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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What surgical prep solution is contraindicated for use on the face?
Hibiclens, caustic to eyes
why are iodine solutions superior to chlorhexidine as surgical antiseptic
chlorhexidine not effective against viruses and fungi
which nasal spray has less cardiac toxicity: oxymetazoline or neosynephrine
oxymetazoline
which medication has been shown to decrease the catecholamine response during suspension laryngoscopy
fentanyl
what factors are responsible for transfusion-induced immunosuppression
serum factors and fragmented debris from white blood cells and platelets
what should be given to cancer patients who need a blood transfusion to minimize the immunosuppression
washed RBCs
what is the best time to begin prophylactic antibiotic therapy for elective surgery
1hr prior to operation
what are the daily maintenance fluid requirements of a healthy 60-kg woman
2100cc
what is a reliable alternative induction technique in a 5yr struggling child who refuses the mask and cannot be managed with IV bc of lack of accessible veins
sedating IM injection of ketamine 3mg/kg
what are the negative side effects of ketamine
increased airway secretions
transient increase in intracranial pressure
audiotory/visual hallucinations
what is the preferred anesthetic technique for bronchoscopy in adults
modified endotracheal tube or jetting system used with a relaxant and controlled ventilation
what is the preferred anesthetic technique for bronchoscopy in infants and children
spontaneous respiration with inhalation anesthesia
all of the inhaled anesthetics are bronchodilators except
nitrous oxide
which neuromuscular blocker's metabolism is independent of renal or liver failure
cisatracurium
shortly after induction of general anesthesia, the patient's body temp significantly rises, PVCs are noted on the ECG and skin becomes flushed. What is likely dx
malignant hyperthermia
symptoms of malignant hyperthermia
masseter spasm
sustained muscle rigidity
myoglobinuria
what is the mechanism of action behind malignant hyperthermia
inhibition of calcium reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
what is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia
total body cooling
vigorous hydration
dantrolene
90yo woman given morphine before bedside laryngoscopy RR drops to 6 and lips turn blue. What med should be given
naloxone
what is a complication of rapid administration of naloxone
flash pulmonary edema
what med is used to reverse benzodiazepines
flumazenil 200ug over 15 seconds
which anesthetic should be discontinued 15min prior to placing a TM graft
nitrous oxide
what is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic
prevent increases in the permeability of nerve membranes to sodium ions
what are two main classes of local anesthetic
ester linkage
amide linkage
how do ester vs amide differ in metabolism
ester: metabolized in plasma by cholinesterase
amide: liver by P-450
what local are amides?
lidocaine
ropivacaine
bupivacaine
which antiHTN prolongs the effect of regional anesthesia with amide anesthetics
clonidine
what are the toxic side effects of local
CNS excitability or depression
myocardial depression
peripheral vasodilation
methemoglobinemia
allergic rxn
which local anesthetic produces toxicity at the lowest dose
tetracaine
T/F: all locals are weak bases and produce vasodilation
F: cocaine and ropivacaine
which local anesthetics have been shown to induce methemoglobinemia
prilocaine
benzocaine
lidocaine
procaine
what is the treatment for methemoglobinemia
slow IV infusion of 1% methylene blue
what is max recommended dose of bupivacaine
2-3mg/kg
what is duration of action of bupivacaine
3-10 hours
T/F: bupivacaine has a depressant effect on cardiac contractility 4x of lidocaine
True
how does ropivacaine differ from bupivacaine
ropivacaine has less potential for serious cardiotoxic reactions
what is max dose of lidocaine in 60kg woman
300mg without epi (4mg/kg)
420mg with epi (7mg/kg)
how much epi in 1cc of 1:100,000 epi
10ug
where should local anesthetic be injected to block superior laryngeal nerve
halfway between hyoid and thyroid cartilages
where should local anesthetic be injected to anesthetize subglottis and preepiglottic space
cricothyroid membrane
thyroid notch
what makes midazolam useful in outpatient setting
short onset of action, half-life 2-4hr
which benzo is preferred in pts with liver disease
lorazepam
which a-agonist is 5-10x more potent than clonidine
dexmedetomidine
T/F: all opioids cause bradycardia
F: meperidine
what is the primary advantage of using remifentanil over fentanyl
shorter onset and offset
allergy to what substance is contraindication to propofol
soy
what are adverse effects of succinylcholine
dysrhythmia
fasciculations
hyperkalemia
which pts are more likely to have adverse rxns to succinylcholine
closed-angle glaucoma
space-occupying intracranial lesions
crush injury
what is inheritance pattern of pseudocholinesterase deficiency
autosomal recessive
what patient population might have a decreased amount of pseudocholinesterase
those taking anticholinesterase meds for glaucoma or myasthenia gravis