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246 Cards in this Set

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What is the function of the Inner horizontal portion of the temporomandibular ligament?
Limits posterior movment of the condyle and disc.
What does the Outer oblique portion of the temporomandibular ligament do?
Resists dropping of the mandible, limits rotation b4 translation
Which muscle is the primary elevator of the mandible?
Masseter
Superior Lateral Pterygoid's function?
Maintain the disc in the most anterior rotary position possible.
Inferior Lateral Pterygoid fct?
Pulls condyle forward in the fossa.
What structures of the tooth are derived from the Dental Sac?
PDL, Cementum, and alveolar bone proper
What is derived from the Dental Papilla?
dentin and dental pulp
What are the four layers of the Oral Epithelium that enamel is derived from?
Outer enamel, Inner enamel ,Stratum intermedium, stellate reticulum
Which Amino Acids are Fatty Hydrophobic?
Valine, Leucine, and isoleucine are the big 3
Which Amino Acid can form a disulfide bond?
Cysteine
Two negatively charged, highly hydrophillic amino acids are?
Glutamate, Aspartate
Positively charged Amino Acids are?
Lysine, Arginine, Histidine
Which amino acids are present in histones?
Lysine and Arginine
WHich amino acids are post-translationally modified?
hydroxyLysine and HydroxyProline (Glutamate for blood)
While most amino acids have a trans configuration, this one does not?
Proline-which causes kinks in structure
What four things decrease hemoglobin's affinity for O2. Or effectively increases delivery of Oxygen to tissues?
Increase in pCO2, increase in 2,3-BPG, decrease in PH, increase in temperature
What causes sickle Cell Anemia?
A HbS deficiency where Glutamate--->Valine. The Valine won't bind O2 like it should.
What does Thalassemia affect?
It affects globin synthesis by there be a lack of beta chain genes. HbA is formed regularly.
What type of collagen does the Basement membrane have in it?
Type IV mostly and some Type VII
What does Type 1 collagen compose
Bone and Skin
Type 2 collage is where?
Cartilage
Triple Helix Stabilization in collagen chains is secured by what amino acid?
hydroxylation of Proline.
Prolyl and Lysyl hydroxylase requires what 3 cofactors?
Alpha-ketogluatarate, molecular O2, Ascorbate (vitamin C)
Lysyl Oxidase requres what 2 cofactors?
Molecular 02 and Copper.
What collagen disease is caused by a lack of lysyl hydroxylase and pro-collagen deficiency?
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome- stretchy skin, and loose joints.
A collagen disease that causes bones to bend and break easily, or misshapen teeth.
Osteogenesis or Odontogenesis imperfecta (bukly side chain instead of glycine)
Fe 2+ is a cofactor for?
Cytochrome oxidase, catalase, Peroxidase, Hemeglobin
Cu 2+ is a cofactor for?
Cytochrome oxidase
Mg 2+ is a cofactor for?
Hexokinase, g6-phosphotase, pyruvate kinase
Zinc is a cofactor for?
Carbonic Anhydrase, alcohol dehydrogenase
The coenzyme for Acetyl-CoA carboxylase, and Pyruvate Carboxylase is what?
Biotin- carries CO2 groups.
Lipoate is the conenzyme for what?
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and Alpha-ketoglutarate Dehydr.
- delta G is exergonic and?
negative free energy change
Low Km is what kind of affinity?
High
High Km = what kind of affinity
Low
PFK-1 is + regulated by:
AMP, Fructose, 2-6 bisphosphate
PFK-1 is - regulated by:
ATP and Citrate
Kinase
adds phospates
Phosphatase...
removes Phosphatases
Glycogen phosphorylase is _____when phosphorylated
ACTIVE
Glycogen synthase is ______ when phosphorylated
INACTIVE
what do Competetive inhibitors do to Km and Vmax?
Km increases and Vmax stays.
What do Non-competetive inhibitors do to Km and Vmax?
They decrease Vmax and do nothing to Km.
Sucrose has what type of bond?
1-->2 glucose-fructose bond. Sucrose is not a reducing sugar
Lactose has what type of bond?
Beta 1-4 and is a reducing sugar b/c Carbon 1 is still free.
