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170 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
following does human have before birth but not after

fossa ovalis
ligamentum teres
ductus arteriosus
crista terminalis
➢ Ligamentum Arteriosum
• Remanants of Ductus Arteriosum (fetal bypass of pulm. circ)
• Connects Aortic arch to Pulmonary Veins
• Left Recurrent Laryngeal hooks around it

➢ Ductus Venosus→Ligamentum Venosum (LDI – Liver →Ductus venosus→Inferior vena cava)
• Only fetal vessel to carry O2-rich blood and nutrients. All others carry mixture of arterial and venous blood.
• After Umbilical vein reaches the liver, then the Ductos venosus takes the blood to the IVC → Right Atrium → foramen ovale
• Umblicial vein to the IVC (Just distal to where the bad blood was sent out in the iliac arteries)
➢ Foramen Ovale→Fossa Ovalis: (AOA – Atrium→ foramen Ovale→Atrium)
• Opening between R & L atria to shunt blood passed the pulmonary circuitry, closes at birth and becomes the fossa ovalis, a depression in the interatrial septum
➢ Crista terminalis:
• Vertical muscular ridge that runs along the right atrial wall from the opening of the SVC to the IVC.
• Provides origin of the pectinate muscle.
• Represents junction btw the sinus venosus and the heart in the developing embryo
• The line of junction between the primitive sinus venosus and the auricle
• Also represented on the external surface of heart by the vertical groove called the sulcus terminalis
• SA node is located in the crista terminalis near opening of SVC
➢ One Q reads: Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include the ligamentum venosum, ligamentum arteriosum, ligamentum teres of the liver (not ligamentum nuchae or ligamentum teres of the uterus)
➢ Umbilical Vein (1)→ Ligamentum teres (aka: “Round ligament of the liver”): (UV LighT)
• Connects Placenta to liver, forms major portion of umbilical cord, nutrient-rich blood from placenta to fetus
• Forms the round ligament of the liver after birth (ligamentum teres)
sensations of left face and teeth are interperted in which of the following lobes
right parietal

Motor area (initiates voluntary contractions of skeletal muscle
EX – Highly skilled, discrete hand movements depend on activity of the precentral gyrus
Sensory area (receives sensory info regarding temperature, touch, pain, proprioception)
Concerned with recognition of painful stimulus from the teeth
**Sensations from Left face and Teeth are interpreted in the Right Parietal Lobe
blood testis barrier maintained by
• Seminiferous tubules
➢ Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules and stored outside the testis in the epididymis until ejaculated
➢ Meiosis occurs here (it does NOT occur in the ductus epididymis, stratum germanitivum, or ovarian germinal epi)
➢ Lining consists of a complex stratified epithelium
➢ Contain two cell types:
• Sertoli cells
• Produce spermatozoa
• Form the blood-testes barrier with tight junctions connecting each cell
• Spermatogenic cells – germ cells found between Sertoli cells
• The development of germ cells depends on pituitary FSH & testicular testosterone
tmj capsule is supplied by
➢ Innervation
• Auriculotemporal nerve, Masseteric, and Posterior Deep Temporal in the capsule and around the periphery of the disc
• NOTE: the auriculotemporal nerve carries pain, touch, temperature, & proprioceptive modalities to the TMJ
• The TMJ, as w/ all joints, receives no motor innervation
• The muscles that move the joint receive the motor innervations
• Branchiometric motor fibers innervate the temporalis, pterygoids, anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid, & tensors
cell bodies of proprioception nerve carrying info about bdl are located in
• Trigeminal sensory nuclear complex:
• Axons enter the pons through sensory root & terminate in 1 of 3 nuclei of trigeminal sensory nuclear complex:
• 1) Mesencephalic nucleus: (“MeS” for Muscle Spindle and Phalic for P-DaLic)
o Mediates proprioception (ex. Musclespindle) from the face
o Primary sensory neurons of mechanoreceptors in the PDL –not in the main sensory nucleus of TG.
o Cell bodies of the proprioceptive 1st order neurons are found in mesencephalic nucleus (not trigeminal ganglion)
o Mediates Jaw jerk reflex → Only nucleus in the CNS that receives proprioceptive inputs from muscle spindles
o Only example in which the primary sensory cell bodies reside within the CNS instead of in ganglia
• 2) Main sensory nucleus: (The Main role of V is sensation)
o Discriminative touch of face
o Mediates general sensation (ex. Touch)
o **All sensory information from the face → fibers cross and ascend in the ventral TTT (Trigeminalthalamic Tract) to the VPM - M for “your ugly Mug”
• From the rest of the body it goes to the VPL
• 3) Spinal trigeminal nucleus of V: (SPAINAL Spine pain/temp in lateral cord)
o Mediates pain & temperature from head & neck (Oral Cavity)
o Mx bone fracture next to central incisor…nociception terminates centrally in spinal subnucleus caudalis of V
o If the spinal tract of the fifth cranial nerve were sectioned at the level of the caudal medulla, PAIN from the face would be most affected
o The primary sensory neurons' nucleus of termination for pain from a Mx M2 is the spinal nucleus of V
o The descending tract (down to the spinal nucleus) of V contains axons of primary sensory neurons
o Fibers then cross and ascend in the ventral TTT (trigeminothalamic) tract to the VPM as well
hamular process is extension of
sphenoid bone

