Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) promotes _____.
|
the proliferative response of fibroblasts and smooth m cells
|
|
What synthesizes PDGF?
|
platelets and other cells
|
|
PDGF promotes chemotactic migration of ___, ___, and ___.
|
fibroblasts, smooth m cells, and monocytes
|
|
A progression factor that promotes the growth of endothelial cells, fibroblasts, and epithelial cells.
|
epidermal growth factor (EGF)
|
|
Promotes the synthesis of extracellular matrix protein (fibronectin) by fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and monocytes.
|
fibroblast growth factors (FGFs)
|
|
Fibronectin is chemotactic for ___.
It promotes ___. What does it link? |
fibroblasts and endothelial cells
angiogenesis links extracellular matrix components and macromolecules to cell surface integrins |
|
This is a growth inhibitor for many cell types and may aid in modulating the repair process.
It is also a chemotactic factor for ___ and ___. |
transforming growth factor (TGF-b)
macrophages and fibroblasts |
|
What are the macrophage-derived growth factors and what do they promote?
|
IL-1 and TNF; proliferation of fibroblasts, smooth m cells, and endothelial cells
|
|
Granulation tissue is composed of ___ and ___.
What type of tissue is it? |
capillaries and fibroblasts
connective tissue |
|
Granulation tissue fills defects created by ___.
Scarring is made by the addition of ___ which is produced by ___. |
liquefaction of cellular debris
collagen; fibroblasts |
|
List 4 examples of labile cells.
|
epidermis, GI tract mucosa, genitourinary tract, hematopoietic cells of the bone marrow
|
|
List 4 examples of stable cells.
|
hepatocytes, renal tubules, parenchymal tissue of glands, mesenchymal cells
|
|
List 2 examples of permanent cells.
|
neurons and myocardial cells
|
|
Which type of cell is capable of division when needed?
|
stable cells
|
|
What is an example of a disease causing caseous granulomatous infection?
|
tuberculosis
|
|
What is an example of a disease causing noncaseating granulomatous infection?
|
sarcoidosis
|
|
What are granulomas and what usually surrounds them?
|
nodular collections of specialized macrophages called epitheliod cells; surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes
|
|
what are the two types of giant cells derived from macrophages?
|
langhans giant cell and foreign body giant cell
|
|
how are giant cells formed?
|
during granulomatous inflammation, activation of macrophages by T lymphocytes, interaction with T-cell receptor triggers release of cytokines which transform monocytes and macrophages into giant cells
|
|
Chronic nonspecific inflammation is mediated by ____.
|
the interaction of monocytes-macrophages with lymphocytes
|
|
how are the nuclei arranged in a langhans giant cell? foreign body giant cell?
|
horseshoe shaped pattern; scattered nuclei
|
|
leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) 1 is characterized by ___ and is caused by ____. .
|
recurrent bacterial infections; deficiency of B2 integrins
|
|
leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) 2 is characterized by ___ and is caused by ___.
|
recurrent bacterial infections; mutations in the gene that codes for fucosyltransferase, required for the synthesis of sialyl Lewis X on neutrophils
|
|
What characterizes Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
It is marked by the appearance of abnormal ___. What happens functionally? |
autosomal recessive disorder; neutropenia, albinism, cranial and peripheral neuropathy, and repeated infections
WBC abnormal microtubule formation causing impaired chemotaxis and mirgration |
|
This disease is characterized by deficient activity of an enzyme involved in NAPDH oxidase activity and is marked by phagocytic cells that ingest but do not kill catalase-positive organisms.
|
chronic granulomatous disease of childhood
|
|
What happens when catalase-positive organisms are not killed?
|
they will destroy H2O2 generated by bacterial metabolism, H2O2 is no longer available for myeloperoxidase, thus the myeloperoxidase-halide system of bacterial killing fails
|
|
This is a cavity filled with pus, it is often walled off by fibrous tissue, and results from tissue destruction by lysosomal products
|
abscess
|
|
An ulcer is the loss of ___.
|
surface epithelium
|
|
what produces NO?
what does it do? |
endothelial cells
relaxes smooth m, inhibits platelet aggreation, and participates in microbial killing |
|
This system consists of plasma proteins that participate in immune lysis of cells and play a significant role in inflammation
|
complement system
|
|
C3a and C5a are known as ____.
1. They mediate degranulation of ___ and ___, causing the release of ___. 2. C5a is ___ and mediates release of ___ from ___. 3. C5a also induces expression of ___. 4. C5a activates the ___ pathway to ___ metabolism. |
anaphylatoxins
1. basophils and mast cells; histamine 2. chemotactic- mediates release of histamine from platelets 3. leukocyte adhesion molecules 4. lipoxygenase; arachidonic acid |
|
C3b is an ____.
|
opsonin
|
|
What activates the kinin system?
activation of this system in turn activates the ____. |
Hageman factor (factor XIIa)
complement |
|
The kinin system converts ___ to ___.
|
prekallikrein to kallikrein
|
|
In the kinin system, kininogen is cleaved by ____ resulting in ____.
|
kallikrein; bradykinin
|
|
Bradykinin mediates ___, ___, and ___.
|
vascular permeability, arteriolar dilation, and pain
|
|
The cytokines IL-1 and TNF are secreted by ___ and have several effects on ___.
|
monocytes-macrophages; inflammation
|
|
IL-1 and TNF reduce ___ properties of the endothelium, thus promoting ___.
