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240 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The minimum Hg concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:
a. 12.0 g/dL(120g/L) b. 12.5 g/dL(125g/L) c. 13.5 g/dL(135g/L) d. 15.0g/dL(150g/L) |
B. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
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Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?
a. a tattoo 5 months ago b. recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitus c. 2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously d. confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 yrs. earlier |
D. confirmed positive HBsAg 10 years previously
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Physical examination requirments for blood donation:
a. hemoglobin b. hematocrit c. blood pressure d. temperature e. pulse f. weight |
a. >12.5 g/dL(125g/L)
b. >38% c. <180 systolic <100 diastolic d. <37.4 C (99.5F) e. 50-100 f. >110 lb. (50kg) |
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Venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution of:
a. hypochlorite b. isopropyl alcohol c. 10% acetone d. PVP iodine comples |
D. PVP iodine complex
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All donors blood testing must include:
a. complete Rh phenotype b. anti-CMV testing c. DAT d. serological test for syphilis |
D. serological test for syphilis
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During the preparation of Platlet Concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be:
a. cooled towards 6 C b. cooled towards 20-24 C c. warmed to 37 C d. heated to 57 C |
B. cooled towards 20-24 C
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The western blot is a confirmatory test for:
a.CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HBsAg d. serum protein abnormality |
B. anti-HIV-1
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The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is:
a. anti-HBc b. anti-HIV-1,2 c. HBsAg d. ALT |
B. anti-HIV-1,2
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A commonly used screening method for anti-HIV detection is;
a. latex agglutination b. RIA c. TLC d. ELISA |
D. ELISA
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A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8am. The expiration time for each aliquot is:
a. 4pm the same day b. 8pm the same say c. 8am the next morning d. the original date of the unsplit unit |
D. the original date of the unsplit unit
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When platlets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temps. must be recorded:
a. once a day b. twice a day c. every 4 hours d. every hour |
C. every 4 hours
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Which of the following is the correct storage temp for the component listed:
a. Cryo AHF |
4*C
b. FFP - -20*C c. Frozen RBC - -40*C d. Platlets - 37* C - B. FFP - -20*C |
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A unit of RBC's is issued at 9am and at 9:10am it is returned to the blood bank. the container has NOT been entered but the unit has NOT been refrigerated during this time span. the best course of action for the tech is to:
a. culture the unit for bacteria b. discard the unit if not used within 24 hrs c. store the unit at room temp d. record the return and place the unit back into inventory |
D. record the return and placed the unit back into inventory
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Optimun storage temperature for RBC's
a. -80*C b. -20*C c. -12*C d. 4*C |
D. 4*C
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If the seal is entered on a unit of RBC's stored at 1*C to 6*C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours?
a. 6 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 |
B. 24 hours
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Optimum storage for cryo AHF is:
a. -20*C b. -12*C c. 4*C d. 22*C |
A. -20*C
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Cryo AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling?
a. 4 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 12 hrs d. 24 hrs. |
A. 4 hours
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Platlets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22*-24*C in 50mL of plasma and gentlly agitated can be used for up to:
a. 24 hrs b. 48 hrs c. 3 days d. 5 days |
D. 5 days
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Optimum storage temperature for platelets:
a. -20*C b. -12*C c. 4*C d. 22*C |
D. 22*C
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According to AABB standards FFP must be infused within what period of time following thawing:
a. 24 hrs b. 36 hrs c. 48 hrs d. 72 hrs |
A. 24 hours
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Cryo AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18*C or below, has a shelf life of:
a. 42 days b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 36 months |
C. 12 months
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Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within:
a. 4 hrs b. 8 hrs c. 12 hrs d. 24 hrs |
D. 24 hours
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In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:
a. 1 |
6*C
b. 22*C c. 37*C d. 56*C - A. 1 - 6*C |
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Which apherisis platelets product should be irradiated:
a. autologous unit collected prior to surgery b. random stock unit going to a patient with DIC c. a directed donation given by a mother for her son d. a directed donation given by an unrelated family friend |
C. a directed donation given by a mother for her son
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Irradiation of a unit of RBC's is done to prevent the replication of donor:
a. granulocytes b. lymphocytes c. red cells d. platelets |
B. Lymphocytes
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Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing FFP in 37*C waterbath. because they prevent:
a. FFP bag from cracking b. water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane c. the entry ports from being contaminated with water d. the label from peeling |
C. the entry portals from being contaminated with water
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Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hrs after phlebotomy:
a. RBC's b. FFP c. Frozen rbc's d. Cryp AHF |
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
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A blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator temp and removing the fluid portion is:
a. Plasma Protein Fraction b. Cryo AHF c. Factor IX Complex d. FP24 |
B. Cryoprecipitated AHF
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Upon inspection, a unit of Plts is noted to have visible clots. but otherwise appears normal. the tech should:
a. issue without concern b. filter to remove clots c. centrifuge to express off the clots d. quarantine for gram stain and culture |
D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture
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Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole Blood:
a. light spin followed by hard spin b. light spin followed by 2 hard spins c. 2 light spins d. hard spin followed by a light spin |
A. light spin followed by a hard spin
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The linked HLA genes on each chomosome constitutes a:
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
D. Haplotype
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A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phenotype?
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
C. O
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An individual has been sensitzed to the k antigen and has produced and anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
A. KK
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Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicitly:
a. African Amer. b. Asian Amer. c. Native Amer. d. Cuacasian |
A. African American
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The linked HLA genes on each chomosome constitutes a:
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
D. Haplotype
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In an emergency situtation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E |
A. Anti-c
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A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phentype?