• Medial pterygoid plate
o Forms posterior limit of lateral wall of nasal cavity
o Ends inferiorly as the hamulus (haMElus) for Medial
• Hamulus = small, slender hook acting as a pulley for tensor veli palatine tendon (from vertical to horizontal)
• What is located directly behind Mx 3rd Molar?? → Hamular notch, or Mx tuberosity – It’s gotta be!
dermis classified as which of the following
• Dense regular:
• Consists of tightly packed fibers arranged in consistant pattern – EXs include tendons, ligaments, & aponeuroses
• Dense irregular:
• Consists of tightly packed fibers arranged in an inconsistent pattern
• Found in dermis, submucosa of the GI tract, fibrous capsules, and deep fascia
oxyphil cells are present in which
- Parathyroid gland:
o Four glands – two superior (superior thyroid artery from external carotid) and two inferior (inferior thyroid artery from thryocervical trunk) pairs of glands on posterior (dorsum) of thyroid gland
o Develops from 3rd & 4th pharyngeal pouches
o Blood supply is mostly from inferior thyroid artery (with contribution from the superior thyroid artery to the superior glands only)
o Controlled by blood levels of calicum – NOT TSH
o Cell types:
• Principal cells (chief cells) – secrete PTH, have clear cytoplasm
• Oxyphil cells (acid secreting cells) – granules in cytoplasm, unknown function
pterygoid plexus
• Pterygoid Plexus of Veins:
➢ The pterygoid plexus is in between the temporal and pterygoid muscles
➢ The pterygoid plexus and its tributaries are the venous parallel of the maxillary artery – drains all correspondents to maxillary artery.
➢ Infection that spreads posterior to Mx sinus enters here
➢ Terminates posteriorly in the Maxillary Vein
➢ Terminates anteriorly in the Deep Facial Vein (drains into Facial Vein)
➢ The pterygoid plexus drains into the retromandibular vein
• Retromandibular splits into Anterior and Posterior divisions:
• Anterior – joins Facial Vein to form Common Facial Vein and then dumps into internal jugular vein
• Posterior – receives the posterior auricular veins and forms the external jugular vein, which then drains directly into the subclavian vein
➢ Direct communications: - “DIMPsa”
• Deep Facial vein
• Infraorbital vein
• Maxillary vein
• Posterior Superior Alveolar vein
ADH produced by cells that residue in
o supraoptic nucleus

Hypothalamus:
• Is the inferior portion of the diencephalon & forms roof & ventrolateral walls of the 3rd ventricle
• Endocrine control
• Regulates hormone synthesis in anterior pituitary
• Synthesizes & releases oxytocin & ADH – water/salt balance\
• ADH – supraoptic nucleus; Oxytocin – paraventricular nucleus -- (Think LOW oxygen when you PARAshute)
• Regulation of ANS
• Temperature control (anterior hypothalamus – think A/C: Anterior = Cooling)
• Eating behaviors
• Lesions of ventromedial HTh→obesity
• Lesions of lateral HTh→severe aphagia
• Lesions of supraoptic nuclei→diabetes insipidus (polydipsia & polyuria result from deficient ADH)
anterior pit. FLAT PEG
• Anterior Pituitary = pars distalis: FLAT PeG
• The following tissues would be affected if the anterior lobe of the hypophysis were destroyed:
o Thyroid epithelium, zona fasciculata of adrenal gland, interstitial cells of testis, spermatogenic epithelium of testis
• NOT adrenal medulla
• Hormones released from:
o Alpha cells – GH & Prolactin (regular hormones) – Alpha for acidic or Eosionophilic pEg
o Beta cells – FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH (all tropic hormones)
• Sidenote: The hypophysis is characterized by an anterior lobe w/ alpha & beta cells
• Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH):
o Development of graafian follicles & estrogens in the ovary
o Promotes spermatogenesis in males – acts on sertoli cells to produce inhibin and androgen binding protein
• Luteinizing hormone (LH):
o Stimulates formation of corpus luteum & progesterone secretion
o Stimulates interstitial cells (Leydig cells) of testes to secrete testosterone
• Corticotropin (ACTH):
o Controls secretion of adrenocortical hormones (glucocorticoids), which affect glucose, protein, & fat metabolism
• Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH):
o Controls secretion of thyroxine by thyroid, uptake of iodine, and synthesis
• **Melanin Stimulating Hormone (MSH) and Beta-Lipotropin
o Secreted from the pars intermedia
• Prolactin (Lactotropin):
o Promotes mammary gland development & milk production, breast development
• The mammary glands are under direct control from the hypophysis
o Triggered by rising estrogen levels
• Growth hormone (GH) – aka ‘somatotropin’:
o Growth in general; particularly skeletal system by stimulating aa uptake, protein synthesis, & CHO/fat breakdown
o Most plentiful of AP hormones
o Fusion of long bone epiphyses determines if excess GH will result in gigantism (children) or acromegaly (adults)
o Produced by acidophils in the anterior pituitary
three cords of brachial plexus
o 3 Cords:
• Lateral C5,6,7 → From Superior and Middle Roots
• Lateral pectoral nerve C5,6,7
• Musculocutaneous nerve C 5,6,7
• **Median nerve (forms from the medial & lateral cords) C5-T1

• Posterior C5,6,7,8,T1 → From All 3 Roots
• Axillary nerve C5,6
• Radial nerves C5-T1

