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63 Cards in this Set

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What is the incubation period for EHV? The shedding period?
2-8 d (respiratory)
6-14 d (neuro)
2 weeks to months (abortion)
3 weeks viral shedding
T or F:
90% of horses have latent herpes infection.
True
What are signs in the neuro form of EHV?
LMN signs (loss of tail function and bladder control)
From mild incoordination to recumbency.
Which of the following causes myeloencephalopathy?
a) DNA pol D752
b) DNA pol N752
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
c) Both of the above BUT the D752 strain MOST COMMONLY causes the myeloencephalopathy
Which of the following is the MOST suggestive of EHV myeloencephalopathy?
a) Positive serology
b) anemia/lymphopenia
c) increased protein in CSF
d) positive PCR from nasal swab
c) increased protein in CSF +
d) positive PCR from nasal swab
Which of the following are DEFINITELY used to treat neuro form of EHV?
a) Acyclovir
b) DMSO
c) NSAIDs
d) steroids
e) Valcyclovir
c) NSAIDs
(MAYBE DMSO, valcyclovir MAY reduce shedding; steroids are controversial)
Which of the following are effective methods of control of neurological syndrome due to EHV?
a) vaccinations
b) biosecurity
c) Pneumabort-K
d) take regular temperatures
b) biosecurity
c) Pneumabort-K
d) take regular temperatures
Which herpes viruses infect horses?
EHV 1-5
Where do cervical stenotic lesions most commonly occur? Dynamic lesions? What age group gets each?
Stenosis (C5/6 or C6/7; 1-4yrs)
Dynamic (C3/4 or C4/5; 6mos to 2 yrs)
Which of the following is true about a 5 to 7 yo horse with cervical vertebral issues?
a) caused by congenital malformations
b) static compression of the cord
c) due to arthropathies
d) dynamic compression
e) can be acute in origin
b) static compression of the cord
c) due to arthropathies
d) dynamic compression
e) can be acute in origin (d/t TRAUMA)
What are the two main causes of cord compression in Wobbler's syndrome?
Vertebral instability
Stenotic canal
A 2 year old thoroughbred starts to have gait abnormalities when put into training, what gives?
Wobblers!
Which of the following are NOT true regarding wobbler's?
a) grade the pelvic and thoracic limb groups separately
b) graded on a 1-5 scale
c) always worse in the hindlimbs
d) often symmetrical in the stenotic form
e) no breed/sex predisposition
a) grade the pelvic and thoracic limb groups separately (NO; grade EACH LIMB separately)
b) graded on a 1-5 scale (NO; 0-5 scale)
e) no breed/sex predisposition (NO WAY; warmblood males)
What should you always do with neurologic horses? Neurologic cattle?
Horses (radiograph the neck)
Cattle (give 'em Thiamine)
What are the 5 characteristic bony changes in Wobblers?
Osteophytes (DJD)
Extention of dorsal laminae
Flare of caudal vertebral epiphysis (ski jump)
Abnormal ossification of articular processes
Malalignment of articular angles
What are the radiographic methods of diagnosing cervical vertebral stenosis?
Sagittal ratio method
Myelography of specific sites
Minimal sagittal dural diameter
Which of the following would be strong evidence for cervical vertebral stenosis?
a) Sagittal ratio >0.5
b) dorsal dye column of 1mm
c) 10% reduction of the dural diameter
b) dorsal dye column of 1mm
(Note: sagittal ratio <0.5 is suggestive and a reduction in the dural diameter of >20% is also suggestive of stenosis)
How is cervical stenosis treated medically?
NSAIDs, MSM, Vitamin E
Steroid and hyaluronic acid injections
Paced growth if young animal
Rest!
How much improvement can be expected with surgical correction of cervical stenosis?
1 to 2 grade
How can cervical stenosis be prevented?
Adequate Cu & Zn levels
Prevent rapid growth
Don't over-train
Selective breeding
Which of the following are NOT TRUE regarding West Nile Virus?
a) More likely to be asymmetrical than EHV or CVM
b) Recovered animals are usually normal
c) predilection for cerebral cortex
d) flavivirus & arbovirus
e) fever, fasciculations, and no panniculus
b) Recovered animals are usually normal (Not really; 40% of recovered animals are abnormal)
c) predilection for cerebral cortex (NO; lesions increase in severity caudally)
e) fever, fasciculations, and no panniculus (NO; loss of panniculus is associated with EDM)
What is the common signalment for equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy?