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
C. O
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Most blood group systems are inherited as:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
D. autosomal codominant
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The linked HLA genes on each chomosome constitutes a:
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
D. Haplotype
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce:
a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters |
C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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An individual has been sensitzed to the k antigen and has produced and anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
A. KK
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Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicitly:
Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-) Js(a+b+) a. African Amer. b. Asian Amer. c. Native Amer. d. Cuacasian |
A. African American
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The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
C. Le(a+b-)
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A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phentype:
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
C. O
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In an emergency situtation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E |
A. Anti-c
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Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-F:
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
A. rr
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An individual has been sensitzed to the k antigen and has produced and anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
A. KK
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Most blood group systems are inferited as:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
D. autosomal codominant
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A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a neg DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.
a. rr b.r"r c. R1r d. R2r |
C. R1r
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Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicitly:
Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-) Js(a+b+) a. African Amer. b. Asian Amer. c. Native Amer. d. Cuacasian |
A. African American
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce:
a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters |
C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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In an emergency situtation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E |
A. Anti-c
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The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
C. Le(a+b-)
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Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-F:
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
A. rr
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Most blood group systems are inherited as:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
D. autosomal codominant
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A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a neg DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.
a. rr b.r"r c. R1r d. R2r |
C. R1r
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce:
a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters |
C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
C. Le(a+b-)
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which of the following phenotype will react with anti-F:
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
A. rr
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A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a neg DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.
a. rr b.r"r c. R1r d. R2r |
C. R1r
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The linked HLA genes on each chomosome constitutes a:
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
D. Haplotype
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A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phentype:
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
C. O
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An individual has been sensitzed to the k antigen and has produced and anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
A. KK
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Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicitly:
a. African Amer. b. Asian Amer. c. Native Amer. d. Cuacasian |
A. African American
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In an emergency situtation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E |
A. Anti-c
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Most blood group systems are inherited as:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
D. autosomal codominant
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce:
a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters |
C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
C. Le(a+b-)
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Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-F:
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
A. rr
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A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a neg DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.
a. rr b.r"r c. R1r d. R2r |
C. R1r
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The linked HLA genes on each chomosome constitutes a:
a. allele b. trait c. phenotype d. haplotype |
D. Haplotype
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A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phentype:
a. A b. B c. O d. AB |
C. O
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An individual has been sensitzed to the k antigen and has produced and anti-k. What is her most probable Kell system genotype:
a. KK b. Kk c. kk d. K0K0 |
A. KK
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Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicitly:
a. African Amer. b. Asian Amer. c. Native Amer. d. Cuacasian |
A. African American
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In an emergency situtation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:
a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E |
A. Anti-c
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Most blood group systems are inherited as:
a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant |
D. autosomal codominant
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The mating of an Xg(a+) man and a Xg(a-) women will only produce:
a. Xg(a-)sons + Xg(a-) daughters b. Xg(a+)sons + Xg(a+)daughters c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters d. Xg(a+) sons + Xg(a-) daughters |
C. Xg(a-) sons and Xg(a+) daughters
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The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:
a. Le(a-b-) b. Le(a+b+) c. Le(a+b-) d. Le(a-b+) |
C. Le(a+b-)
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which of the following phenotype will react with anti-F:
a. rr b. R1R1 c. R2R2 d. R1R2 |
A. rr
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A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a neg DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.
a. rr b.r"r c. R1r d. R2r |
C. R1r
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Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African Americans:
a. Lu(a-b-) b. Jk(a-b-) c. Fy(a-b-) d. K-k- |
C. Fy(a-b-)
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4 units of blood are needed for elective surgery. the patient serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-Fya and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood:
a. test all units in current stock b. test 100 group O Rh-neg c. test 100 group compatible donors d. rare donor file |
D. Rare Donor File
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In relationship testing a "Direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is:
a. absent in child, present in mother and alleged father b. absent in child, present in mother and absent in alleged father c. present in child, absent in mother and present in father alleged father d. present in child, absent in the mother and alleged father |
D. Present in child, absent in the mother and the alleged father
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In a relationship testing case the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. What type of paternity exclusion is this:
a. indirect b. direct c. prior probablilty d. Hardy-Weinbery |
B. Direct
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Human blood groups were dicovered around 1900 by:
a. Jules Bordet b. Louis Pasteur c. Karl Landsteiner d. PL Mollison |
C. Karl Landsteiner
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Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
a. react with Dolichos biflorus b. bE-with anti-A c. five a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B d. bE- with anti-H |
C. give a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B
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The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell membrane is alpha_:
a. galactosyl transferase b. n-acetylgalactosaminyl tranferase c. L-fucosyl transferase d. N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase |
C. L-fucosyl transferase
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Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the bombay phenotype will always have naturally occuring:
a. anti-Rh b. anti-K0 c. anti-U d. anti-H |
D. Anti-H
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The antibody in the Luthern system that is best detected at lower temps:
a. anti-Lua b. anti-Lub c. anti-Lu3 d. anti-Luab |
A. Anti-Lua
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Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if:
a. the patient has been previously transfused b. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile c. the patient is group A or B d. only a small number of panel cells are reactive |
B. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile
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HLA antibodies are:
a. naturally occuring b. induced by multiple transfusions c. directed against granulocyte antigen only d. frequently cause hemolytic transfusion reactions. |
B. induced by multiple transfusions
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Genes of the major histocompatibility complex:
a. code for HLA-A,HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only b. are linked to genes in the ABO system c. are the primary genetic sex-determinants d. contribute to the coordiation of cellular and humoral immunity |
D. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity
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Saliva from which of the following individuals would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient:
a. group A, Le(a-b-) b. group A, Le(a+b-) c. group O, Le(a+b-) d. group O, Le(a-b+) |
D. Group O, Le(a-b+)
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Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians:
a. D b. E c. c d. e |
D. e
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Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A:
a. M,N b. Lea, Leb c. S, s d. P, P1,pk |
A. M,N
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Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-f?
a. associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis c. detected at lower temps in the serum of normal individuals d. found only in the serum of group O individuals |
B. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
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Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the following:
a. Kell system antigens b. Duffy system antigens c. P antigen d. I antigen |
C. P antigen
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In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with:
a. group A cells, B cells and O cells, but not his own cells b.cord cells but not his own or other adult cells c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells d. only penicillin treated panel cells, not his own |
C. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells
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Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following:
a. Fy:3 b. P c. I d. Rh:1 |
C. I
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Which of the following is a characterisitc of anti-I?
a. often associated with HDFN b. reacts best at room temp or 4*C c. reacts best at 37*C d. is usually IgG |
B. reacts best at room temperature or 4*C
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The Kell antigen is:
a. absent from the red cells of neonates b. strongly immunogenic c. destroyed by enzymes d. has a frequency of 50% in the random population |
B. strongly immunogenic
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The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:
a. react best by the IAT b. are predominately IgM c. often cause allergic transfusion reactions d. do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBC's |
A. react best by the IAT
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Protolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
a. Jka b. E c. Fya d. k |
C. Fya
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Anti-Fya is:
a. usually a cold reactive agglutinin b. more reactive when tested with enzyme treated RBC's c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions d. often an autoagglutinin |
C. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions
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Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the following blood groups.
a. Rh b. I/i c. P d. Duffy |
D. Duffy
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A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is:
a. Factor VIII concentrate b. FFP c. Platelets d. Whole Blood |
A. Factor VIII Concentrate
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An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. her 1st baby was healthy, the 2nd was jaundiced at birth and required and exchange transfusion, while the 3rd was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause:
a. ABO incompatability b. immune deficiency disease c. congenital spherocytic anemia d. Rh incompatability |
D. Rh incompatability
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ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn:
a. usually requires an exchange transfusion b. most often occurs in 1st born children c. frequently results in stillbirth d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers |
D. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers
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Which of the following antigens in most likely to be involve in HDFN.
a. Lea b. P1 c. M d. Kell |
D. Kell
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ABO HDFN differs from Rh HDFN is that:
a. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe that ABO HDFN b. the DAT test is weaker in Rh HDFN than ABO c. Rh HDFN occurs in the 1st pregnancy d. the mother's antibody screen is positive in ABO HDFN |
A. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
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A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive DAT and moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. the most likely cause is:
a. ABO incompatability b. Rh incompatability c. blood group incompatibility due to and antibody to a low frequency antigen d. neonatal jaundice not associated with blood group |
A. ABO incompatability
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The Liley method of predicting the severity of HDFN is based on the amniotic fluid:
a. bilirubin concentration by standard methods b. change in optical density measured at 450nm c. Rh determination d. ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin |
B. change in optical density measured at 450 nm
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These lab results were obtained on maternal and cord blood samples:
Mother: A- baby: AB+ DAT 3+ cord hemoglobin 10g/dL Does the baby have HDFN? a. no, as indicated by the cord hemoglobin b. yes, although the cord hemoglobin is normal, the DAT indicates HDFN c. yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDFN d. no, a diagnosis of HDN cannot be established without cord bilirubin levels |
C. Yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDN
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Which unit should be selected for exchange transfusion if the newborn is group A, Rh pos. and the mother is Group A, Rh pos with anti-c?
a. A, CDe/CDe b. A, cDE/cDE c. O, cde/cde d. A, cde/cde |
A. A,CDe/CDe
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A blood specimen from a pregnant woman is found to be group B, Rh neg. and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 512. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant?
a. O, Rh-neg b. O, Rh-pos c. B, Rh-neg d. B, Rh-pos |
A. O, Rh-neg
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Blood selected for exchange transfusion must:
a. lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies b. be <3 days old c. be the same Rh as the baby d. be ABO compatible with the father |
A. lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies
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When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's antibody-sensitized RBC's and to control hyperbilirubinemia the blood product of choice is ABO compatabile:
a. FFP b. RBC's washed c. RBC suspended in FFP d. heparinized RBC's |
C. RBC suspended in FFP
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To prevent graft vs host disease RBC's prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be:
a. saline washed b. irradiated c. frozen and deglycerolized d. group-and Rh-compatabile with the mother |
B. irradiated
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What is the most appropriate interpretation for the laboratory data given below when an Rh-neg woman has an Rh-pos child?
mother: 1 rosette/3 fields Pos. Cntl.: 5 rosetts/3 fields Neg Cntl: no rosettes a. mother is not a candidate for RhIg b. mother need 1 vial RhIg c. mother need 2 vials RhIg d. the fetal maternal hemorrhage needs to be quantified |
B. mother needs 1 vial of RhIg
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The results of a Kleihauer-Butke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of WHOLE BLOOD. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
B. 2 vials
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A fetal maternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of fetal Rh-pos PACKED RBC's has been detected in an Rh-neg woman. How many vials of Rh immune globulin should be given
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 |
D. 3 vials
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Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include:
a. mother is Rh-pos b. mother is Rh-neg c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen d. infant has a positive DAT |
C. mother has not been previously immumized to the D antigen
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Rh immume globulin administration would not be indicated in an Rh-neg woman who has a:
a. first trimester abortion b. husband who is Rh-pos c. anti-D titer of 1:4,096 d. mother having a positive DAT |
C. anti-D titer of 1:4, 096
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A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3 fetal cells. What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood:
a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 |
B. 15
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Based upon Kleinhauer-Betke test results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed in mL of whole blood.