• Medial (C8, T1) → From Inferior
• Medial pectoral nerve C8,T1
• Ulnar nerve C8,T1 – ulnar nerve is a terminal branch of the medial cord
o Ulnar nerve is most sensitive at the elbow (not wrist, hands) – think funny bone
• **Median nerve (forms from the medial & lateral cords) C5-T1
o Brachial artery runs adjacent to and parallel with the median nerve in the arm
which of following structures runs directly with median nerve
• Medial (C8, T1) → From Inferior
• Medial pectoral nerve C8,T1
• Ulnar nerve C8,T1 – ulnar nerve is a terminal branch of the medial cord
o Ulnar nerve is most sensitive at the elbow (not wrist, hands) – think funny bone
• **Median nerve (forms from the medial & lateral cords) C5-T1
o Brachial artery runs adjacent to and parallel with the median nerve in the arm
fiber tracts passing from thalamus to the cortex are found in which of the following
o Most of the fibers ascending or descending to the cerebral cortex transverse the internal capsule
• The fiber tracts passing from the thalamus to the cortex are found in the internal capsule
prochordal plate consists of
Head & Neck Embryology
- Stomodeum = stomatodeum:
o Slight depression on the surface ectoderm
o Represents the primitive oral cavity
o Separated from primitive pharynx by buccopharyngeal MB (oropharyngeal MB)
• Composed of ectoderm externally & endoderm internally (no mesoderm)
• Covers the stomatodeum
• Ruptures at 3 ½ weeks (forming max palatal shelves)
o Prochordal Plate
• Consists of the endoderm of the roof of the yolk sac and embryonic ectoderm
• Does NOT contain mesoderm
vertebral artery passes through
• Vertebral (foramen magnum)
• FIRST BRANCH
• **If internal carotid becomes blocked, blood still reaches the brain via the vertebral arteries
• Branches from vertebral artery found in section on circle of Willis
• Foramen lacerum – in temporal & sphenoid bones – carries artery of the pterygoid canal, greater & deep petrosal nerves (through the occluded cartilage)
The jugular foramen may be subdivided into three compartments, each with their own contents.
The anterior compartment transmits the inferior petrosal sinus.
The intermediate transmits the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves.
The posterior transmits the sigmoid sinus (becoming the internal jugular vein) and some meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
where find para keratinized
• Attached Gingiva
➢ Part of the gingiva that is attached to the underlying periosteum of alveolar bone & to cementum by CT fibers & epithelial attachment
• NO submucosa
➢ Present between the free gingiva & the more movable alveolar mucosa
➢ Parakeratinized (with nuclear remnants in stratum corneum)
• Masticatory Mucosa is Parakeratinized except with Dentures
• Soft palate, skin of lips, floor of mouth & ventral tongue are NOT parakeratinized
pacinian corpuscle: what is it, where is it, what's it transmit?
Pacinian corpuscles are one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor. They are nerve endings in the skin, responsible for sensitivity to pain and pressure.
which protein breaks down to form most ammonia in blood
• The catabolism of purines and pyrimidines, amino groups attached to the rings are released as ammonia
• Amino acids are the source of most of the nitrogen in purines
• Ammonia & the alpha amino acids:
• Ammonia NH+ is formed from glutamate in the kidney
• Cellular levels of ammonia must be maintained at low concentrations due to its toxicity
• Glutamate dehydrogenase can catalyze the formation of glutamate from ammonia and a-ketoglutarate using NADPH as a cofactor (SEE UREA CYCLE CHART)
disease that causes autoimmune destruction of salivary glands
• Sjogren’s syndrome:
➢ 2nd most common autoimmune rheumatic disorder after RA
➢ Occurs mainly in women (90% of patients) – mean age is 50
➢ Characterized by diminished lacrimal & salivary gland secretion (sicca complex)
• These glands have chronic inflammation caused by WBC infiltration
which extrinsic tongue muscle isn't innervated by CN XII?
platolossus by X
where does the esophagus begin
end of pharynx

posterior to trachea
what's the cerebellum do?
coordinates muscle movements
maintain equlibrium
receives proprioceptive input from postion sense (dorsal columns)
➢ Metabolic bone disease involving bone destruction & regrowth – resulting in deformity
➢ Diffuse, “cotton-wool” opacities
• Paget’s Disease (aka Osteitis deformans):
nuclei for CN V pain sensation located where?
spinal trigeminal nucleus
most common cause of pregnant anemia?
erythroblastomosis fetalis

mother antibodies to fetus
Rh- and Rh+
3. zygmaticotemporal and zygomaticofacial are branches of what?
-v1
-v2
-v3
-facial
v2
2. During endochondral ossification, you see parallel rows of enlarged chondrocytes. What is occurring there?
-hypertrophy and calcification
-proliferation
alcification of matrix: Chondrocytes in the primary center of ossification begin to grow (hypertrophy). They stop secreting collagen and other proteoglycans and begin secreting alkaline phosphatase, an enzyme essential for mineral deposition. Then calcification of the matrix occurs and apoptosis of the hypertrophic chondrocytes occurs. This creates cavities within the bone. The exact mechanism of chondrocyte hypertrophy and apoptosis is currently unknown.
Tap masseter?
-initiate stretch reflex
-initiate stretch reflex
Most inferior branch of external carotid
-superior thyroid
What is an enamel spindle
-
elongated odontoblastic process
10. If you damage the coracoid process, which muscles are damaged?
pec minor and biceps brachii
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the calavaria?
-zygoma
-frontal
-occipital
-temporal
-parietal
zygoma
What type of muscle has intercalated discs
cardiac
In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral spinal fluid is found within which of the following?

A. Ventricle
B. Subdural space
C. Cisterna magna
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Superior sagittal sinus
noncommunication = ventricular

communication = subarachnoid space
13) Which of the following is located extracellularly?

A. Lysosomes
B. Microtubules
C. Tonofibril
D. Glycocalyx
E. Keratohyalin granules
Glycocalyx is a general term referring to extracellular polymeric material (glycoprotein)[1] produced by some bacteria, epithelia and other cells. The slime on the outside of a fish is considered a glycocalyx. The term was initially applied to the polysaccharide matrix excreted by epithelial cells forming a coating on the surface of epithelial tissue.

Basophilic granules (0.2 to 4.5 micron) found in cells of the stratum granulosum that are presumed to play a role in keratinization

Tonofibrils are cytoplasmic protein structures in epithelial tissues[1] that converge at desmosomes and hemidesmosomes.
In erythropoiesis, which of the following increases from the proerythroblast to the mature erythrocyte?

A. Cell size
B. Phagocytic ability
C. Cytoplasmic acidophilia
D. Cytoplasmic basophilia
The following characteristics can be seen changing in the erythrocytes when they are maturing:
they show a reduction in the cell size,
the cytoplasmic matrix increases in amount,
staining reaction of the cytoplasm changes from basophilic to acidophilic (this is because of the decrease in the amount of RNA and DNA),
initially the nucleus was large in size and contained open chromatin. But with the maturation of RBC's the size of the nucleus decreases and finally disappears with the condensation of the chromatin material.[5]
Which of the following statements describes an example of innate immunity?

A. An allergic reaction to insect venom
B. The classical pathway of complement
C. The destruction of virus-infected cells by T-killer cells
D. The production of IgG in response to insect venom
E. The alternative pathway of complement
The alternative pathway of complement
Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinoma is MOST commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndrome?

