Bryan - La Med Iii - Ruminant Neuro Dz & Lameness - Spring 3Rd Year

Front 1

Which is most likely to lead to decreases in ATP in the brain?
a) reduced stored glycogen
b) reduced thiamine
c) reduced insulin
d) reduced electron transport activity

Back 1

d) reduced electron transport activity

Front 2

What are the two main sources of glycolysis in the brain? What is the end result of these?

Back 2

Embden Meyerhoff Pathway (most)
Hexose monophosphate pathway
(end result = PYRUVATE)

Front 3

What is the source of thiamin in ruminants? Neonates?

Back 3

Ruminants (rumen microbes)
Neonates (milk)

Front 4

Which of the following are NOT true regarding polioencephalomalacia genesis?
a) Type I bacterial thiaminases must have cofactors
b) Can be caused by lack of thiamine or lack of glucose
c) type II thiaminases such as bracken fern need no cofactors
d) high S, P, or Pb
e) rumen microbe die-off

Back 4

c) type II thiaminases such as bracken fern (NO; type II thiaminases are BACTERIAL but require no cofactor)
d) high S, P, or Pb (NO; high S or Pb but LOW P)

Front 5

T or F:
All things that reduce thiamine have been linked to polioencephalomalacia.

Back 5

True!

Front 6

T or F:
All polioencephalomalacia involves thiamine derangements.

Back 6

False!

Front 7

Which of the following cause PEM due to hypoglycemia?
a) amprolium
b) bracken fern
c) molasses/urea diet
d) Sulfur

Back 7

c) molasses/urea diet

Front 8

What is the biochemical endpoint of PEM? What is the pathological endpoint?

Back 8

Biochem (lack of ATP)
Pathology (no Na/K ATP-ase leads to cerebral edema)

Front 9

What are the common PEM risk factors in feedlots?

Back 9

High energy diet
Rumenal organism die-off
Benzimidazole administration
Amprolium
(benzimidazoles are cofactors for type I thiaminases)

Front 10

What is an EARLY clinical sign of PEM in cattle?

Back 10

Cortical blindness! (normal PLR but can't see)

Front 11

How does CSF look in a cow w/PEM?

Back 11

vacuolated mononuclear cells and protein

Front 12

All neurologic ruminants should be treated with ___________.

Back 12

THIAMINE

Front 13

How can you test for lead poisoning?

Back 13

Run Pb in WHOLE BLOOD (Pb binds to RBC proteins)

Front 14

Which of the following does lead toxicosis NOT do?
a) inhibits Na/K pump
b) causes oxidative damage
c) neuronal swelling and necrosis
d) microhepatopathy
e) Gi signs

Back 14

b) causes oxidative damage (nope)
d) microhepatopathy (microANGIOpathy)

Front 15

What signs can help distinguish lead poisoning from a thiamine issue?

Back 15

GI signs (teeth grinding, colic, bloat)
Radiographic signs (Pb lines and foreign body)

Front 16

What are some tests to determine if an animal has lead poisoning?

Back 16

Radiographs (FB or Pb lines)
CSF tap (foamy mononuclear cells - indicative of PEM)
Whole blood lead
Delta aminolevulinic acid dehydratase is HIGH

Front 17

What causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis?

Back 17

Haemophilus somnus

Front 18

Which of the following are NOT true regarding bovine PEM?
a) often occurs in outbreaks
b) brain will fluoresce with woods lamp
c) no changes in CSF
d) change in water can be a factor
e) weakness and cervical ventriflexion are signs

Back 18

c) no changes in CSF (NO; increased protein and mononuclear cells)
e) weakness and cervical ventriflexion are signs (NO; depression, blindness, to opisthotonos)

Front 19

What are some non-neurological signs associated with thromboembolic meningoencephalitis?

Back 19

Respiratory disease
Lameness/swollen joints
Maybe pericarditis/peritonitis

Front 20

What organism causes sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis?

Back 20

Chlamydophilum pecorum

Front 21

Which of the following are NOT associated with sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis?
a) zoonoses
b) opisthotonous
c) organisms in CSF
d) no fever
e) koalas

Back 21

b) opisthotonous (Not really; more general neck pain)
c) organisms in CSF (No, organisms in WBCs)
d) no fever (Nope!)

Front 22

What are common causes of meningitis in calves? In adults? How is this treated?