Chondroitin sulfate is found where?
cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and aorta
Hyaluronic Acid is found where?
synovial fluid, vitreous humor, loose conn. tissue
Keratin sulfate is found where?
cornea and connective tissue
Dermatan Sulfate is found where?
skin, blood vessels, and heart valves
Heparin is found where?
only intracellular GAG, found in mast cells in arteries of lover, lungs, and skin
Heparin sulfate is found where?
Basement Membranes
What type of process is glycolysis and where does it happen?
It is anaerobic and happens in the cytosol.
How is PFK 1 regulated
AMP, F2,6BP is (+), while ATP and citrate are (-). This is the rate limiting step as it converts Fructose-6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
What enzyme converts phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate?
Pyruvate Kinase, by taking away an ATP.
Essentially irreversible with a large - free energy change.
Hexokinase is found where?
nearly all cells, with a low Km and Low Vmax. Saturates at Low glucose
Glucokinase is found where?
Only in the liver with a High Km and High Vmax. Both convert Glucose to G6p.
Glucose to Glucose 6 Phosp?
Hexokinase (ATP)
G6P to Fructose 6 Phosph?
Phosphohexose Isomerase
F6P to Fructose 1,6 bisphohpo?
PFK1 (ATP) RLStep
F16P to G3P
Aldolase (cleaver) 6 to 3 carbon
G3P to 1,3,bisphosophoglycerate
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
1,3bpg to 3-phosphoglycerate
phoshoglycerate kinase (ATP rendered)
3phoshoglycerate to 2phosph
Mutase
2phospho to Phosphoenol pyruvate
Enolase
PEP to Pyruvate
Pyruvate Kinase (ATP rendered here)
What are the 5 cofactors for Pyruvate and Alpha Ketogluarate Dehydrogenase?
Thiamine Pyrophosphate, Coenzyme A, NAD+, FAD, Lipoic Acid
Where does TCA happen?
Mitochondrial Matrix
What is the RLS?
Citrate Synthase
At What three sites are NADH produced?
isocitrate, alpha keto, and malate dehydrogenases.
FADH2 is formed at what TCA step?
Succinate dehydrogenase
GTP is synthesized when?
When Succinyl Coa Synthetase ison the job.
For each TCA what is produced?
2 CO2, 1 FADH2, 3 NADH, 1 GTP.
Complex II of ETC converts what?
FADH2 , which ultimately gives 2 atp
Complex I, III, IV deal with what?
NADH and give 3 ATP each.
How many H+ are pumped b/c of NADH?
3
How many H+ are pumped b/c of FADH?
2
What is the final electron acceptor?
Oxygen
Which complex is the only membrane associated complex (intra)?
Complex II.
Insulin causes dephosphorylation of what enzyme to put in its active form?
Glycogen synthase a (active)
Glucagon activates what ________ which activates Adenylate Cyclase, which activates what________.
G-protein, cAMP
What enzyme does cAMP activate
Protein Kinase A
Protein Kinase A phosphorylates ______ to make it _____?
glycogen phosphorylase a, active, which makes glycogen synthase b go unactive.
Activation of Glycogen phosphorylast a increases what 4 pathways?
glycogenoylysis, gluconeogenesis, ketogenesis, uptake of amino acids
Glucagon attaches to what protein to signal?
Heterotrimeric G protein
What form of the G protein is active?
alpha G protein
Insulin does what three major things?
Activates/deactivates enzymes, alters gene expression, and increases Glucose transport.
What surface receptor does Insulin attach to?
Glut 4 with in intrinsic TYROSINE KINASE enzyme.
WHich type of diabetes is associates with loss of insulin receptor function in the target tissues?
Type II
Glut 4 translocation by insulin occurs in what two tissues?
Skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.
What is the substrate for glycogen synthesis?
UDP-glucose, know it biatch.
What enzyme takes Glucose -1-phosphate to UDP-glucose?
UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
Branching in glycogen occurs in what configuration?
alpha 1,6
What is the normal configuration of a chain of glycogen?
alpha 1,4
What is the enzyme that adds a sugar to glycogen and kicks udp off?
Glycogen Synthase...oh yeah
What are other two names for the Pentose Phophate Pathway?
Hexose-monophosphate shunt, and 6-phosphogluconate pathway
What are the two main products of the Pentose pathway?
ribose-5- phosphate (used for rna and dna) and NADPH
Free radical countering, and fatty acid/cholesterol synthesis are two functions of what?