A. Small cell
B. Large cell
C. Mesothelioma
D. Squamous cell
E. Adenocarcinoma
• Small cell (oat cell) – 25%
• Most commonly associated with Paraneoplastic Syndrome
The coronal suture connects what bones?
-the frontal and parietal!
In the intercuspal position, the lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar usually occludes

with the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary second premolar and the distal marginal ridge of the first premolar.
in the lingual embrasure between maxillary canine and first premolar.
with the lingual surface of the maxillary first premolar.
in the lingual embrasure between maxillary premolars.
with no maxillary toot
with no maxillary tooth.
In an ideal occlusion, the facial cusps of the posterior mandibular teeth oppose which landmark of the maxillary dentition?

Facio-occlusal line
Central fossa line
Linguo-occlusal line
Curve of Spee
Curve of Wilson
central fossa line
From an occlusal view, the arrangement of permanent teeth of the maxillary and mandibular arches are parabolic in shape. In one segment of the dentition, however, four teeth are aligned in a straight line. In what region is this segment located?

Maxillary anterior
Maxillary posterior
Mandibular anterior
Mandibular posterior
Mandibular posterior
When in its proper position relative to the plane of occlusion, the crown of a mandibular second molar inclines

distally and facially.
mesially and facially.
mesially and lingually.
distally and lingually.
mesially and lingually.
Which of the following plays the greatest role in disoccluding the posterior teeth in latero-protrusive movements?

Anterior guidance
Posterior guidance
Bennett side shift
Intercondylar distance
Anterior guidance
When compared with the incisal embrasure between the maxillary central and lateral incisors, the incisal embrasure between the maxillary central incisors is

larger.
smaller.
the same size.
determined by the position of the epithelial attachment.
determined by the height of curvature of the cervical line.
smaller.
When the posterior teeth are in a cross bite relationship, which of the following cusps are considered supporting cusps?

Maxillary facial and mandibular facial
Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual
Maxillary lingual and mandibular facial
Maxillary lingual and mandibular lingual
Maxillary facial and mandibular lingual
Some degree of protection for tips, cheeks, and tongue is afforded by the

contact of adjacent teeth.
deflecting function of triangular ridges.
facial and lingual heights of contour of the teeth.
horizontal and vertical overlapping of the teeth
horizontal and vertical overlapping of the teeth
Which of the following teeth usually has the steepest cusp inclines?

Maxillary first premolar
Maxillary first molar
Mandibular second premolar
Mandibular first molar
Mandibular second molar
Maxillary first premolar
In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are cells that contain Tomes' processes. These cells are in which of the following stages?

Secretory
Morphogenic
Organizing
Maturative
Protective
Secretory
Salivary gland striated ducts are composed of which of the following types of epithelium?

Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal
Stratified squamous
Simple low columnular
Psuedostratified ciliated columnar
Simple low columnular
Which of the following must be digested before being in a form that can be absorbed by enterocytes?

Monoglycerides
Fatty acids
Fructose
Glycine
Maltose
Maltose
In the glycolytic sequence, the enzyme that brings about the transition from 6-carbon metabolites to 3-carbon metabolites is

phosphoglucoisomerase.
phosphofructokinase.
phosphorylase.
hexokinase.
aldolase.
aldolase.
Each of the following enzymes functions in association with a membrane EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Succinate dehydrogenase
Na+ /K+ ATPase
Adenylate cyclase
Phosphofructokinase
Coenzyme Q reductase
Phosphofructokinase
Each of the following characterizes a peptide hormone EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Stored in secretary granules
Synthesized in a precursor form
Binds to intracellular receptors
Acts by generating a second messenger
Usually transported unbound in plasma
Binds to intracellular receptors
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers to the head have their cell bodies in the

paravertebral ganglia.
cervicothoracic ganglia.
superior cervical ganglia.
gray rami communicantes of the thoracic region.
intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.
intermediolateral horns of the thoracic spinal cord.
Which nerve enters the pharynx in the gap between the superior and middle constrictors?

Lingual
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal
Inferior laryngeal
Superior laryngeal
Glossopharyngeal
Which of the following structures are found in the infratemporal fossa?

Temporalis muscle and parotid gland
Masseter and lateral pterygoid muscles
Superficial temporal artery and parotid lymphatic nodes
Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII
Mandibular division of V and chorda tympani branch of VII
The submandibular ganglion is associated with which of the following nerves?

Inferior alveolar
Glossopharyngeal
Maxillary
Mylohyoid
Lingual
Lingual
Each of the following appears in the glomerular filtrate in concentrations approximately equal to those in plasma EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Urea
Glucose
Amino acids
Steroid hormones
Plasma electrolytes
Steroid hormones
Which of the following stimulates vagal nerve endings in the lung parenchyma and inhibits inspiration?

Decreased arterial pH
Expansion of the lungs
Decreased alveolar 02 tension
Increased alveolar C02 tension
Expansion of the lungs
Epinephrine causes an elevation in cAMP levels in muscle cells which in turn activate

ATPase.
adenyl cyclase.
glycogen synthetase.
glycogen phosphorylase.
glycogen phosphorylase phosphatase
glycogen phosphorylase.
Intravenous injections of KCl solution would increase the secretion of which of the following?

Insulin
Cortisol
Calcitonin
Aldosterone
Parathyroid hormone
Aldosterone
When arterial pressure increases, pressoreceptors discharge and

increase cardiac rate and strength of contraction.
cause vasoconstriction throughout the peripheral circulatory system.
excite sympathetic nerves and inhibit parasympathetic nerves.
inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.
inhibit tonic activity of sympathetic nerves and excite parasympathetic nerves.
Which of the following controls the excitability of the muscle spindle?

Load on the muscle
Gamma efferent system
Alpha efferent discharge
Length of the extrafusal fibers
Gamma efferent system
Congestion in the early stages of inflammation is caused by which of the following?

Ischemia
Venous dilation
Active hyperemia
Venous constriction
Lymphatic obstructio
Active hyperemia
Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?

Necrosis
Exudation
Epithelioid cells
Langhans' giant cells
Spreading of the initial focus
Necrosis
Each of the following structures is found in the infratemporal fossae EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Lingual nerve
Medial pterygoid muscle
Inferior alveolar nerve
Pterygopalatine ganglion
Pterygoid venous plexus
Pterygopalatine ganglion
When compared to the primary mandibular first molar, the primary mandibular second molar normally exhibits a GREATER number of which of the following?