Back 22

Calves (E. coli and Salmonella)
Adults (A. pyogenes)
Tx - oxytet

Front 23

Which of the following are NOT associated with pseudorabies?
a) no aerosol transmission
b) raccoons, pigs, and rats are reservoirs
c) can be caused by attenuated vaccines
d) associated w/severe prurutis
e) perivascular neutrophilic cuffing

Back 23

a) no aerosol transmission (NO; inhalation and contact are most likely transmission)
e) perivascular neutrophilic cuffing (NO; perivascular mononuclear cuffing)

Front 24

What are good differentials for pseudorabies infection?

Back 24

Nervous ketosis
Rabies
Locoism
MCF
IBR

Front 25

T or F:
Pruritis in pseudorabies is associated with respiratory infection.

Back 25

False! Intradermal!

Front 26

What is a major source of listeriosis in cattle? In goats?

Back 26

Cattle (spoiled silage)
Goats (rotting vegetation)

Front 27

What is the characteristic histopathologic CNS lesion in listeriosis?

Back 27

Microabscesses with mononuclear perivascular cuffing

Front 28

T or F:
The focal CNS form of listeriosis is unique to ruminants.

Back 28

True!

Front 29

Which of the following are associated with listeriosis in ruminants?
a) bilateral facial nerve paralysis
b) fever
c) difficult to culture
d) largely neutrophilic inflammation
e) mammary gland infection

Back 29

b) fever
c) difficult to culture
e) mammary gland infection
(note - usually unilateral cranial nerve involvement and MONONUCLEAR inflammation)

Front 30

You see a cow with bradycardia. What CNS issue should be on your differentials list?

Back 30

Brain abscess compressing the hypothalamus

Front 31

Which bacteria cause brain abscesses in cattle and how do they get there?

Back 31

A. pyogenes, F. necrophorum, Strepts, etc
Hematogenous spread

Front 32

You see a calf with a head tilt. What is the likely etiology?

Back 32

Mycoplasma otitis

Front 33

What causes locoism?

Back 33

Astragalus or Oxytropis toxicosis

Front 34

Which of the following are NOT sequels to locoism?
a) Pb toxicosis
b) Vacuolar degeneration in WBCs
c) Vacuolar degeneration in the brain
d) microabscesses
e) inhibition of alpha mannosidase

Back 34

a) Pb toxicosis (NO; Se toxicosis)
d) microabscesses (NO; vacuolar degeneration)

Front 35

How is locoism diagnosed? Treated?

Back 35

Dx (history, may see WBC vacuolation; necropsy diagnosis)
Tx (none; remove from locoweed)

Front 36

Which of the following are NOT associated with hydrocephalus?
a) outbreaks
b) herefords and holsteins
c) plugged foramen of monro
d) blue tongue
e) BVD

Back 36

a) outbreaks (NO)
d) blue tongue
e) BVD
(these latter 2 are associated with hydrancephaly)

Front 37

Which of the following are true regarding viral disease and hydrancephaly?
a) Bluetongue infection prior to 80days
b) BVD infection at around 100 days will cause persistent infection + anencephaly
c) arthrogryposis is associated with BVD
d) Ear notch or whole blood titers can be used for PI BVD
e) BVD infection @ 150d will cause anencephaly but not PI

Back 37

a) Bluetongue infection prior to 80days (NO; bluetongue ~125 d)
c) arthrogryposis is associated with BVD (NO; Bluetongue)
d) Ear notch or whole blood titers can be used for PI BVD (NO; this is IHC not titers)
and PI

Front 38

What is the probably cause of nervous coccidiosis?
a) Eimeria
b) Cryptosporidium
c) Amprolium
d) Eimeria toxin
e) Fluid shifts

Back 38

c) Amprolium is the most probable cause although it is unknown

Front 39

Which of the following are NOT true regarding neosporosis?
a) Spread by opossums
b) Can be diagnosed by serology of dam
c) fecal-oral transmission causes CNS signs
d) CNS form often localizes to the cerebellum
e) Ataxia, obtundation, tremors and weakness are common signs

Back 39

a) Spread by opossums (NO; dogs usually)
c) fecal-oral transmission causes CNS signs (NO; vertical transmission)
d) CNS form often localizes to the cerebellum (NO; cerebrum)

Front 40

You see a calf with opisthotonous, cortical blindness, and hematuria. What gives?

Back 40

Water intoxication/Salt poisoning

Front 41

How is water intoxication or salt poisoning diagnosed?
a) High Na in blood
b) High Cl in blood
c) High Na in CSF
d) hematuria
e) hemoglobinuria

Back 41

c) High Na in CSF (relative to plasma)
e) hemoglobinuria

Front 42

How is salt poisoning treated?