a % of fetal cell present x 30 b % of fetal cell present x 50 c % of maternal cells x 30 d % of maternal cells x 50 |
B. % of fetal cells present x 50
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The rosette test will detect a fetomaternal hemorrhage as small as:
a. 10 mL b. 15 mL c. 20 mL d. 30 mL |
A. 10 mL
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A 40 year old man with autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to anti-E has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL. This patient will most likely be treated with:
a. whole blood b. RBC's c. FFP d. no transfusion |
D. No Transfusion
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A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period has a hematocrit of 21%. The red cell product of choice for this patient would be:
a. packed b. saline washed c. microaggregate filtered d. irradiated |
D. Irradiated
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HLA antigen typing is important in screening for:
a. ABO incompatability b. a kidney donor c. Rh incompatability d. a blood donor |
B. a kidney donor
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Anti-E is identified in a panel at the antiglobulin phase. When check cells are added to the tubes no agglutination is seen. The most appropriate course of action would be to:
a. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel b. open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day c. open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day d. record the check cell reactions and report the antibody panel result |
A. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel
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Which of the following represents an acceptably identified patient for sample collection and transfusion
a. a handwritten band with patients name and hospital identification number is affixed to the patients leg b. the addressographed hospital band is taped to the patients bed c. an unbanded patient responds positively when his name is called d. the chart transported witht he patient contains his armband not yet attached |
A. a handwritten band with patients name and hospital identification number is affixed to the patients leg
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The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled group A, Rh-neg,
anti-A 4+ anti-B 0 anti-D 3+ What should be done next? a. transfuse as a group A, Rh-neg b. transfuse as a group A, Rh-pos c. notify the collecting facility d. discard the unit |
C. notify the collecting facilty
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What information is essential on patient blood sample labels drawn for compatability testing?
a. biohazard sticker for AIDS patients b. patients room number c. unique patient medical # d. phlebotomist initials |
C. unique patient medical number
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Granulocytes for transfusion should:
a. be administered through a microaggregate filter b. be ABO compatible with the recipients serum c. be infused within 72 hrs of collection d. never be transfused to patients with a history of febrile transfusion reaction. |
B. be ABO compatabile with the recipients serum
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A neonate will be transfused for the first time with group O Red Blood Cells. Which of the following is appropriate compatibility testing?
a. crossmatch with mothers serum b. crossmatch with babys serum c. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative d. no screening or crossmatching is necessary for neonates |
C. no crossmatch is necessary if intial plasma screening is negative
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A group B, Rh-neg patient has a positive DAT. Which of the following situations would occur?
a. all major crossmatches would be incompatible b. the weak D test and control would be positive c. the antibody screen test would be positive d. the forward and reverse ABO groupings would not agree |
B. the weak D test and control would be positive
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The following reaction were obtained:
cells tested anti-A 4+ anti-B 3+ anti-A,B 4+ serum test: A1 cells 2+ B cells 4+ The technologist washed the patients cells with saline and repeated the forward typing. A saline replacement technique was used with the reverse typing. the following results were obtained: anti-A 4+ anti-B 0 anti-A,B 4+ serum A1 cells 0 B cells 4+ the results are consistent with: a. acquired immunodeficiency disease b. Bruton agammaglobulinemia c. multiple myeloma d. acquired "B" antigen |
C. multiple myeloma
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What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy?
Cells anti-A 0 anti-B 0 serum A1 cells 0 B cells 0 a. recent transfusion with group O blood b. antigen depression due to leukemia c. false-neg cell typing due to rouleaux d. obtrained from the heel stick of a 2 month old baby |
D. obtained from a heel stick of a 2 month old baby
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Which of the following is characteristic of Tn polyagglutinable red cells?
a. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen b. they show strong reactions when the cells are enzyme treated c. they react with Arachis hypogaea lectin d. the polyagglutination is a transient condition |
A. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen
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Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to:
a. Bombay phenotyoe (oh) b. T activation c. A3 red cells d. positive IAT |
C. A3 red cells
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Which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells?
a. can be classified by reactivitly with Ulex europaeus b. are agglutinated by most adult sera c. are always an acquired condition d. autocontrol is always positive |
B. Are agglutinated by most adult sera
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The test for weak D is performed by incubating patients red cells with:
a. several different dilutions of anti-D derum b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum c. anti-Du serum d. antiglobulin serum |
B. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
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The following results were obtained when testing a sample from a 20 year old first time blood donor
Forward anti-A 0 anti-B 0 Reverse A1 cells 0 B cells 3+ What is the most likely cause of tis ABO discrepancy? a. loss of antigen due to disease b. acquired B C. phenotype O"h" (bombay) d. weak subgroup of A |
D. phenotype O "h" (Bombay)
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A mother is Rh neg and the father is Rh pos. their baby is Rh neg. It may be concluded that
a. the father is homozygous for D b. the mother is heterozygous for D c. the father is heterozygous for S d. at least 1 of the 3 Rh typings must be incorrect |
C. the father is heterozygous for D
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Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate red cells in the presence of:
a. complement b. anticoagulants c. preservatives d. penicillin |
A. complement
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Review the following schematic diagram:
patient serum+reagent group O cells --- incubate---read for agglutination---wash---add AHG---agglutination observed The next step would be: a. add check cells as a confirmatory measure b. identify the cause of the agglutination c. perform an elution technique d. perform a DAT |
B. identify the cause of the agglutination
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The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
sceen cell 1 @37*C 0 @IAT 3+ sceen cell 2 @37*C 0 @IAT 3+ autocontrol @37*C 0 @IAT 3+ The most probable cause of these results are: a. rouleaux b. a warm autoantibody c. a cold autoantibody d. multiple alloantobodies |
B. a warm autoantibody
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A patient is typed as group O,Rh pos and crossmatched with 6 units of blood. At the IAT phase of testing, both antibody screening cells and 2 crossmatched units are incompatable. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?