Oblique ridges
Roots
Cusps
Cervical ridges
Transverse ridges
Cusps
Each of the following muscles usually appears in the floor of the posterior triangle EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Sternohyoid
Medius scalene
Splenius capitis
Levator scapulae
Anterior belly of omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Which of the following factors MOST influences the lingual concavity of the maxillary anterior teeth and groove direction of the posterior teeth?

Anterior guidance
Angle of the eminence
Curve of the occlusion
Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)
Direction of movement of the rotating condyle
Sideshift of the mandible (Bennett movement)
On the crown of the primary maxillary first molar, the mesial surface normally

is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth.
exhibits a concave lingual outline.
is wider occlusocervically than buccolingually.
exhibits a straight cervical line.
is wider buccolingually at the occlusal table than at the cervical third.
is larger than the distal surface of the same tooth
Mesial and distal pulp horns are MORE likely to be found in which of the following teeth?

Maxillary central incisors
Mandibular central incisors
Mandibular canines
Maxillary first premolars
Mandibular first premolars
Maxillary central incisors
The major sensory nerve to the parietal pericardium branches from which of the following nerves?

Vagus
Musculophrenic
Intercostal
Phrenic
Internal thoracic
Phrenic
The apex of the horizontal plane Gothic-arch tracing represents which of the following positions?

Maximum opening
Centric relation
Lateral protrusive
Rest position
Centric relation
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse in the pterygopalatine ganglion travel in which of the following nerves?

Maxillary
Lesser palatine
Lesser petrosal
Greater palatine
Greater petrosal
Greater petrosal
Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical ridge would stand out MOST prominently as a distinct entity on which surface of which molar?

First molar, distofacial surface
First molar, mesiofacial surface
Second molar, distofacial surface
Second molar, mesiolingual surface
Second molar, distolingual surface
First molar, mesiofacial surface
n the intercuspal position, which of the following anterior teeth has the potential of contacting both anterior and posterior antagonists?

Maxillary lateral incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
Maxillary canine
On a maxillary first molar, the occlusal outline contains two obtuse and two acute angles. The acute line angles are

mesiolingual and distolingual.
mesiofacial and distolingual.
mesiolingual and distofacial.
mesiofacial and distofacial.
distofacial and distolingual.
mesiofacial and distolingual
Atropine prevents the secretion of saliva resulting from stimulation of the chorda tympani because it

denatures the salivary gland proteins.
prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells.
prevents release of acetylcholine by sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
prevents release of acetylcholine in autonomic ganglia.
prevents the action of acetylcholine on the secreting cells
Which of the following epithelial types is normally associated with the internal lining of the majority of the tubular gastrointestinal tract?

Simple columnar
Simple cuboidal
Simple squamous
Stratified cuboidal
Stratified squamous
Simple columnar
Examination of the right side of the cadaver's skull reveals a fracture running through the petrotympanic fissure. Which of the following structures is MOST likely affected by such a fracture?

Chorda tympani
Auriculotemporal nerve
Mandibular branch of V
Middle meningeal artery
Accessory meningeal arter
Chorda tympani
Each of the following is a likely long-term complication of poorly controlled type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Pancreatic carcinoma
Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
Proliferative retinopathy
Nodular glomerulosclerosis
Peripheral symmetric neuropathy
Pancreatic carcinoma
If Tooth #32 is infected, then the infection will typically spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Parotid
Temporal
Masseteric
Buccopharyngeal
Temporal
Which of the following histopathologic findings will characterize lymph node involvement with Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lateral neck?

Fibrosis and scarring of the lymph node cortex
Hyperplasia of the cortex and presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis
Hyperplasia of the cortex and a focally dense infiltrate of neutroph
Granulomas with multinucleate giant cells and caseation necrosis
Neurofibromatosis type I is characterized by which of the following conditions?

Multiple mucosal neuromas
Perioral melanotic freckles
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Development of visceral carcinoma
Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
Which of the following teeth is the LEAST likely tooth to have a bifurcation of the root?

Mandibular canine
Mandibular central incisor
Maxillary central incisor
Mandibular lateral incisor
Maxillary second premolar
Maxillary central incisor
Which of the following BEST describes the occlusal outline of a maxillary first molar from an occlusal view?

Ovoid
Square
Rectangular
Pentagonal
Rhomboidal
Rhomboidal
Which of the following pairs of amino acids is expected to be found on the interior of a globular protein?

Lysine and arginine
Arginine and leucine
Leucine and valine
Valine and glutamic acid
Glutamic acid and lysine
Leucine and valine
Which of the following primary teeth has a distinctly prominent facial cervical ridge that makes it different from other teeth?

Maxillary canine
Mandibular canine
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary second molar
Maxillary central incisor
Mandibular first molar
As viewed from the lingual, the lingual cusp of a maxillary first premolar is inclined

distally.
mesially.
distofacially.
mesiolingually.
directly over the center mesiodistally.
mesially.
Which of the following cranial nerves contains parasympathetic components?

Facial
Abducens
Trigeminal
Hypoglossal
Spinal accessory
Facial
The condyle on the laterotrusive side generally rotates about a

sagittal axis only.
horizontal axis only.
horizontal axis and translates laterally.
vertical axis and translates laterally
vertical axis and translates laterally
The first step in the pathway for fatty acid synthesis is catalyzed by an allosteric enzyme which is the principal regulator of the pathway. This enzyme is

thiolase.
pyruvate carboxylase.
citrate synthetase.
acetyl CoA carboxylase.
pyruvate dehydrogenase
acetyl CoA carboxylase
Which of the following represents the structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that maxillary premolar roots occasionally penetrate?

Antrum
Nasal septum
Frontal sinus
Zygomatic arch
Mandibular fossa
Antrum
When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar

are longer.
are more divergent.
are fewer in number.
have less potential for fusion.
are greater in distal inclination.
are greater in distal inclination
Which of the following structures can be palpated by way of the external auditory (acoustic) meatus?