Back 42

SLOW administration of fluids (don't change Na more than 1 mEq/hr)

Front 43

You see a young Holstein with slowly progressive ataxia, hypermetria, and base-wide stance that also has diarrhea. What do you think?

Back 43

Alpha mannosidase deficiency

Front 44

You are screening for alpha mannosidase deficiency. What does the following mean?
a) 0% activity
b) 40-60% activity
c) 100% activity
What must you ensure when taking the sample?

Back 44

a) 0% activity - affected
b) 40-60% activity - carrier
c) 100% activity - non-carrier
(ensure NON-HEMOLYZED sample)

Front 45

Who gets gets mannosidosis?

Back 45

Salers and anglo-nubian goat

Front 46

Which of the following are NOT associated with vitamin A deficiency?
a) bony malformations of the skull
b) angus breed
c) causes hydranencephaly
d) cortical blindness
e) treat with vitamin A

Back 46

b) angus breed (NO; feedlot animals)
c) causes hydranencephaly (NO; hydrocephalus when advanced)
d) cortical blindness (NO; peripheral blindness too)

Front 47

When I say Salers, you say -

Back 47

- Beta mannosidosis!

Front 48

I say holstein, you say -

Back 48

- Neuraxial edema
- Hydrocephalus
- Alpha mannosidase deficiency
- Elso heel

Front 49

When I say Angus, you say -

Back 49

- congenital cerebellar hypoplasia
-Elso Heel
- alpha mannosidosis

Front 50

When I say hereford, you say -

Back 50

- Maple Syrup Urine
- Neuraxial Edema
- Hydrocephalus
- SMA (high-grade weaves)

Front 51

What causes vitamin A deficient feed?

Back 51

Heat damage to the feed

Front 52

What are the 3 major signs of cerebellar lesions?

Back 52

Hypermetria
Base-wide stance
Intention tremors

Front 53

What is a viral cause of cerebellar lesions in cattle?

Back 53

BVD!

Front 54

What is the cause of maple syrup urine? What are signs of it?

Back 54

Failure to break down branched-chain ketoacids
(tetanic/clonic response when overstimulated + hyperthermia)

Front 55

What are 2 syndromes that look normal but get all spazzy when overstimulated?

Back 55

Maple Syrup Urine
Neuraxial Edema

Front 56

What is the major cause of enterotoxemia with CNS disease? Which animal does it mostly affect?

Back 56

Clostridium perfringens type D (epsilon toxin)
Affects SHEEP!

Front 57

Which of the following are NOT associated with CNS disease due to enterotoxemia?
a) mostly in sheep
b) delta toxin
c) bilateral effect on cranial nerves
d) mononuclear CNS infiltrate
e) vaccination does not prevent it

Back 57

b) delta toxin (NO; epsilon toxin)
d) mononuclear CNS infiltrate (NO; CNS and CBC are NORMAL)

Front 58

Which sheep breeds are most susceptible to scrapie?

Back 58

Cheviot and Suffolk

Front 59

Which of the following are suspected transmission routes for scrapie?
a) soil
b) biting insects
c) placenta and reproductive secretions
d) airborne

Back 59

a) soil
b) biting insects
c) placenta and reproductive secretions

Front 60

What causes scrapie? How is it killed?

Back 60

A virino (or maybe a prion); resistant to EVERYTHING except long-term cooking or NaOH or Bleach

Front 61

Which of the following are NOT true regarding scrapie?
a) pruritis occurs with cutaneous transmission
b) a disease of adult sheep
c) only affects sheep
d) ante-mortem test available
e) sheep shipped to Australia must be heterozygotic for codons 136 and 171.

Back 61

a) pruritis occurs with cutaneous transmission (NO; ingestion is the only route)
c) only affects sheep (NO; also mouflon and goats)
e) sheep shipped to Australia must be heterozygotic for codons 136 and 171 (NO; this would be resistant! You want them susceptible!)

Front 62

What is the "scrapie sign"?

Back 62

Flemen

Front 63

What tissue is biopsied for scrapie testing?

Back 63

Tonsil or 3rd eyelid

Front 64

Who gets BSE?

Back 64

Bovids, Man, cats

Front 65

What is the initial sign of BSE in dairy cows?

Back 65

Reluctance when milking

Front 66

T or F:
Zoonotic variants of BSE in man are always slowly progressive.

Back 66

False!
There is a rapidly-progressive Variant Creuzfeldt-Jakob Disease (vCJD)

Front 67

Which of the following describe BSE transmission?
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Oral
d) Airborne (inhaled)

Back 67

c) Oral
d) Airborne (inhaled) - a possible route

Front 68

What is the cause of swayback and enzootic ataxia? When is the onset?