NADPH
Glutathione eliminates free radicals, so what is needed to keep glut in reduced state?
NADPH
If NADPH is insufficient, due to a Glucose-6-phophate Dehydrogenase insuffiency, what can we expect to see clinically?
Hemolytic anemia, and free radical damage.
Glycogenyolysis occurs in what two places?
Liver and Skeletal muscle
Gluconeogenesis occurs in what two tissues?
Liver and Kidney
What enzyme takes glycogen to glucose?
Glycogen phsphorylase, by adding a Pi to Glucose.
A deficiency of what G 6 Phosphotase causes what disease?
Von Gierke disease
Skeletal Muscle Glycogen phosphorylase deficiency is called what?
McArdle Syndrome
Pompe disease is disease that is caused by what?
Lysosomal alpha 1-4 glucosidase def. (cardiomegaly)
What enzyme is the final enzyme that takes the phophate off of G6p to make glucose in glycogenolysis?
Glucose-6-Phosphatase
What three steps are sites of regulation of gluconeogenesis?
Hexokinase, PFK-1, pyruvate kinase
Lactate, glycerol, a-ketoacids, tca intemdiates, and glycolysis intmediates are all substrates for gluconeogenesis, what is not?
ACETYL CoA
Which irreversible glycolysis enzyme requires two to convert through gluconeo?
Pyruvae kinase
(needs 2)
Pyruvae Carboxylase, needed to turn pyruvate(3c) into oxaloacetate (4c) needs what three cofactors?
biotin, ATP, CO2
Where does this reaction occur?
Mitoch. Matrix
Oxaloacetate can't travel through the membrane to the matrix, so it is converted to what?
Malate
PEP carboxykinase turns oxalo into what and where?
PEP +Co2 in the cytosol. Uses GTP
What two amino acids are ketogenic and cannot be used as substrates in gluconeogensis?
Lysine and Leucine of course
The rate limiting step in cholestorl synthesis is ?
HMG-CoA reductase....NADPH is required for synthesis.
What is the major fat energy store?
TAG's
Free FA's circulate how?
Bound to Albumin (this is higher when increased fasting)

But not in brain or RBC's.
What two unsaturated fats are essential (diet needed)?
Linoleic and Linolenic acid
What is the precursor for Linoleic acid?
Arachodonic acid, making it conditional.
What other two fa's are unsaturated and important?
Palmitoleic acid and oleic acid.
Which lipoprotein is bad and why?
LDL b/c it carries cholesterol to the tissues. Receptor mediated-endocytosis as well as ApoB-100
Which lipoproteins carry hepatic tags to tissues, cholesterol from liver to poop, dietary tags to tissues?
VLDL, HDL, Chylomicrons, respectively.
What is the most abundant Glycerophospholipid and what does it contain?
Lechitin. It contains a glycerol, phosphoric acid, two fa's, and choline head group.
What disease is caused by a Hexosaminidase A deficiency, where gangliosides accumulate?
Tay-Sachs
What disease is caused by glucocerbroside buildup, showing hepatosplenomegaly and osteoporosis of long bones?
Gaucher's disease
What disease is caused by a build up of sphingomyelin?
Niemann-Pick disease.
What type of molecules pass through the membrane easily?
Small, non-polar like steroids
What type are either facilitated diffusion or active transport?
Large, polar substances.
Do Peptide hormones require cell surface receptors?
Yes
de Novo fat synthesis occurs where?
Cytosol
What is the rate Limiting step and what cofactors does the enzyme need?
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase, biotin cofactor
How is acetyl-coa carried from the matrix to cytosol?
As citrate (citrate synthase)
WHat is it converted to once in the cytosol?
maolonyl-coA , added a Pi to it.
Acetyl CoA carboxylse is active when phosphor or desphosphor?
Dephosphorylated state.
What two tissues cannot use FA's as energy?
brain and rbc's
What is needed in Beta Oxidation of fats to span the membrane?
Carnitine-shuttle
Acetoacetate and Beta-hydroxybutyrate can be used as energy? t/f
True
Ketone bodies can be used by the brain? t/f
True
Aminotransferase is the enzyme that does what? and what cofactor does it need?