Zygomatic arch
Mandibular notch
Lateral pterygoid muscle
Coronoid process of the mandible
Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle
Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle
When an adult with normal occlusion moves the mandible from maximum intercuspation to right lateral relation, which of the following cusps of maxillary left teeth moves through the facial embrasure between the mandibular left premolars?

Lingual cusp; first premolar tooth
Facial cusp; second premolar tooth
Lingual cusp; second premolar tooth
Mesiofacial cusp; first molar tooth
Distofacial cusp; first molar tooth
Lingual cusp; first premolar tooth
Which of the following describes a major effect of sickle cell anemia?

Absence of biphosphoglycerate binding of hemoglobin
Substitution of 2 proximal histidines
Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin
A P50 value for hemoglobin similar to that of myoglobin
Decreased number of subunits in hemoglobin
Decreased solubility of the deoxy form of hemoglobin
An action potential initiated at the midpoint along the length of an axon will

not propagate.
propagate towards the soma
propagate towards the nerve ending.
propagate towards both the soma and the nerve ending.
propagate towards both the soma and the nerve ending.
Which of the following teeth has its mesial marginal ridge located more cervically than its distal marginal ridge?

Mandibular first premolar
Maxillary first premolar
Maxillary first molar
Primary mandibular first molar
Mandibular second molar
Mandibular first premolar
Following prophylactic administration of amoxicillin, a patient becomes hypotensive and itchy and is having difficulty breathing. Which of the following is MOST probably occurring?

CD4 lymphocytes are secreting lymphokines resulting in edem
Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines.
IgG and complement are inducing the chemotaxis of neutrophils out of vessels.
IgE bound to antigen results in histamine release from mast cells.
Amoxicillin reacts with IgE and activates cytotoxic T cells to release lymphokines
The biologically active conformation of trimeric G-proteins requires

the alpha-subunit to bind GDP.
the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
the hydrolysis of BetaGamma-subunits.
the alpha-subunit to phosphorylate downstream targets.
the alpha-subunit to bind GTP.
During the life span of a multirooted tooth, dentin continues to form MOST rapidly at which of the following locations?

Within the root canals
At the dentinoenamel junction
Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
Mesial and distal walls of the pulp chamber
Facial and lingual walls of the pulp chambe
Floor and roof of the pulp chamber
Which of the following teeth might possess three cusps?

Maxillary second premolar and maxillary first molar
Maxillary second premolar and mandibular first premolar
Maxillary first molar and mandibular second molar
Maxillary second molar and mandibular first premolar
Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premolar
Maxillary second molar and mandibular second premola
Which of the following roots MOST likely has two canals?

Facial root of the maxillary first premolar
Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
Distofacial root of the maxillary first molar
Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar
Distal root of the mandibular first molar
Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar
Each of the following statements correctly describes similar characteristics of the chemical senses of taste and smell EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Receptor cells are replaced regularly.
There are primary classes of taste and of odor.
Receptors are located on cilia or microvilli at the apical ends of cells.
Receptors initiate action potentials directly to respective cranial nerve sensory fibers.
Molecules must be dissolved in saliva or mucus to interact with receptor membrane proteins.
Receptors initiate action potentials directly to respective cranial nerve sensory fibers.
Ingestion of which of the following MOST markedly DECREASES gastric emptying?

Fats
Water
Minerals
Proteins,
Carbohydrates
fats
Each of the following conditions predisposes a patient to develop cancer EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Asbestosis
Anthracosis
Hepatitis C
Gardner's syndrome
Ulcerative colitis
Anthracosis
A dietary iodine deficiency will INCREASE the secretion of which of the following?

Thyroxine
Thyroglobulin
Triiodothyronine
Thyroid stimulating hormone
Thyroglobulin
lf the patient's sensation of "clogged ears" is due to pressure on the auditory tubes, then which of the following nerves is providing this sensory innervation?

Glossopharyngeal
Lesser occipital
Vestibulocochlear
Zygomatic temporal
Posterior deep temporal
Glossopharyngeal
The atherosclerotic condition of this patient's arteries likely involves hypertrophy of which of the following?

Tunica media
Tunica intima
Tunica adventitia
lnternal elastic membrane
Tunica intima
Which of the following represents the MOST likely pathologic change in this patient's heart?

Vegetations of the aortic valve
Severe mitral valve thickening
Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Necrosis in the right ventricle
Scarring in the left ventricle
Scarring in the left ventricle
The patient's mandibular denture is determined to be pressing too far inferiorly, so that contraction of the muscular floor renders the denture unusable. Which of the following muscles is responsible for this circumstance?

Mentalis
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Genioglossus
Medial pterygoid
Mylohyoid
lnfection with hepatitis C results in liver dysfunction, which might decrease the liver's ability to store glycogen. ln addition to the liver, which of the following is the other major site of glycogen storage?

Brain
Kidney
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Skeletal muscle
Microbial analysis reveals that the flora of the abscess of Tooth #28 consists predominantly of P. gingivalis. The inflammation is caused primarily by which component of this microorganism?

Exotoxin
M-protein
Lipoteichoic acid
Lipopolysaccharid
Lipopolysaccharid
Which of the following nerve fibers is primarily responsible for the sharp pain in Tooth #30?

Aa
AB
M
B
C
M
Primary recognition of B-estradiol by its target cell depends upon the binding of the hormone to a specific

nuclear receptor.
cytoplasmic receptor.
cell-membrane receptor.
adenylate cyclase.
cytoplasmic receptor

steriod hormones including sex, adrenal are not water soluble and bind to intracellular receptors
Phosphorylation of some enzymes by ATP converts these enzymes from an active form into a form that is inactive. Which of the following conversions exemplifies this process?

Trypsinogen to trypsin
Phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a
Phosphodiesterase a to phosphodiesterase b
Glycogen synthetase I to glycogen synthetase D
Glycogen synthetase I to glycogen synthetase D
lnfection with hepatitis C results in liver dysfunction, which might decrease the liver's ability to store glycogen. ln addition to the liver, which of the following is the other major site of glycogen storage?