Back 68

Cu deficiency
Swayback (newborns)
Enzootic (1-3 mos)

Front 69

Who gets border disease?

Back 69

Sheep and goats

Front 70

If you see a shaking lamb with long coarse hairs, what is the disease pathogenesis?

Back 70

Border disease infection before 90d gestation

Front 71

How is border disease diagnosed?

Back 71

Serology for non-PI
VI for PI
(usually IFA on skin + VI on blood)

Front 72

What is the histologic lesion in Cu deficiency?

Back 72

Demyelination and cavitation in the white matter of brainstem/spinal cord

Front 73

Which of the following are NOT associated with Cu deficiency?
a) long guard hairs
b) Hyperthermia
c) Enzootic ataxia
d) Swayback
e) freak-out when overstimulated

Back 73

a) long guard hairs (NO; crimpless wool)
b) Hyperthermia (NO; this is maple syrup urine)
e) freak-out when overstimulated (NO; they have progressive ataxia to stupor/coma)

Front 74

Choose true gid or false gid for the following:
- Taenia multiceps
- usually in dorsal turbinate
- de-worm your farm dogs
- sneezing & face rubbing

Back 74

True - Taenia multiceps
False - usually in dorsal turbinate
True - de-worm your farm dogs
False - sneezing & face rubbing

Front 75

Choose true gid or false gid for the following:
- Unilateral cerebral signs
- Oestrus ovis
- Soft spot in the head
- secondary bacterial meningoencaphalitis
- blindness

Back 75

True - Unilateral cerebral signs
False - Oestrus ovis
True - Soft spot in the head
False - secondary bacterial meningoencaphalitis
BOTH - blindness

Front 76

How do you pronounce louping ill?

Back 76

LOPE-ING ill

Front 77

Which of the following are NOT true regarding louping ill?
a) zoonotic arbovirus
b) not in the US
c) outbreaks are rare
d) PCR can only be performed during viremia
e) no fever

Back 77

c) outbreaks are rare (NO; usually occurs in outbreaks)
e) no fever (Fever during viremia)

Front 78

What is the most common sign of OPP?

Back 78

Respiratory issues (pneumonia); neuro dz is rare

Front 79

Who gets Parelaphostrongylus tenis?

Back 79

White-tailed deer (normal); other ruminants, cervids, camelids, horses

Front 80

Which of the following are NOT true regarding Parelaphostrongylus meningitis?
a) Lives in the epidural space
b) eosinophilic CSF
c) signs are most often spinal
d) no seasonality
e) eggs are associated with mollusks

Back 80

a) Lives in the epidural space (ARACHNOID)
d) no seasonality (FALL & SPRING)
e) eggs are associated with mollusks (LARVAE)

Front 81

How are brain worms treated? Prevented?

Back 81

Fenbendizole + steroids (tx)
Ivermectin/benzimidazole deworming + mollusk control

Front 82

If you see a cow standing with its front legs crossed, what do you think?

Back 82

Medial claw lameness on front

Front 83

Which of the following are NOT true regarding bovine lameness?
a) #1 disease in bovine medicine
b) more common in hind limb, medial claw
c) most lamenesses involve the horn and soft tissue
d) front limb lamenesses are on medial claw

Back 83

b) more common in hind limb, medial claw (LATERAL)

Front 84

If you see a skin lesion on the abaxial surface of the foot, what should you be thinking?

Back 84

Joint infection

Front 85

T or F:
Synovial spaces are most vulnerable near the rear of the foot, where the joint capsule protrudes.

Back 85

False! The FRONT of the foot!

Front 86

How fast does hoof horn grow?

Back 86

0.5cm/month

Front 87

Which of the following are NOT true regarding bovine foot anatomy?
a) front feet are bigger than rear
b) sole is softer than heel
c) perioplic corium creates the hoof wall
d) the weight bearing region is the abaxial edges of the claw
e) abrasiveness and load affect hoof growth rates

Back 87

b) sole is softer than heel (HEEL SOFTER)
c) perioplic corium creates the hoof wall (NO; it creates the heel; coronary corium creates the wall)

Front 88

What will cause a cow to get splay-toed (Spock hands) in the rear?

Back 88

Mechanical/concussive trauma in rear hooves; causes growth in heel, toe, abaxial wall

Front 89

What are the major factors in bovine foot lesions?