a. recipient alloantibody b. recipient autoantibody c. donors have pos. DAT's d. rouleaux |
A. recipient alloantibody
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a patient received 2 units of RBC's and had a delayed transfusion reaction. Pretranfusion antibody screening records indicate no agglutination except after the addition of IgG sensitized cells. Repeat testing of the pretransfusion specimen detected an antibody at the antiglobulin phase. what is the most likely explanation for the original results?
a. red cell were overwashed b. centrifuge time was prolonged c. patient's serum was omitted from the original test d. antiglobulin reagent was neutralized |
C. patient's serum was omitted from the original testing
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At the indirect antiglobulin phase of testing there is no agglutination between patient serum and screening cells. One of 3 donor units was incompatable. The most probable explanation for these findings is that the:
a. patient has an antibody directed against a high incidence antigen b, patient has an antibody directed against a low incidence antigen c. donor has an antibody directed against donor cells d. donor has a positive antibody screen |
B. patient has an antibody against a low incidence antigen
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The major crossmatch will detect an:
a. group A patient mistyped as a group O b. unexpected red cell antibody in the donor unit c. Rh-neg donor unit mislabeled as Rh-pos d. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells |
D. recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells
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Which of the following would most likely be responsible for an incompatible antiglobulin crossmatch?
a recipients red cells possess a low frequency antigen b. anti-K antibody in donor serum c. recipients red cells are polyagglutinable d. donor red cells have a positive DAT |
D. donor red cells have a positive DAT
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A reason why a patient's crossmatch may be incompatible while the antibody screen is negative is:
a. the patient has an antibody against a high incidence antigen b. the incompatible donor unit has a positive DAT c. cold agglutinins are interfering in the crossmatch d. the patient's serum contains warm autoantibody |
B. the incompatible donor unit has a positive DAT
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A blood specimen types as A, Rh-pos with a negative antibody screen. 6 units of group A, Rh-pos RBC's were crossmatched and 1 unit was incompatable in the antiglobulin phase. The same result was obtained when the test was repeated. Which should be done first?
a. repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using a more sensitive technique b. test a panel of red cells that possesses low incidence antigens c. perform a DAT on the donor unit d. obtain a new specimen and repeat the crossmatch |
C. preform a direct antiglobulin test on the donor unit
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During emergency situations when there is no time to determine ABO group and Rh type on a current sample for transfustion, the patient is known to be A, Rh-neg. the technologist should:
a. refuse to release any blood until the patient's sample has been typed b. release A Rh-neg RBC's c. release O Rh-neg RBC's d. release O Rh-pos RBC's |
C. release O, Rh-neg RBC's
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A 29 year old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-neg. 6 units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which would be most preferable for crossmatch?
a. AB,Rh-pos b. A, Rh-neg c. A, Rh-pos d. O, Rh-neg |
B. A, Rh-neg
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A patient is group A2B, Rh-pos and has a antiglobulin reacting anti-A1in his serum. He is in the operating room bleeding profusely and group A2B RBC's are not available. Which of the following blood types is first choice for crossmatching?
a. B,Rh-pos b. B, Rh-neg c. A1B, Rh-pos d. O, Rh-neg |
A. B,Rh-pos
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A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?
a. a false-pos result due to antigen excess b. a false-pos result due to the prozone phenomenon c. a false-neg result due to the prozone phenomenon d. a false-neg result due to antigen excess |
D. a false-negative result due to antigen excess
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A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to:
a. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced b. recommend the use of directed donors, which are more likely to be compatible c. use proteolytic enzymes to destroy the "in vitro" activity of some of the antbodies d. freeze the patient's serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units |
A. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
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Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more often with which blood group system.
a. Rh b. I c. P d. Duffy |
A. Rh
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An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of 10 crossmatched donor units is most likely:
a. anti-Lea b. anti-s c. anti-k d. anti-E |
A. anti- Lea
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In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 out of the 10 cells in a panel after the immediate spin phase. There was no reactivity after incubation at 37*C and after the anti-human globulin test phase. The antibody most likely is:
a. anti-Pa b. anti-Lea c. anti-C d. anti-Fya |
B. anti-Lea
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Transfusion of Ch+(Chido-pos) red cells to a patient with anti-Ch has been reported to cause:
a. no clinically significant red cell destrustion b. clincally significant immune red cell destruction c. desreased 51Cr red cell survivals d. febrile transfusion reactions |
A. no clinically significant red cell destruction
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Which characteristics are true of all 3 of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka and anti-K?
