella multocida, Bordetella bronchiseptica
What are appropriate blood draw sites for chinchillas?
A. Lateral saphenous vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Auricular vein or artery
E. Only A and C
E. Only A and C
Which species has precocial young?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. Only B and C
E. Only B and C
Fracture or subluxation of a rabbit spine most often occurs at which vertebral site?
A. L7
B. L2
C. C6
D. CY6
A. L7
Which species does not have foot-pads?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
A. Rabbits
Which species has two uterine horns, each with its own cervix?
A. Guinea pigs
B. All of these species
C. None of these species
D. Rabbit
E. Chinchillas
D. Rabbit
Which species is a spontaneous ovulator?
A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. A and B
E. B and C
E. B and C
Signs of malocclusion in chinchillas include:
A. Slobbers
B. Lacrimation
C. Otic discharge
D. A and B
E. A and C
D. A and B
Use a dust bath to maintain coat cleanliness is important in which species?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
C. Chinchillas
Kurloff cells are unusual _________ found in _________, which increase in number during _______.
A. mononuclear leukocytes, guinea pigs, pregnancy
B. pseudoeosinophils, rabbits, allergic reaction
C. basophils, hystricomorph rodents, stress
D. neutrophils, chinchillas, infection
A. mononuclear leukocytes, guinea pigs, pregnancy
Torticollis in rabbits is often caused by _________, while the same condition in guinea pigs is most often due to ___________.
A. Bordetella bronchiseptica, Staphyloccus aureus
B. Psoroptes cuniculi, Streptococcus zooepidemicus
C. Pasteurella multocida, Bordetella bronchiseptica
D. Bordetella bronchiseptica, Chirodiscoides cavii
C. Pasteurella multocida, Bordetella bronchiseptica
What are appropriate blood draw sites for chinchillas?
A. Lateral saphenous vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Auricular vein or artery
E. Only A and C
E. Only A and C
Which species has precocial young?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. Only B and C
E. Only B and C
Fracture or subluxation of a rabbit spine most often occurs at which vertebral site?
A. L7
B. L2
C. C6
D. CY6
A. L7
Which species has two uterine horns, each with its own cervix?
A. Guinea pigs
B. All of these species
C. None of these species
D. Rabbit
E. Chinchillas
D. Rabbit
Signs of malocclusion in chinchillas include:
A. Slobbers
B. Lacrimation
C. Otic discharge
D. A and B
E. A and C
D. A and B
Kurloff cells are unusual _________ found in _________, which increase in number during _______.
A. mononuclear leukocytes, guinea pigs, pregnancy
B. pseudoeosinophils, rabbits, allergic reaction
C. basophils, hystricomorph rodents, stress
D. neutrophils, chinchillas, infection
A. mononuclear leukocytes, guinea pigs, pregnancy
What are appropriate blood draw sites for rabbits?
A. Lateral saphenous vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Auricular vein or artery
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which species is cecotrophic?
A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
D. All of these species
Which rodent is NOT primarily nocturnal?
A. Gerbils
B. Rats
C. Hamsters
D. All of the above are primarily nocturnal
E. Mice
A. Gerbils
A ferret showing signs of lethargy, ataxia, sialosis is most likely to have:
A. Brain tumor
B. Encephalitis
C. Rabies
D. Insulinoma
E. Distemper
D. Insulinoma
What is the most common cause of rabbit snuffles?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Aeromonas pneumophila
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
C. Pasteurella multocida
The female is called a doe and male a buck in which species?
A. Rabbit
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
A. Rabbit
Hallmarks of pregnancy toxemia in guinea pigs include:
A. ketonuria and hypoglycemia
B. anorexia and hemorrhagic mucous membranes
C. low urine pH and rapid weight loss
D. leukopenia and hypothermia
A. ketonuria and hypoglycemia
A condition seen in older unspayed does is:
A. Continuous estrus
B. Uterine adenocarcinoma
C. Endometriosis
D. Hormonal alopecia
B. Uterine adenocarcinoma
A zoonotic cause of hair loss in guinea pigs may be:
A. Gliricola porcelli
B. Tricophyton mentagrophytes
C. Trixacarus caviae
D. A and B
E. B and C
E. B and C
Which species is susceptible to penis obstruction from a fur ring?