Young morgans, TBs, Arabs, QH, appaloosas, or stdbds
Which of the following are NOT associated with EDM?
a) wood preservatives
b) vitamin E toxicosis
c) cranial nerve deficits
d) loss of panniculus
e) mononuclear pleiocytosis
b) vitamin E toxicosis (NO, possible vitamin deficiency)
c) cranial nerve deficits (NO CN deficits)
e) mononuclear pleiocytosis (No way! NORMAL CSF)
How can WNV be prevented?
Vaccination
Mosquito control
Remove horses from mosquitoes
How is WNV diagnosed?
IgM capture ELISA
Mononuclear pleiocytosis in CSF
HI, plaque neutralization
What causes EPM?
Sarcocystis neurona
Neospora hughesi
What is the definitive host for EPM? What are intermediate hosts?
Definitive (Opossum)
Intermediate (Cat, Armadillo, Skunks, Raccoon)
Which of the following are NOT true regarding EPM?
a) sarcocysts must be eaten to form sporocysts
b) sarcocysts cause clinical signs in aberrant hosts
c) aberrant hosts are infected by sporocysts
d) intermediate hosts are infected by sporocysts
e) merozoites only form in muscle
b) sarcocysts cause clinical signs in aberrant hosts (NO; ingested sporocysts form merozoites)
e) merozoites only form in muscle cells (NO, they form in neurons in aberrant hosts)
What are examples of aberrant hosts for S. neurona?
Horse
Pinnipeds
Mustelids
Raccoons
Cats
T or F:
EPM only occurs where the opossum is.
False!
There are reports of EPM where there are NO POSSUMS
Which of the following are NOT true regarding EPM clinical signs?
a) more often asymmetrical
b) usually see progressive lameness
c) rarely see muscle atrophy
d) any region of CNS affected
e) can be chronic or acute
b) usually see progressive lameness (NO, while you can see progressive signs, WANDERING LAMENESS is common)
c) rarely see muscle atrophy (NO, this is common)
Which of the following are TRUE:
a) high specificity = high PPV
b) high sensitivity = high PPV
c) Sensitivity deals with false positives
d) probability of a positive test among animals with a disease describes sensitivity
e) probability of a positive test among animals with a disease describes specificity
a) high specificity = high PPV
d) probability of a positive test among animals with a disease describes sensitivity
T or F:
High seroprevalence lowers PPV.
True! It lowers specificity and thus PPV
Name the EPM test that is...
MOST specific
MOST sensitive
Can assess likelihood of dz presence
Not affected by blood contamination
MOST specific (C-values & AI)
MOST sensitive (SnSAG2 ELISA & IFAT)
Can assess liklihood of dz presence (IFAT)
Not affected by blood contamination (IFAT, AI, and C-values)
What is the approximate seroprevalence of EPM? Incidence?
Seroprevalence (32-89%)
1% incidence
T or F:
Both plasma and CSF tests are necessary for doing both C-values and Antibody Index.
True!
How is EPM treated? What is the prognosis?
Tx (Ponazuril and DIclazuril)
Prognosis (10% recrudescence; complete recovery rare <10%; 20-70% show one grade improvement)
What are the main steps in diagnosing EPM?
RULE OUT other neuro dz
Document S. neurona or N. hughesi infection
Treatment response
What are EARLY signs of polyradiculoneuritis in horses?
Hyperesthesia then hypoesthesia
Retention of urine/feces
Which of the following are NOT true regarding polyradiculoneuritis in horses?
a) LMN signs are more commonly symmetrical
b) CN signs are less often asymmetrical
c) Thought to be immune-mediated in pathogenesis
d) usually young horses
e) glucocorticoids may improve prognosis
b) CN signs are less often asymmetrical (NO; they are commonly asymmetrical)
d) usually young horses (OLD)
e) glucocorticoids may improve prognosis (NO TREATMENT)
Which blood profile change is often SUPPORTIVE for a diagnosis of polyradiculoneuritis (hint - this is definitely not a normal aspect of the chem panel)?