a. detected at IAT phase and may cause HDFN and transfustion reactions b. not detected with enzyme treated cells; may cause delayed transfusion reactions c. requires the IAT technique for detection' usually not responsible for causing HDFN d. may show dosage effect; may cause sever hemolytic transfusion reactions |
A. detected at IAT phase and may cause HDFN and transfusion reactions
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Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood cells in vivo?
a. DAT b. complement fixation c. IAT d. immunofluorescence |
A. direct antiglobulin test
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In a DAT and IAT tests, false-neg reactions may result in the:
a. patient's blood specimen was contaminated with bacteria b. patient's blood specimen was collected into tubes containing silicon gel c. saline used for washing the serum/cell mixture has been stored in glass or metal containers d. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture. |
D. addition of AHG is delayed for 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture
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Polyspecific reagents used in the DAT test should have specificity for:
a. IgG and IgA b. IgG and C3d c. IgM and IgA d. IgM and C3d |
D. IgM and C3d
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In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to:
a. mediate hemolysis of indicator red cells by providing complement b. precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies c. measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement d. detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes |
D. detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes
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AHG control cells:
a. can be used as a poitive control for anti-C3 reagents b. can be used only for the IAT c. are coated only with IgG antibody d. must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions |
C. are coated with IgG
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A 56 year old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive DAT. When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?
a. IgM b. IgG c. C3d d. C4a |
C. C3d
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Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:
a. causing rapid decay of complement components b. chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6 c. chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1 d. preventing chemotaxis |
C. chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
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The drug cephalsporin can cause a positive DAT with hemolysis by which of the following mechanisms?
a. drug dependent antibodies reacting with drug treated cells. b. drug dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of a drug c. drug independent with autoantibody production d. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive dat |
b. drug dependent antibodies reacting in the pressence of a drug
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Crossmatch results at the antiglobulin phase were neg. When 1 drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The most likely explantion is that the:
a. red cells were overwashed b. centrifuge speed was to high c. residual patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent d. laboratorian did not add enough check cells |
c. residual patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
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Which of the following might cause a false-neg IAT?
a. over-reading b. IgG coated screen cells c. addition of an extra drop of serum d. too heavy a cell suspension |
D. too heavy a cell suspension
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The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
a. anti-A1 b. anti-A2 c. subgroups of A d. subgroups of B |
C. subgroups of A
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What is the most appropriate diluent for preparing a solution of 8% bovine albumine for red cell control reagent?
a. deionized water b. destilled c. normal saline d. Alserver solution |
C. normal saline
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Which of the following antigens gives exhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic exzymes?
a. Fya b. E c. S d. M |
B. E
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Of the following the most useful technique in the identification and classification of high-titer, low-avidity antibodies is/are:
a. reagent red cell panels b. adsorption and elution c. titration and inhibition d. cold autoadsorption |
C. titration and inhibition
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To confirm a serum antibody specificity identified a anti-P1, a neutralization study was performed and the following results obtained:
serum + P1 substance serum + saline both negative with P1 + RBC's What conclusion can be made from these results. a. anti-P1 is confirmed b. anti-P1 is ruled out c. a second antibody is suspected due to the results of the neg ative control d. anti-P1 cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control |
D. anti-P1 cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control
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An antibody screen performed using solid phase technology revealed a diffuse layer of RBC's on the bottom of the well. these results indicate:
a. a positive reaction b. a negative reaction c. serum was not added d. red cells have a positive DAT |
A. a positive reaction
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On Monday a patient's K antigen typing result was positive. 2 days later the patient's K typing was negative. The patient was transfused with 2 units of FFP. The tech might conclude that the:
a. transusion of FFP affected the K typing b. wrong patient was drawn c. decreased serum bilirubin d. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera |
D. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera
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While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is performed and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation:
a. original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed b. replacement test is invalid and should be repeated c. original reaction was due to true agglutination d. antibody screen is negative |
C. original reaction was due to true agglutination
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Which of the following is useful for removing IgG from RBC's with a positive DAT to perform a phenotype?
a. bromelin b. chloroquine c. LISS d. DTT |
B. chloroquine
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A patient's serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka and Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique may be helpful to identify the other antibody?
a. enzyme panel: select cell panel b. thiol reagents c. lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time d. using albumin as an enhancement media in combination with selective adsorption |
A. enzyme panel; select cell panel
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A sample gave the following results:
cells with anti-A 3+ cells with anti-B 4+ serum with A1 cells 2+ serum with b cells 0 Which lectin should be used first to resolve the discrepancy? a. Ulex europaeus b. Arachis hypogaea c. Dolichos biflorus d. Vicia graminea |
C. Dolichos biflorus
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The serum of a group O, Cde/Cde donor contains anti-D. In order to prepare a suitable anti-D reagent from this donor's serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption?
a. group O. Cde/Cde b. group O, Cde/cde c. group A2B, CDe/cde d. groupA1B, cde/cde |
D. group A1B, cde/cde cells
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The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
a. diffusion b. adsorption c. neutralization d. elution |
D. elution
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One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBC's utilizes:
a. 10% sucrose b. LISS c. change is pH d. distilled water |
C. change in pH
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How would the hematocrit of a patient with chronic anemia be affected by the transfusion of a unit of Whole Blood containing 475 mL of blood, vs 2 units of RBC's each with a total volume of 250 mL?