A. Rabbits
B. Guinea pigs
C. Chinchillas
D. All of these species
E. None of these species
C. Chinchillas
What factors can induce cannibalism–like behavior in a flock of backyard chickens?
A. Bright lights
B. Inadequate feed and water space
C. Injuries and external parasites
D. Too many roosters
E. Not enough fiber in the diet
F. Introducing new birds during the daytime
G. All of these
H. Cannibalism is not a concern in chickens housed outdoors.
G. All of these
What is the characteristic gross lesion in young chicks and poults with Vitamin E deficiency?
A. Feather loss
B. Swollen and hemorrhagic cerebellum
C. Circling
D. Sudden drop in egg production
E. Star gazing
B. Swollen and hemorrhagic cerebellum
What is the purpose of feeding a “medicated” chick starter to chicks?
A. It contains Amprolium, which is a Coccidiostat that helps control and prevents clinical signs due to Coccidiosis.
B. It contains probiotics for improved digestion during early growth.
C. It contains high levels of calcium for stronger bones and egg production.
D. It contains high levels of Vitamin E for improved feather growth.
A. It contains Amprolium, which is a Coccidiostat that helps control and prevents clinical signs due to Coccidiosis.
What clinical/gross lesions would you expect to see if you suspected either END or AI, high path?
A. Sudden increase in mortality
B. Sudden drop in egg production (if in production)
C. Acute respiratory/CNS signs
D. Severe depression
E. Hemorrhagic lesions (esophagus, intestines) on post mortem
F. All of the above
G. Only A, C, and D
H. Only B, D, and E
F. All of the above
At what age should you vaccinate chickens for Marek’s Disease?
A. One day of age
B. One week of age
C. In-ovo, at 18 days incubation
D. A and C
E. B and C
F. None of these
D. A and C
What recommendations would you provide to a client interested in raising baby chicks for backyard production?
A. Appropriate Temperature: 1. 95 – 100 F underneath heat source (light bulb, infra red light 2. Room available for chicks to move away from the heat
B. Medicated Feed: 1. Amprolium for Cocci control 2. Fresh feed daily 3. Place feed near and away from heat source 4. Provide enough space so that all chicks can eat
C. Water: 1. Fresh water daily 2. Room temperature at day one 3. Place between warm and cool area of brooding space 4. Provide enough space so that all chicks can drink
D. Litter/Floor Covering: 1. Straw of soft wood shavings 2. Keep dry, remove any “caking” material 3. Avoid using a smooth surface to brood chicks on
E. Ventilation: 1. Avoid drafts
F. All of the above
G. Only A, C, and E
H. Only A, C, and D
F. All of the above
What are important lesions of Avian Colibacilloisis (CRD)?
A. Perihepatitis
B. Pericarditis
C. Airsacculitis
D. A, B, and C
E. A and B
F. B and C
D. A, B, and C
What is the most important means of spreading Marek’s disease virus?
A. Cannibalism
B. Feces
C. Nasal exudates
D. Feather dander
E. B and C
F. B and D
D. Feather dander
What is Bacillary White Diarrhea?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Cryptococcus gattii
D. Salmonella enteriditis
E. Salmonella pullorum
E. Salmonella pullorum
Where would you look to find Dermanyssus gallinae in a chicken flock?
A. On the birds at night.
B. In cracks in the floor/walls and in between support posts and roosts during the day.
C. On the barn cats.
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
D. A and B
The following reptile groups have two hemipenes instead of one penis:
A. Turtles & Lizards
B. Snakes & Turtles
C. Snakes only
D. Snakes & Lizards
D. Snakes & Lizards
Treatment of shell infections in turtles often requires:
A. Systemic and topical antibiotics
B. Keeping the shell clean and dry, even in semiaquatic species
C. Cool temperatures to avoid burns on the damaged shell
D. Debridement of necrotic tissue on the shell surface
E. A, B & D
E. A, B & D
Adult amphibians tend to prefer moist conditions and moderate temperatures.