Back 89

Mechanical trauma
Excess growth
Moisture
Manure
Bacteria

Front 90

In bovine lameness, choose the agent or condition associated with:
- superficial necrosis
- liquefactive necrosis
- digital dermatitis

Back 90

F. necrophorum - superficial necrosis
Dichelobacter - liquefactive necrosis
Treponema-like spirochete - digital dermatitis

Front 91

Choose the agent or condition associated with:
- interdigital dermatitis
- is contagious
- penicillin resistance

Back 91

(F. necrophorum, Dichelobacter, Porphyromonas) - interdigital dermatitis
Dichelobacter - contagious
Super foot rot - penicillin resistance

Front 92

What are the 3 presentations of digital dermatitis?

Back 92

Heel ulcers
Strawberry foot rot
Hairy heel warts

Front 93

If you see a unilaterally raised toe, what do you think?

Back 93

Unilateral joint infection; probably caused by interdigital hyperplasia

Front 94

What are good drugs to use for the anaerobes? Spirochetes?

Back 94

Anaerobes (Penicillin & sulfa)
Spirochetes (Ceftiofur, lincomycin, spectinomycin, oxytet)

Front 95

Which foot conditions can be prevented via vaccination?

Back 95

Foot rot (Interdigital dermatitis) - dichelobacter and Fusobacterium vaccine

Front 96

What are the goals of foot trimming?

Back 96

remove excess horn, remove bad horn
Open abscesses
Trim granulation tissue
Rebalance foot

Front 97

Which cows get laminitis?

Back 97

Post-parturient!

Front 98

What is a hardship groove?

Back 98

Horizontal groove or crack in horn d/t interrupted growth (laminitis)

Front 99

Where does pododermatitis usually occur?

Back 99

White line by toe in beef cattle
Heel/sole junction in dairy cattle

Front 100

Pododermatitis aseptica et diffusa is the same as

Back 100

Laminitis!

Front 101

What are some musculoskeletal causes of bovine lameness and recumbency? Which has a breed predisposition?

Back 101

White muscle dz
Elso heel (Angus & holstein)
Tendon rupture & trauma
Compartment syndrome
Spastic Syndrome
Septic arthritis & foot rot
Ertogism

Front 102

Which nerves of the front limb are NOT found medially?

Back 102

Radial nerve @ elbow
Supraspinatus

Front 103

What is the most commonly damaged nerve in the DAM during parturition? Which spinal segment? What are clinical signs?

Back 103

Peroneal nerve (L6 root); see toe dragging and difficulty bearing weight

Front 104

Which nerves are most commonly affected due to injection damage?

Back 104

Sciatic
Tibial

Front 105

Which nerves are most often injured by long periods of restraint or sedation?

Back 105

Radial nerve
Supraspinatus/infraspinatus

Front 106

T or F:
Conversely to hindlimb issues, cows with humeral fractures can often bear weight.

Back 106

True!

Front 107

You see a 6 month old BAR calf with hindlimb paresis that localizes to the thoracolumbar region. What gives?

Back 107

Vertebral abscess

Front 108

You've just treated your cattle with ivermectin and now you have one that is dog sitting. What might be going on?

Back 108

Hypoderma bovis in the cord!

Front 109

What is the pathogenesis for organophosphate toxicity?

Back 109

Demyelination

Front 110

Which breeds get the weaves?

Back 110

Brown swiss mostly; also Herefords (for SMA)

Front 111

T or F:
Spinal-muscular atrophy and progressive degenerative myeloencephalopathy are different manifestations of the same process that causes Weaves.

Back 111

False!
They are different histologically, SMA occurs in young animals while Weaves occurs in slightly older animals (full blown by 2 yrs) but both can be seen in brown swiss

Front 112

What is probably the biggest contributor to dull/depressed down cows?

Back 112

Metabolic diseases

Front 113

Which of the following are not true regarding bovine hypokalemia?
a) often occurs post calving
b) cervical ventriflexion
c) flaccid paralysis
d) replenish K at a rate of 1mEq/hr
e) droopy cold ears

Back 113

a) often occurs post calving
(ketosis occurs post calving and the ketosis treatment of steroids can bring about hypokalemia)
d) replenish K at a rate of 1mEq/hr (NO; 0.5mEq/kg/hr)

Front 114

You see a down, depressed, dull cow that is peeing red, what gives?

Back 114

Hypophosphatemia

Front 115

What are some major complications of recumbency in large animals?

Back 115

Decbital ulcers
Myositis/myopathy
Neuropathy
Mastitis (dairy cattle)
Bloat/aspiration