Brain
Kidney
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Skeletal muscle
Skeletal muscle
Microbial analysis reveals that the flora of the abscess of Tooth #28 consists predominantly of P. gingivalis. The inflammation is caused primarily by which component of this microorganism?

Exotoxin
M-protein
Lipoteichoic acid
Lipopolysaccharid
Lipopolysaccharid
Which of the following nerve fibers is primarily responsible for the sharp pain in Tooth #30?

Aa
AB
M
B
C
M
Primary recognition of B-estradiol by its target cell depends upon the binding of the hormone to a specific

nuclear receptor.
cytoplasmic receptor.
cell-membrane receptor.
adenylate cyclase.
cytoplasmic receptor

steriod hormones including sex, adrenal are not water soluble and bind to intracellular receptors
Phosphorylation of some enzymes by ATP converts these enzymes from an active form into a form that is inactive. Which of the following conversions exemplifies this process?

Trypsinogen to trypsin
Phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a
Phosphodiesterase a to phosphodiesterase b
Glycogen synthetase I to glycogen synthetase D
Glycogen synthetase I to glycogen synthetase D
Which of the following classes of steroids contain 18 carbons and an aromatic ring?

Estrogens
Androgens
Progestagens
Glucocorticoids
Mineralocorticoids
Estrogens
Gangliosides are glycolipids found on various cell surfaces. In addition to sphingosine, their unit composition contains another characteristic component. This component is

uronic acid.
plasmalogen.
triglyceride
N-acetylmuramic acid.
N-acetyineuraminic acid.
N-acetyineuraminic acid.

sphingosine is apart of spingolyipids (a glycolipid)
Purine ribonucleoside phosphates are all synthesized de novo from the common intermediate

inosine phosphate.
guanosine phosphate.
adenosine phosphate.
guanosine diphosphate.
deoxyadenosine phosphate.
inosine phosphate.

which makes xanthosine monophosphate which is a ribonucoside monophosphate
A component of the coenzyme required for a transamination process is

niacin.
thiamine.
folic acid.
pyridoxine.
riboflavin.
pyridoxine-- b6
Alanine can be synthesized by transamination directly from which of the following acids?

Lactic acid
Pyruvic acid
Glutaric acid
a-ketoglutaric acid
3-phosphoglyceric acid
Pyruvic acid

nonpolar non essential
During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce

antibodies.
histamine.
lymphokines.
leukotrienes.
none of these.
lymphokines.

subset of cytokines produced by t cells. including IL2, 3, 4, 5, 6, CSF and interferon gamma
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?

Candida
Brucella
Treponema
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
Trichophyton
candida
Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of

Bacteroides species.
Leptothrix buccalis.
Entamoeba gingivalis.
Streptococcus faecalis.
Veillonella alcalescens.
Bacteroides species.

gran negative bacilli, fimbriase
Lecithinases are produced by

Bacillus anthracis.
Clostridium perfringens.
Salmonella schottmulleri
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Clostridium perfringens.

anaerobic spore forming

lecithinase aka alpha toxin- hydrolyzes lecitin to destroy plasma membrane

gas gangrene
Endospores are formed by which of the following genera? : (a) Bacillus; (b) Micrococcus; (c) Actinomyces; (d) Clostridium (e) Corynebacterium

(a) and (c)
(a) and (d)
(b) and (c)
(b) and (e)
(d) and (e)
(a) and (d)
Which of the following viruses may be transmitted from man to man by inhalation of respiratory droplets generated by talking or sneezing by infected patients? : (a) Rubeola; (b) Adenoviruses; (c) Influenza virus (d) Varicella-zoster virus

(a), (b), and (c) only
(a), (b), and (d) only
(a), (c), and (d) only
(b), (c), and (d) only
(a), (b), (c), and (d)
all
Which of the following is located at the opening between the small and the large intestines?

The cardiac sphincter
The pyloric sphincter
The ileocecal valve
The tricuspid valve
The ileocecal valve

pyloric sphincter- stomach and duodenum
Basket (myoepithelial) cells are located in the

periodontal ligament.
lumen of secretory acini.
lamina propria of gingiva.
lumen of intercalated ducts.
spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane.
spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane.
Which of the following layers is totally lacking in thin skin?

Stratum corneurn
Stratum lucidum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum germinativum
Stratum lucidum
During delayed hypersensitivity reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes produce

antibodies.
histamine.
lymphokines.
leukotrienes.
none of these.
lymphokines.

subset of cytokines produced by t cells. including IL2, 3, 4, 5, 6, CSF and interferon gamma
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?

Candida
Brucella
Treponema
Aspergillus
Histoplasma
Trichophyton
candida
Collagen degradation observed in chronic periodontal disease may result directly from the action of collagenase enzymes of oral microbial origin. Such enzymes have been demonstrated as component systems of

Bacteroides species.
Leptothrix buccalis.
Entamoeba gingivalis.
Streptococcus faecalis.
Veillonella alcalescens.
Bacteroides species.

gran negative bacilli, fimbriase
Lecithinases are produced by

Bacillus anthracis.
Clostridium perfringens.
Salmonella schottmulleri
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
Clostridium perfringens.

anaerobic spore forming

lecithinase aka alpha toxin- hydrolyzes lecitin to destroy plasma membrane

gas gangrene
Endospores are formed by which of the following genera? : (a) Bacillus; (b) Micrococcus; (c) Actinomyces; (d) Clostridium (e) Corynebacterium

(a) and (c)
(a) and (d)
(b) and (c)
(b) and (e)
(d) and (e)
(a) and (d)
Which of the following viruses may be transmitted from man to man by inhalation of respiratory droplets generated by talking or sneezing by infected patients? : (a) Rubeola; (b) Adenoviruses; (c) Influenza virus (d) Varicella-zoster virus

(a), (b), and (c) only
(a), (b), and (d) only
(a), (c), and (d) only
(b), (c), and (d) only
(a), (b), (c), and (d)
all
Which of the following is located at the opening between the small and the large intestines?