A. False
B. True
B. True
Reptile vitamin and mineral supplements such as powders are generally:
A. A good idea and should be used liberally
B. Sometimes toxic due to poor formulations
C. Easily overdosed and must always be used with caution
D. Often unnecessary if the overall diet is well balanced
E. B, C, and D
E. B, C, and D
Fungal infections in amphibians are generally:
A. Hallucinogenic and often result in the animal's death from owners licking the pet excessively
B. Highly virulent diseases obtained via cohabitation with reptiles
C. Extremely rare
D. Not dangerous and often impart a unique and pleasing appearance to the pet
E. Opportunistic infections which are often difficult to cure
E. Opportunistic infections which are often difficult to cure
(although I wish it was A....)
Bacterial infections in reptiles and amphibians are:
A. Usually caused by normal flora living in the gut, mouth, or on the skin.
B. Mostly opportunistic infections taking advantage of stressed or weakened individuals.
C. Sometimes caused by physical wounds.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Osteodystrophy (rickets) in amphibians is usually a result of:
A. Low UV levels resulting in low Vitamin D3 levels
B. Feeding commercial pellets without enough powdered supplement
C. Too little calcium in the diet and/or too much phosphorous intake
D. Too little phosphorous in the diet
C. Too little calcium in the diet and/or too much phosphorous intake
Good dietary items for carnivorous amphibians and lizards might include:
A. Mealworms, waxworms, and raw meat
B. Gut loaded crickets, earthworms, and slugs
C. Small rodents or whole fish
D. B & C
D. B & C
Thermal burns in reptiles are usually caused by:
A. The animal sitting too close to (or against) a direct heat source
B. Heat seeking behaviors that may be increased due to cool cage conditions
C. Bathing the pet in excessively hot water
D. A & B
D. A & B
A preoperative surgical prep in an amphibian might include:
A. Apply 70% alcohol and briefly ignite with electrocautery device to sterilize the epithelial surface
B. Scrub off loose skin with wire brush and disinfect with dilute formalin
C. Thorough lavage with sterile water
D. Thorough scrub with dilute antibiotic solution
E. Clip and scrub with Betadine or Chlorhexidene
C. Thorough lavage with sterile water
Heating a reptile or amphibian habitat properly often requires:
A. Accurate thermometer readings in multiple locations in cage
B. Temperature readings taken in the “shade” away from the heat source
C. A mostly solid enclosed cage if the habitat temperature needs to be well above the room temperature
D. All of the above
E. A and C
D. All of the above
Which statement is true regarding the amphibians' life cycle?
A. Amphibians hatch from ova laid underground, but adults live above ground.
B. Amphibian larvae are gilled and live in water, but adults always develop lungs and live on land.
C. Amphibian larvae are all gilled and aquatic; most, but not all, adults are land or soil dwellers with lungs.
D. Amphibian ova are laid in water.
E. C & D
E. C & D
The following statement(s) are true of ascites/edema/anasarca in amphibians:
A. Caused by renal disease
B. Caused by cardiac disease
C. Caused by dermatologic disease
D. Caused by hypoproteinemia
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
The most common zoonotic infection of concern in reptiles is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Mycoplasma
D. Mycobacteria
B. Salmonella
T or F:
Being avid sunlight baskers, amphibians have developed tough skin and require strong UV light sources to thrive.
False-o-rino!
What is the cause of most disease in captive reptiles?