It transfers amino acids amino groups to Glutamate and requires Pyridoxial phosphate (B6)
What enzyme catalyzes the send step of amino acid catabolism?
Glutamate Dehydrogenase. Can use NAD or NADP. this where a NH4 is created. Alpha Ketoglutarate is also a product.
What is the alpha ketoacid of alanine?
Pyruvate, but alanine aminotransferase
what is the alpha ketoacid of aspartate?
oxaloacetate
What converts Trypsinogen to trypsin?
Enterokinase
Urea cycle occurs in both?
Cytosol and Mitochondria
What is the rate limiting step of urea production?
Carbamoyl Phosphate synthetase I
What two things are needed to carry carthe process across the matrix membrane?
Citruline and Ornithine
What Amino Acid is the link b/w TCA and Urea Cycle?
Aspartate
Phenylalanie can be degraded to Tyrosine. What enzyme does this, and if absent what disease is present?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase....Phenolketonuria.
What disease might you see if there is a deficiency of tyrosinase?
Albinism
Maple syrup disease is what?
Deficiency of branched alpha ketoacid dehydr. complex.
What is the aa precursor for serotonin, and melatonin?
Tryptophan
precursor for dopamine, ephi and norephi is what?
tyrosine fool
What is the cofactor needed in conjuction with aromatic amino acid decarboxylases?
PLP
What is a water soluble vitamin of importance to hydroxylysine and proline?
vitamin C, ascorbate
What are the Fat soluble vitamins
ADEK baby, ADEK
Which vitamin, transfers 1 carbon units and can cause mego anemia and neural tube defects?
Folic Acid
this vitamin degrades odd numbered fa's.
B12
Antioxidant, and cofactor for hydroxylations (lysine, proline) Scurvy
Vitamin C
Cofactor for A.A. catabolism (transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation)
B6 or plp
Cofactor for oxidative decarboxy rxns.
cofactor for pyruvate dehydr.complex and A ketoglut dehydr.complex.
B1 (thiamine) TPP
What disease is caused by a b1 deficiency?
beri beri and wernicke-korsakoff
Cofactor for FMN and FAD (etc)?
Riboflavin (b2)
Cofactor for NAD, NADP (ETC)?
Niacin (b3)
What is disease is the 3d's?
Pellagra, Niacine deficiency of dermatiis, diarrhea, and dementia
What vitamin participates with carboxylase rxns.?
Biotin
What is a Vitamin D deficiency in kids?
rickets
What is a vitamin D deficiency in adults?
Osteomalacia
Vitamin K has an influence on what 4 steps of the coagulation cascade?
2, 7, 9, and 10
What are the steps in Vitamin D synthesis?
7-dehydrocholesterol (ergocalciferol) --->cholcalciferol (D3)---> 1,25 dihydrocholcalciferol (in liver)
DNA replication is activated by what?
DNA polymerase
DNA is transcribed to RNA by what enzyme?
RNA polymerase
Pol I, Pol II, Pol III relate to what Rna's?
rRNA, mRNA, tRNA respectively
A-U, G-C signifies what?
RNA
A-T, G-C signfies what?
DNA
In DNA A-T has how many hydrogen bonds, and C-G has how manY?
2 and 3 respectively.
What DNA enzyme is the primary enzyme in replication?
DNA Pol III
DNA pol I does what?
proofreads and deletes RNA primer.
WHat enzyme unwinds DNA?
Helicase
What enzyme limits supercoiling?
DNA gyrase/topoisomerase
which enzyme is an rna polymerase that makes short RNA templates?
Primase
Fixes Okazarki fragments?
Ligase
What three things do mRNA do?
adds 7-methylguanosine cap, adds poly-adenylate tail, removes introns.
Amino acyl-tRNA synthetase assures what?
Specificty and fidelity of the reaction
DNA can be generated from mRNA by what enzyme?
Reverse Transcriptase
PCR does what to gene expression?
Amplifies
DNA products can be analyzed using?
Southern blotting
Cofactor for A.A. catabolism (transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation)
B6 or plp
Cofactor for oxidative decarboxy rxns.
cofactor for pyruvate dehydr.complex and A ketoglut dehydr.complex.
B1 (thiamine) TPP
What disease is caused by a b1 deficiency?
beri beri and wernicke-korsakoff
Cofactor for FMN and FAD (etc)?