|
thromboresistant; thrombosis
|
|
IL-1 and TNF induce ___ responses.
|
acute phase
|
|
Arachidonic acid is metabolized in two pathways. What are they?
|
cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways
|
|
what stimulates the release of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids?
|
phosopholipase- A2
|
|
what catalyzes the cyclooxygenase pathway?
what inhibits this pathway? |
COX-1 and COX-2
asprin and anti-inflammatory drugs |
|
the cyclooxygenase pathway yields ___ and ___.
|
thromboxane A2 (TxA2) and prostacyclin (PGI2) (prostaglandins)
|
|
what does platelet thromboxane A2 (TxA2) do?
|
powerful vasoconstrictor and platelet aggregant
|
|
what does endothelial PGI2 do?
|
vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation
|
|
What does the lipoxygenase pathway yield?
|
HPETE and its derivates
|
|
5-HPETE gives rise to ____ and ____ which are both ____ for neutrophils.
|
HETE and leukotrienes (LTB4); chemotactic factors
|
|
Histamines are liberated by degranulation from ___, ___, and ___.
|
basophils, mast cells, and platelets
|
|
What does histamine mediate?
|
increase in capillary permeability associated with the contraction of endothelial cells in post cap venules; PRODUCES ENDOTHELIAL GAPS
|
|
List 4 stimuli for the release of histamine from basophils and mast cells.
|
1) binding of antigen to membrane bound IgE
2) binding of C3a and C5a to receptors 3) physical stimuli (heat or cold) 4) cytokine IL-1 |
|
how is histamine released from platelets
what triggers this? |
platelet aggregation and the release reaction
endothelial injury or platelet-activating factor (PAF) |
|
What is the role of PAF and what does it cause the release of?
|
activates and aggregates platelets with the release of histamine and serotonin
|
|
List the steps involved in oxygen-dependent killing via the myeloperoxidase-halide system.
|
phagocytosis causes an oxidative burst supplying electrons to NADPH oxidase, producing the superoxide anion, which is converted to hydrogen peroxide, and further broken down to hydroxyl. In the presence of myeloperoxidase and chloride, hydrogen peroxide oxidizes bacteria disrupting their cell walls.
|
|
What are the most important opsonins?
|
IgG and C3b
|
|
what is the role of opsonins?
|
immobilize the particles on the surface of the phagocyte; coat the microbe, making it a target for phagocytosis
|
|
tensile strength of a wound can be expected to reach ___% compared to the unwounded skin.
|
70-80%
|
|
how long does the wound take to reach its maximum tensile strength?
|
3 months
|
|
what is the normal hemoglobin measurement in males and females?
|
15 and 13
|
|
what is the normal red count for males and females?
|
5 and 4.5
|
|
what is the normal hematocrit amount for males and females?
|
45 and 40
|
|
In addition to activating the kinin system, what is significant about factor XIIa (Hageman)?
|
it links the kinin, coagulation, plasminogen, and complement systems
|
|
what is the role of leukotrienes?
What is another name for leukotrienes? |
vasoconstrictors and mediators of increased capillary permeability
slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis |
|
During the adhesion part of emigration, ___ on leukocytes bind to ___ on endothelial cells.
|
integrins; immunoglobulin-family adhesion proteins
|
|
Which adhesion molecules mediate rolling of leukocytes?
|
selectins- they loosely bind to leukocytes
|
|
What mediates transmigration of leukocytes across the endothelium?
|
platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1)
|
|
What is chemotaxis?
|
the process by which leukocytes are attracted to and move toward an injury
|
|
What are four chemotactic factors for neutrophils?
|
1) products from bacteria
2) complement C5a 3) arachidonic acid metabolites: LTB4 and HETE 4) kallikrein |
|
Where are neutrophils released from during acute inflammation?
There is a larger proportion of which cells? |
bone marrow postmitotic reserve pool
band neutrophils (less mature) |
|
What are some causes of monocytosis?
|
tuberculosis, brucellosis, typhus, and salmonella
|
|
Along with monocytes-macrophages, what cell are present in large quantities in chronic inflammation?
|
lymphocytes
|
|
What are some causes of lymphocytosis?
|
viral infections such as influenza, mumps, rubella, and infectious mononucleosis and bacterial infections such as wooping cough and tuberculosis
|
|
What are the predominant cells in allergic reactions and parasitic infestations?
|
eosinophils
|
|
What are the most important causes of eosinophilia?
|
allergies- asthma, hay fever, and hives, and parasitic infections
|
|
What are some important causes of basophilia?
|
chronic myelogenous leukemia and other myeloproliferative diseases
|
|
What marks the conversion from acute to chronic inflammation?
|
1. replacement of neutrophils and monocytes with plasma cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes.
2. proliferation of fibroblasts and angiogenesis, with resultant scarring and distortion of architecture. |
|
Deficiency of complement components leads to ___.
|
increased susceptibility to infection
|
|
In nonspecific inflammation, ___ are activated by macrophage-presented antigen with results in formation of ___.
|
B lymphocytes; antibody-producing cells
|
|
What are the 4 acute phase responses elicited by IL-1 and TNF?
|
1) system effects of inflammation, including fever and leukocytosis
2) hepatic synthesis of acute phase proteins 3) synthesis of adhesion molecules 4) neutrophil degranulation |
|
leukotrienes LTC,D,E4 are responsible for what?
|
vasoconstriction and increased capillary permeability
|