A. Predator-prey problems
B. Age related decline in organ function
C. Highly contagious viral infections
D. Husbandry problems such as poor diet or improper housing
D. Husbandry problems such as poor diet or improper housing
Coeliotomy incisions in snakes & lizards usually require:
A. An off-midline incision to avoid the ventral median vein beneath the skin
B. An everting closure pattern to allow proper wound healing
C. An inverting closure pattern to prevent scales from getting torn loose
D. A & B
E. A & C
D. A & B
A 6-week-old cockatiel, of unknown sex, is presented by an owner who is finishing out the final stage of hand-feeding of this chick. The presenting complaint is failure to gain weight, slow emptying of the crop and recent regurgitation of hand-feeding formula. Physical examination reveals a dehydrated, thin chick with a doughy crop on palpation. A red rubber feeding tube is passed into the crop and a saline crop wash/aspiration is performed. Numerous ovoid, budding structures, larger than bacteria, but smaller than the smallest coccidian oocyst, are seen on the direct wet mount. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Macrorhabdosis
D. Chlamydophilosis
B. Candidiasis
A one-year-old lutino cockatiel is presented for feather picking. Observation reveals an irritable, apparently pruritic bird constantly “picking” at the wingwebs and dorsal back. Physical examination reveals sparse feathering over the dorsal back and flanks, with generalized flaky, dry skin. Voluminous, grey, “cow-pie” droppings are also noted. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate diagnostic test associated with that diagnosis?
A. Bacterial pyoderma and skin impression smear
B. Giardiasis and fresh, direct fecal wet mount
C. Knemidocoptic mange and skin scraping
B. Giardiasis and fresh, direct fecal wet mount
What problem affects small adult female psittacine and passerine birds if their diets are deficient in calcium?
A. Gout
B. Infertility
C. Egg binding
D. Fatty liver
C. Egg binding
A wizard turns you into a Killer Whale. You are now the largest member of what scientific family?
A. Orcinidea
B. Delphinidea
C. Mysticeti
D. Odontoceti
B. Delphinidea
A 3-year-old female peachface lovebird was presented for feather problems. The bird’s mate also had feather problems and died 2 months ago. The owner thought the female’s feather problems were due to the male picking on her, but the problem continued and worsened even after the male’s death. Physical exam revealed widespread severe feather loss, with feather loss involving the head and down the back of the neck, as well as loss of the body contour feathers. The tail and wing primary feathers were sparse; those present were short and clubbed, with retained keratin sheaths or the shafts are pinched circumferentially. The beak is overgrown with several chips and fissures present at the tip. What is the most likely cause for this bird’s feather problems?
A. Psittacine circovirus infection
B. Avian polyomavirus infection
C. Avian dermatophyte infection
D. Self inflicted
A. Psittacine circovirus infection (beak and feather dz)
A 10-month-old Scarlet macaw is presented for lethargy and regurgitation. The bird seemed to be able to keep down soft foods, like bread and cooked vegetables, but regurgitated seeds and uncooked pasta. The owner also mentioned that the bird seemed quite clumsy, having difficulty remaining perched and having difficulty hanging onto the bars of its cage. Physical exam reveals a thin bird with a subjectively decreased grip strength in the right foot and mild ataxia. The CBC and serum chemistries were within normal limits. Whole body radiographs revealed a large soft tissue density in the cranial left abdomen; oral barium contrast outlined the density to be the stomach. What is the most likely presumptive diagnosis?
A. Mycobacteriosis
B. Macrorhabdosis
C. Proventricular Dilatation Disease
C. Proventricular Dilatation Disease
What is the drug of choice for the treatment of avian chlamydophilosis?
A. Doxycycline
B. Trimethoprim-sulfa
C. Chlortetracycline
D. Enrofloxacin
A. Doxycycline
A 6-month-old canary is presented for constant open-mouthed breathing and a faint clicking sound with each breath. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
A. Respiratory acariasis
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Respiratory mycobacteriosis
D. Respiratory campylobacteriosis
A. Respiratory acariasis (respiratory mites)
What procedure is important to perform every time a bird visits the veterinary clinic, even if only for grooming, such as a wing, beak or nail trim?