The cardiac sphincter
The pyloric sphincter
The ileocecal valve
The tricuspid valve
The ileocecal valve

pyloric sphincter- stomach and duodenum
Basket (myoepithelial) cells are located in the

periodontal ligament.
lumen of secretory acini.
lamina propria of gingiva.
lumen of intercalated ducts.
spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane.
spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane.
Which of the following layers is totally lacking in thin skin?

Stratum corneurn
Stratum lucidum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum germinativum
Stratum lucidum
The connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle as a whole and is synonymous with the gross anatomic deep fascia is the

epimysium.
endomysium.
perimysium.
periosteum.
perichondrium.
epimysium.
Which of the following characterizes a lymph node?

It contains medullary cords.
it lacks afferent lymphatics.
It has crypts lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
it has efferent lymphatics leaving at multiple sites from the capsule.
It contains medullary cords.
part of inner medulla house plasma cells

outer cortex= germinal nodes= t-lymphocytes
The facial processes that contribute directly to the formation of the lips are the: (a) maxillary and mandibular processes; (b) maxillary and lateral nasal processes; (c) maxillary and medial nasal processes; (d) medial and lateral nasal processes; (e) lateral and medial palatine processes.

(a) and (b)
(a) and (c)
(a) and (e)
(b) and (c)
(b) and (d)
a) maxillary and mandibular processes;

c) maxillary and medial nasal processes;
Nutrients and oxygen reach the cells of compact bone by passing through: (a) lamellae; (b) canaliculi; (c) capillaries; (d) osseous matrix; (e) Volkmann's canals.

(a), (b), and (e) only
(a), (c), and (e) only
(a), (d), and (e) only
(b), (c), and (d) only
(b), (c), and (e) only
(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e)
•
(b), (c), and (e) only

Lamellae – circular layers of osteocytes located in lacunae
Which of the following is never found at the outer surface of enamel?

Perikymata
Enamel tuft
Enamel matrix
Enamel lamella
Enamel tuft
Which of the following branches of the axillary artery usually supplies the latissimus dorsi muscle?

Thoracodorsal
Thoracoacromial
Lateral thoracic
Circumflex scapular
Posterior humeral circumflex
Thoracodorsal
The unpaired vessels contributing to the arterial circle of the brain include the

internal carotid and vertebral arteries.
posterior and anterior cerebral arteries.
anterior cerebral and anterior communicating arteries.
anterior cerebral and posterior communicating arteries.
anterior communicating and basilar arteries.
anterior communicating and basilar arteries.
The posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to which of the following nerves?

Radial
Long thoracic
Thoracoacromial
Medial pectoral
Lateral pectoral
radial
The external carotid artery contributes to the blood supply of the nasal cavity by way of the

facial artery, the superior labial artery and angular arteries.
lingual artery, the deep lingual artery and internal nasal arteries.
occipital artery, the ascending palatine artery, and posterior nasal arteries.
maxillary artery, the sphenopalatine artery, and posterior lateral nasal arteries.
superficial temporal artery, the transverse facial artery, and external nasal arteries.
superficial temporal artery, the transverse facial artery, and external nasal arteries
Cell bodies of taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are located in which of the following ganglia?

Otic
Geniculate
Trigeminal
Pterygopalatine
Geniculate
The middle pharyngeal constrictor muscle originates from the

hyoid bone.
thyroid cartilage.
pterygoid hamulus.
pterygomandibular raphe.
hyoid bone.
Which of the following veins are normally concerned with drainage of the stomach? (a) Portal; (b) Azygos; (c) Splenic; (d) Internal iliac

(a) and (b)
(a) and (c) only
(a), (c), and (d)
(b) and (c) only
(b), (c), and (d)
(b) and (d) only
a) and (c) only
Which of the following artery-foramen/fissure pairings is NOT correct?

Accessory meningeal-foramen ovale
Middle meningeal-foramen spinosum
Inferior alveolar-mandibular foramen
Anterior tympanic-petrotym panic fissure
Posterior superior alveolar-sphenopalatine foramen
Posterior superior alveolar-sphenopalatine foramen
Cell bodies of sympathetic fibers in the nerve of the pterygoid canal come from which of the following?

Facial nerve
Superior cervical ganglion
Greater petrosal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Otic ganglion
Superior cervical ganglion
Stimulation of the lesser petrosal nerve in an adult causes secretion by which of the following glands?

Parotid
Lacrimal
Sublingual
Submandibular
Glands of the hard palate
Parotid
In the triangle formed by the projection of the orifices of the canals of a maxillary first molar, the

line connecting mesial with lingual is longest.
line connecting distal with lingual is longest.
line connecting mesial with distal is longest.
angle at the distolingual canal is obtuse.
angle at the mesiofacial canal is obtuse.
line connecting mesial with lingual is longest.
Which of the following papillae would normally be found in the buccal vestibule?

Parotid
Incisive
Fungiform
Interdental
Circumvallate
parotid
When compared to a maxillary first molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar

are longer.
are more divergent.
are fewer in number.
have less potential for fusion.
are greater in distal inclination
are greater in distal inclinatio
Which of the following molar roots is wide faciolingually and concave on both mesial and distal surfaces?

Distofacial of a maxillary first
Lingual of a maxillary first
Mesial of a mandibular first
Distal of a mandibular first
Mesial of a mandibular first
Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar?

Distolingual
DF triangular
DL triangular
Distal marginal
Distal portion of the central
Which of the following primary grooves uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of the mandibular second molar represents the one that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit of the first molar?

Distolingual
DF triangular
When viewed from the frontal plane and progressing posteriorly, the axial inclination of the crowns of maxillary posterior teeth

remains vertical.
inclines lingually.
inclines distally.
inclines mesially.
inclines buccally.
inclines buccally.
oft and hard tissue necrosis characterizes which of the following fungal diseases?

Mucormycosis
Cryptococcosis
Histoplasmosis
Coccidioidomycosis
Candidiasis
Mucormycosis
The tensile strength of a healing mucosal wound depends on which of the following?

Wound hormones
Epithelial regeneration
Formation of collagen fibers
Activation of fibrinolysis
Formation of elastic fiber
formation of collagen fiber