Riboflavin (b2)
Cofactor for NAD, NADP (ETC)?
Niacin (b3)
What is disease is the 3d's?
Pellagra, Niacine deficiency of dermatiis, diarrhea, and dementia
What vitamin participates with carboxylase rxns.?
Biotin
What stimulates serous secretions?
Parasymphatetic (parotid)
What stimulates mucous seretions?
Symphathetic (sublingual)
Where does synthesis of alpha chain of collagen occur?
rER
Where does hydroxylation of lysine and proline occur?
rER
Where does glycosylation of alpha chains occur?
Golgi apparatus
What is the general aa sequence of collagen?
gly-x-y
What enzyme cleaves both elastin and collage at the N and C terminal peptides?
Endopeptidases
albumin, fibrinogen, globulins and complement proteins are all what?
Plasma Proteins
What molecule transports triglycerides?
lipoproteins
What are two major bile salts?
Glycocholic acid and Taurocholic acid
Preganglionic Parasymphatetic are what type of receptors?
cholinergic (excitatory) nicotinic receptors
Post Parasymphatetic are what receptors?
Cholinergic Muscarinic receptors
Pre Symphatetic are what receptors?
cholinergic nictotinic (Ach)
Post Symphatetic are what receptors?
Adrenergic (Norepi)
Sweat glands are the symphatetic excpetion why?
b/c they are cholinergic muscarinic
Which corpuscle fells vibration and pressure?
Pacinian
Which corpuscled allows 2 point discrimination?
Meissner's
Which corpuscle allows stretch?
Ruffini's
Rods detect what?
night vision
Cones detect what?
color Red, green blue
Retina is the visual acuity spot on the back of the eye that consists of what?
rods and cones
Myiosis is what?
contracton of the pupil caused by parasymphatetic
Mydrasis is what?
Dilation caused by symphathetic.
what part of the ear is associated with equilibrium?
semicircular canals
what ear part is balance?
Vestibule
What disease is a muscle related disease that is caused by Ach receptors being blocked on the sarcolemma?
Myasthenia gravis
Name the coverings of muscle from outer to inner?
Epimysium, Periomysium, Endomysium
What is one ATP source unique to muscle?
Creatine Phosphate.
What is the result of the Tendon reflex in muscle?
Relaxation of the muscle (golgi tendon)
Gap junctions are characteristic of what type of muscle?
Cardiac (striated) and Smooth
Influx of what is critical in contraction of Cardiac muscle?
Ca2+
Which muscle has no t-tubules and no striations?
Smooth Muscle
Calmodulin reacting with Ca2+ is indicative of what muscle?
Smooth muscle
The first sound of the heart beat is what valves closing?
Mitral and tricuspid valves.
The second sound of the heart beat is what closing?
The aortic and pulmonic valves.
What disease is a muscle related disease that is caused by Ach receptors being blocked on the sarcolemma?
Myasthenia gravis
Name the coverings of muscle from outer to inner?
Epimysium, Periomysium, Endomysium
What is one ATP source unique to muscle?
Creatine Phosphate.
What is the result of the Tendon reflex in muscle?
Relaxation of the muscle (golgi tendon)
Gap junctions are characteristic of what type of muscle?
Cardiac (striated) and Smooth
Influx of what is critical in contraction of Cardiac muscle?
Ca2+
Which muscle has no t-tubules and no striations?
Smooth Muscle
Calmodulin reacting with Ca2+ is indicative of what muscle?
Smooth muscle
The first sound of the heart beat is what valves closing?
Mitral and tricuspid valves.
The second sound of the heart beat is what closing?
The aortic and pulmonic valves.
What are the nerves in the cavernous sinous?
CN 3, 4, 5, 6
Nerves of the internal thoracic wall lie in what relation to the the External and Internal intercostal muscles?
Deep to the internals.
What four things leave the cranium through the jugular foramen?
IJV, CN 9, 10, 11
The maxillary, deep facial, infrorbital and posterior superior alveolar vein form what plexus of veins?
Pterygoid plexus of veins
What doe sthe carotid sheath contain?
IJV, vagus nerve, and common carotid artery
What is the bodies major storage form of Iron?
Ferritin
How does prostacyclin interact with platelets?
Its keeps them from clumping
What does Thromboxane 2 do to platelets?
Clumps.