A. Weigh the bird
B. Perform a fecal Gram stain
C. Perform a complete blood count
A. Weigh the bird
All-seed diets, containing high levels of sunflower and safflower seeds, have which of the following nutrient abnormalities:
A. Low in Vitamin D3, fat and phosphorus; high in calcium and vitamin A
B. Low in Vitamin A, vitamin D3 and calcium; high in phosphorus and fat
C. Low in Vitamin A, fat and calcium; high in vitamin D3 and phosphorus
B. Low in Vitamin A, vitamin D3 and calcium; high in phosphorus and fat
A 6-month-old juvenile budgerigar of unknown sex is presented because it is “throwing up” food. Diet is a mixture of pellets and millet spray, with some mixed fruits and vegetables, and access to a cuttlebone. Physical exam reveals mild to moderate weight loss; body weight is 26 grams (normal is 30-32 grams) and some regurgitated food material is stuck to the feathers on the top of the head. The CBC and serum chemistries are all within normal limits. The choanal Gram stain contains only normal Gram positive flora; the fecal Gram stain contains normal Gram positive flora, but also several very long, thick, rod-shaped organisms that are 3 to 4 times wider and 20 times longer than the bacteria present. These structures are staining Gram positive, but are taking up the stain irregularly. What disease condition is the most likely cause of this bird’s clinical signs?
A. Mycobacteria infection
B. Lactobacillis infection
C. Macrorhabdus infection
C. Macrorhabdus infection
An adult male cockatiel is presented for sneezing of 5 days duration. This bird was recently acquired from private party that had several cockatiels housed together. Physical exam reveals a fluffed bird with discharges stuck to the nares and the feathers on the top of the head. The eyelids are moderately swollen and there is a mucoid discharge in the choanal slit. What are the most likely differential diagnoses for this bird’s upper respiratory condition?
A. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and aspergillosis
B. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and herpesviral infection
C. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and chlamydophilosis
C. Bacterial sinusitis/conjunctivitis and chlamydophilosis
A pair of budgerigars and a canary are presented for necropsy examination. The owner is distraught because the birds appeared perfectly healthy and were singing just 2 hours prior to their deaths. Two of the birds were found dead in their cage. The last one to die, a budgerigar, was observed to be “panting”, with its mouth open, right before it died. Diet was a commercial pelleted ration with fruits/vegetables/whole wheat bread for the budgies, and a granular commercial ration and some home-grown sprouts for the canary. The birds were housed in two separate cages (budgies in one, canary in the other), located in the family room, which communicates with the kitchen across a breakfast bar. External examination reveals well-fleshed birds in excellent plumage condition. Internally, the only abnormality was bright red, edematous lungs present in all three birds. What is the most likely cause of death?
A. Pacheco’s disease
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Toxic inhalation
D. Heavy metal intoxication
C. Toxic inhalation
An older Double Yellowhead Amazon parrot has blunted oral papilla and bilateral yellowish swellings at the base of the tongue. What is the underlying problem that is mostly related to these lesions?
A. Hypovitaminosis E
B. Candidiasis
C. Hypovitaminosis A
D. Hypovitaminosis D
C. Hypovitaminosis A
The best choice for evaluating the liver function in a psittacine bird is:
A. CPK and bile acids
B. AST (SGOT) and bile acids
C. AST (SGOT) and LDH
D. ALT and LDH
B. AST (SGOT) and bile acids
A budgerigar of indeterminate age is presented for raised, greyish, crusty lesions around both eyes, over the cere and extending onto the proximal region of the upper beak. What is this bird’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Demodectic mange
B. Knemidocoptic mange
C. Bacterial pyoderma
D. Old age
B. Knemidocoptic mange
The scientific Family Mustelidae includes what animals?

A. weasels, skunks, sea otters, lamprey, nutria
B. sea otters, skunk, ferrets, mink, weasels, badgers
C. nutria, badgers, skunk, hare, pika
D. guinea pigs, beavers, skunks, ferrets, badgers
B. sea otters, skunk, ferrets, mink, weasels, badgers
Amphibians require a strong UV light source to thrive.
Answer
A. False
B. True
A. False