Circulating antibodies to P2 myelin protein
Which cranial nerves are most commonly affected in polyridulousneuritis?
CN V, VII, VIII (ASYMMETRICALLY)
Which antibiotics should be AVOIDED in treating botulism in a foal? Which antibiotic can be used?
Procaine
Gentamycin
Tetracycline
(Metronidazole is OK)
How is botulism diagnosed?
History + Cx
Toxin ID
5 minute grain test
Can't put tongue back in mouth
EMG???
Which of the following are NOT concurrent with botulism?
a) adults often eat the preformed toxin
b) only peripheral nerve involvement
c) sawhorse stance
d) late dysphagia
e) 3rd eyelid prolapse
c) sawhorse stance (this is TETANUS)
d) late dysphagia (NO this is an EARLY sign)
e) 3rd eyelid prolapse (TETANUS)
If you see multiple horses with muscle weakness and CN involvement, what should you think?
BOTULISM
How can botulism be prevented?
Vaccinate mares 1 month b4 foaling (mostly for Clostridium type B so it doesn't work in OR where we have type A)
T or F:
Shaker foals are an example of forage poisoning.
False! Toxicoinfectious botulism!
Which of the following are NOT true regarding tetanus in horses?
a) 75% morbidity rate
b) trismus is common
c) tetanus anti-toxin should be used in suspected cases
d) GI inhabitant
e) injury occurs 3 days before clinical signs
a) 75% morbidity rate (MORTALITY)
b) trismus is common
c) tetanus anti-toxin should be used in suspected cases (TOXOID)
e) injury occurs 3 days before clinical signs (9 DAYS)
Which 3 factors improve the prognosis in tetanus?
Previous vaccination
Not recumbent
Responsive to sedatives
How is tetanus treated?
Quiet, dark stall
Maybe high-dose anti-toxin??
Wound management (Penicillin + aeration)
Muscle relaxants
What are possible sequelae to tetanus?
Rhabdomyolysis
Renal failure (pigmenturia)
Serum sickness (Theiller's Dz)
What are CLASSIC signs for tetanus?
sawhorse stance
sardonic grin
3rd eyelid prolapse
Which of the following are associated with flaccid hypocalcemic tetany?
a) normal serum Mg
b) ionized Ca <5mg/dl
c) mydriasis
d) 3rd eyelid protrusion
e) stupor
a) normal serum Mg
c) mydriasis
e) stupor
(Note: TOTAL Ca <5mg/dl)
Which of the following are associated with tetanic hypocalcemic tetany?
a) low serum Mg
b) total Ca <5mg/dl
c) trismus
d) recumbency
e) ptosis
a) low serum Mg
c) trismus
(Note: TOTAL Ca between 5 and 8 mg/dl)
What are target Ca:P ratios?
Between 1.3 and 2:1
What are the 5 p's of iliac thrombosis?
Poikilothermia
Pallor
Pulselessness
Paresthesia (Pain)
Paresis
T or F:
Similarly to small animals, iliac thrombosis in equids is cardiac in origin.
False! Maybe verminous?
How is rabies diagnosed?
ONLY POST-MORTEM
Direct fluorescent antibody test on brain
50% have Negri bodies
Which of the following are NOT true regarding rabies in large animals?
a) LAs usually get dumb form
b) incubation from 2-3 wks
c) only in mammals
d) usually fatal 2-5d post clinical signs
e) new PCR test can diagnose ante-mortem if clinical signs are apparent
b) incubation from 2-3 wks (NO; 2 wks to 3 mos)
e) new PCR test can diagnose ante-mortem if clinical signs are apparent (NO ANTE-MORTEM TEST)
Note: usually fatal 2-5d post clinical signs but may take up to 2 wks
What are clinical signs of rabies?
Self mutilation (paresthesia)
Progressive paralysis
Phonation changes
Fever, ataxia, recumbency
How fast does rabies migrate?
3mm/hr
What factors dictate the clinical signs of rabies?
Dose
Viral strain
Host immunity
Wound location in relation to CNS