a. patient's hematocrit would be equally affected by the Whole Blood or the RBC's b. RBC's would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Whole Blood c. Whole Blood would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the RBC's d. Whole Blood would provide a change in hematocrit slightly less than the RBC's |
B. RBC's would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Whole Blood
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After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked "May Issue an Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only"
Which of the following should be place on this shelf? a. 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups b. units of group O, Rh-pos Whole Blood c. units of group O, Rh-neg RBC's d. any units that are expiring at midnight |
C. units of group O, Rh-neg RBC's
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A 42 year old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. 2 units of RBC's are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0g/dL, the expected posttransfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:
a. 8.0 g/dL(80g/L) b. 9.0 g/dL(90g/L) c. 10.0 g/dL(100g/L) d. 11.0 g/dL(110g/L) |
B. 9.0 g.dL (90g/L)
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How many units of RBC's are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70 kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
B. 2
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Transfusion of plateletpheresis products fro HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia b. acute leukemia in relapse with neuropenia, thrombocytopenia and sepsis c. immune thrombocytopenic purpura d. severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets |
D. severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
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Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of FFP?
a. only blood group specific plasma may be administered b. group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups c. group AB may be administered to AB recipients only d. group A may be administered to both A and O recipients |
D. group A may be administered to both A and O recipients
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A patient who is group AB, Rh-neg needs 2 units of FFP. Which of the following units of plasma wouldbe nost acceptable for transfusion?
a. group O, Rh-neg b. group A, Rh-neg c. group B, Rh-pos d. group AB, Rh-pos |
D. group AB, Rh-pos
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What increment of platelets/uL in the typical 70-kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of platelets transfused to a non-HLA sensitized recipient?
a. 3,000 |
5,000
b. 5,000 - 10,000 c. 20,000 - 25,000 d. 25,000 - 30.000 - B. 5,000 - 10,000 |
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A patient received about 15mL of compatible blood and developed severe shock, but no fever. If the patient needs another transfusion, what kind of RBC component should be given?
a. RBC's b. RBC's, washed c. RBC's, Irradiated d. RBC's, leukocyte reduced |
B. Red Blood Cells. Washed
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FFP from a group A, Rh-pos donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group:
a. A, Rh-neg b. B, Rh-neg c. AB, Rh-pos d. AB, Rh-neg |
A. A, Rh-neg
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A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of FFP. His blood donor card states that he is group AB,Rh-pos. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
a. A b. B c. AB d. O |
C. AB
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FFP:
a. contains all labile coaglulative factors except cryo AHF b. has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than does Whole Blood c. should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing d. need not be ABO compatible |
C. should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing
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10 units of group A platelets were tranfused to a group AB patient. The pretransfusion platelet count was 12 x 10 to the 3rd/uL and the posttransfusion count was 18 x 10 to the 3rd/uL. From this information the laboratorian would most likely conclude that the patient:
a. needs group AB platelets to be effective b. clinical data does not suggest a need for platelets c. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets d. should receive irradiated platelets |
C. has developed antibodies to the transfused platelets
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Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. allergic b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylatic |
c. Hemolytic
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An unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with RBC's 1 week previously would most likely indicate:
a. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria b. posttransfusion hepatitis infection c. presence of HLA antibodies d. delayed hemolytic tranfusion reaction |
D. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
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In a delayed transfusion reaction the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests, but is typically detectable at what point after transfusion?
a. 3-6 hours b. 3-7 days c. 60-90 days d. after 120 days |
B. 3-7 days
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The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?
a. ABO b. Rh c. MN d. Duffy |
A. ABO
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Servere intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
a. ABO b. Rh c. Kell d. Duffy |
A. ABO
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Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
a. Lewis b. Kidd c. MNS d. I |
b. Kidd
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After receiving a unit of RBC's, a patient immediately developed flushing, nervousness, fever spike of 102*F, shaking, chills and back pain. The plasma hemoglobin was elevated and there was hemoglobinuria. Laboratory investigation of this adverse reaction would most likely show:
a. an error in ABO grouping b. an error in Rh typing c. presence of anti-Fya in patient's serum d. presence of gram-neg bacteria in blood bag |
A. an error in ABO grouping
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A trauma patient who has just received 10 units of blood may develop:
a. anemia b. polycythemia c. leukocytosis d. thrombocytopenia |
D. thrombocytopenia
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The most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute posttransfusion hemolysis is:
a. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin b. plasma haptoglobin concentration c. examination for hematuria d. serum bilirubin concentration |
A. a visual inspection for free plasma hemoglobin
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During initial investigation of a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction, it was observed that the posttransfusion serum was yellow in color and the DAT was negative. Repeat ABO typing on the posttransfusion sample confirmed the pretransfusion results. What is the next step in this investigation?
a. repeat compatibility testing on suspected units b. perform plasma hemoglobin and haptoglobin determinations c. use enhancement media to repeat the antibody screen d. no further serological testing is necessary |
D. no further serological testing is necessary
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Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC, and renal failure?
a. bacterial contamination b. circulatory overload c. febrile d. anaphylactic |
A. bacterial contamination
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Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. allergic b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylatic |
C. hemolytic
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When evaluating a suspected tranfusion reaction, which of the following is the ideal sample collection time for a bilirubin determination?
a. 6 hrs posttransfusion b. 12 hrs posttransfusion c. 24 hrs posttransfusion d. 48 hrs posttransfusion |
A. 6 hrs posttransfusion
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A patients's records show a previous anti- Jkb, but the current antibody screen is neg. What further testing should be done before transfusion?
a. phenotype the patient's red cells for Jkb antigen b. perform a cell panel on the patient's serum c. crossmatch type specific units and release only compatible units for transfusion d. give Jkb neg crossmatch compatible blood |
D. give Jkb negative crossmatch blood
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A posttransfusion blood sample from a patient experiencing chills and fever show distinct hemolysis. TheDAT is positive(mixed field). What would be the most helpful to determine the cause of the reaction?
a. auto control b. elution and antibody ID c. repeat antibody screen on the donor unit d. bacteriologic smear and culture |
B. elution and antibody identification
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In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, the DAT is typically:
a. negative b. mixed-field positive c. positive due to complement d. negative when the antibody screen is negative |
b. mixed-field positive
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For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to:
a. prevent alloimmunization b. diminish chills and fever c. prevent hemoglobinemia d. reverse hyptension and minimize renal disease |
D. reverse hyptension and minimize renal damage
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A patient multiply transfused with RBC's developed a headache, nausea, fever and chills during his last transfusion. What component is most appropriate to prevent this reaction in the future?
a. RBC's b. RBC's, irradiated c. RBC's, leukocyte reduced d. RBC's selected as CMV-reduced-risk |
c. RBC's leulocyte reduced
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Leukocyte-poor RBC's would most likely be indicated for patients with a history of :
a. febrile transfusion reaction b. iron deficiency anemia c. hemphilia A d. von Willebrand disease |
A. febrile transfusion reactions
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Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:
a. leukocyte antibodies b. erythrocyte antibodies c. IgA deficiency d. Factor VIII deficiency |
C. IgA deficiency
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Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?
a. febrile b. circulatory overload c. anaphylactic d. hemolytic |
C. anaphylatic
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Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. citrate toxicity b. circulatory overload c. allergic d. febrile |
D. febrile
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Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. bacterial |
B. allergic
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A temp. rise of 1*C or more occuring is association with a transfusion, with no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction investigation. usually indicates which of the following reactions?
a. febrile b. circulatory overload c. hemolytic d. anaphylactic |
A. febrile
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A 65 yr old woman experienced shaking, chill, and a fever of 102*F(38.9*C) approximately 40 minutes following the transfusion of a second unit of RBC's. The most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms is:
a. transfusion of bacteriall contaminated blood b. congestive heart failure c. anaphylactic transfusion reaction d. febrile transfusion reaction |
D. Febrile transfusion reaction
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A sickle cell patient who has been multiply transfused experiences fever and chills after receiving a unit of RBC's. Transfusion investigation studies show:
DAT: neg Plasma hemolysis: none The patient is most likely reacting to: a. IgA b. plasma protein c. red cells d. white cells or cytokines |
D. white cells or cytokines
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Symtoms of dyspnea, cough, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hrs. of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
a. anaphylactic b. hemolytic c. febrile d. TRALI |
D. TRALI
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A patient with a coagulopathy was transfused with FP24(FFP within 24 hrs of collection). After infusion of 15 mL, the patient experienced hypotension, shock, chest pain and difficulty in breathing. The most likely cause of the reaction is:
a. anti-IgA b. bacterial contamination c. intravascular hemolysis d. leukoagglutinins |
A. anti-IgA
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To prevent febrile transfusion reactions, which RBC product should be transfused?
a. RBC's irradiated b. CMV-neg RBC's c. RBC's, leukocyte reduced d. IgA-deficient donor blood |
C. RBC's leuko-reduced
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During the issue of an autologous unit of Whole Blood, the supernatant plasma is observed to be dark red in color. What would be the best course of action?
a. the unit may be issued only for autologous use b. remove the plasma and issue the unit as RBC's c. issue the unit only as washed RBC's d. quanantine the unit for further testing |
D. quarantine the unit for further testing
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Coughing, cyanosis and difficult breathing ar symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
a. febrile b. allergic c. circulatory overload d. hemolytic |
C. circulatory overload
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Which of the following is a nonimmunlogic adverse effect of a transfusion?
a. hemolytic reaction b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction c. congestive heart failure d. urticaria |
C. congestive heart failure
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Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
a. hemolytic b. febrile c. anaphylactic d. circulatory overload |
D. circulatory overload
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A patient with sever anemia became cyanotic and developed tachycardia, hypertension and difficulty breathing after receiving 3 units of blood. No fever or other symptoms were evident. this is most likely what typeof reaction?
a. febrile b. transfusion-associated circulatory overload(TACO) c. anaphylactic d. hemolytic |
B. transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO)
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A patient became hypotensive and went into shock after receiving 50 mL of a unit of RBC's. She had a shaking chill and her temp. rose to 104.8*F(40.0*C). A transfusion reaction investigation was initiated but no abnormal results were seen. What additional testing should be performed?
a. gram stain and culture of the donor unit b. lymphocytotoxicity tests for leukoagglutinins c. plasma IgA levels d. elution and antibody screen |
A. gram stain and culture of the donor unit
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The most frequent transfusion-associated disease complication of blood transfusion is:
a. cytomegalovirus(CMV) b. syphilis c. hepatitis d. AIDS |
C. hepatitis
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The purpose of a low-dose irradiation of blood components is to:
a. prevent posttransfusion purpura b. prevent graft-vs-host disease c. steilize components d. prevent noncardiogenic pulmonare edema |
B. prevent graft-vs-host disease
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Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following adverse effects of transfusion?
a. febrile transfusion reaction b. CMV c. transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease d. transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI) |
C. transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease
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The most important step in the safe administration of blood is to:
a. perform compatibility testing accurately b. get an accurate patient history c. exclude disqualified donors d. accurately identify the donor unit and recipient |
D. accurately identify the donor unit and recipient
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