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898 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
age at which babies first walk
10 to 14 months
age at which baby sits unsupported
6 months
a child will back away from a looming object at
3 months
age at which child has best VA based on behavioral methods
3 years
newborn visual response to a distant target
overaccomodation in newborns
color of newborn's eyes
blue eyes if other pigment hasn't developed yet
rate that accomodation diminishes at
0.15 diopters per year
accomodative latency
shows the smallest variation with age
age at which infants can use smooth pursuits for low velocity
2 months
age at which infants have bowel control
20 months
age infants have one minute of stereo
6 months
age at which lids will close in response to bright light
30 weeks gestation
infants have good stereopsis at
3 to 6 months
a 6 month old should have
20/40 on VER and VEP
average refractive error of a premature infant
0.50 myopia with SD of 2.8 D
average refractive error of a 1 to 3 year old
1.00D hyperopia
average size of the cornea at birth
9 to 10 mm
binocular fixation develops and convergence is demonstrated
by the 8th week of life
which forms first? cones or rods?
rods
horizontal conjugate gaze develops at birth
vertical conjugate gaze develops at around 2 months
age at which infants are startled by sound
1 month
amount by which infants have less sensitivity in short wavelengths compared to adults
1 log unit
infants have a lower range ofÖ
...lower range of spatial frequency than adults
infants lose step saccades at
4 to 5 months
infants pupils are smaller than adults but reach adult size by
6 months
infants saccades have
longer latency
amount of hyperopia seen in a newborn
less than 2.50D hyperopia
liquefaction of the vitreous begins at
age 40 years old
most premature babies are born
myopic
normal term babies are mostly born
hyperopic
ocular transmission decreases in which age range?
45 to 65 years old
older people have more trouble in which position of gaze
superior gaze
most common childhood defect regarding the lacrimal system
punctal stenosis
smooth pursuits appear at age
6 weeks
stereopsis develops at
5 to 6 months
less light reaches the retina of an
older person than a younger person
the amplitude of accommodation reaches adult levels by
4 to 6 months
the elderly have trouble distinguishing which colors
blues
age at which the lacrimal gland is fully developed
not until 3 to 4 years postnatally
anatomical point at which the sclera is most elastic in children
at the equator
grade at which the trend of increasing myopia in school children becomes most obvious
3rd grade
rate at which VA increases from 0 to 20 months
1 cycle per degree per month until 20 months
which type of acuity is last to develop
vernier acuity
width of visual field in newborns
40 degrees
vitreous is most liquid at which age
60 years
water soluble proteins will do what with age
increase
anisocoric pupils that are equally reactive to near stimuli could be a
preganglionic parasympathetic lesion
blood supply to the LGN is via
the anterior choroidal artery
CN 2 causes this reflex
Menace reflex
CN 4 is the only cranial nerve that exits
on the dorsal surface of the midbrain
CN 12 innervates
most of the tongue muscles
decussation of fibers occurs at the level of the
medulla
glycine and GABA are
inhibitory neurotransmitters
result of severing the right pyramids
ipsilateral paralysis
innervation to the parotid gland is via
the inferior salvatory nucleus and CN 9
innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is via
CN 7
Innervation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is via
CN 9
layer 4 of the cortex is allÖ
input (sensory)
layer 4 of the cortex is also called
the plexiform layer
what structure found in the endothelium of schlemm's canal pulls aqueous into themselves
macrovacuoles
main nerve supply to the cornea is
the nasociliary branch of CN 5 (trigeminal)
the meninges of the brain are in contact with
the lamina cribosa
meyer's loop is located in the
optic radiations
reflex blink occurs afferently via
CN 5
this function will cease with medullary destruction
respiratory function
resting membrane equilibrium is approximately the same as forÖ
potassium
time it takes for retrograde degeneration in the right striate cortex to show in the LGN
4 to 6 weeks after degeneration
stimulating area 8 will cause
both eyes to turn up
sympathetic preganglionic cell bodies to the dilator muscle lie in the
intermediolateral gray spinal column
the angular gyrus is principally concerned
with visual memory
corneal reflex involves which cranial nerves?
CN 5 trigeminal and CN 7 facial
the MLF connects
the motor nuclei of several cranial nerves
the MLF carries fibers of the
corticospinal tract
the stria of gennari is in
layer IV of the cortex
the occipital pole of the brain receives blood from
the MCA and PCA
the opthalmic and middle cerebral are branches of the ICA that do not
anastamose
the splenium of the corpus callosuum
connects one side of the cortex to another
unequal accomodation between the two eyes might indicate
a CN 3 problem
Ventral spinal nerve controls
cortical handmovements
how would you disrupt pupillary response without a loss of vision?
by severing the mesencephalon
best way to diagnosis cancer
biopsy
which tumor is least likely to metastisize
a brain tumor
type 4 reactions (eg AIDS) show a decrease in
CD 4
a diabetic blood ph will be
lower blood pH
a thrombus is a clot on a vessel
an embolus is free floating
Addison's disease is
decreased cortisol
AIDS works by a
reverse transcriptase enzyme
aplastic anemia presents with
decreased WBC and RBC and platelet levels
beriberi
is a thiamine deficiency
fetal transmission is the most common method of contracting toxoplasmosis
other agesof toxoplasmosis contraction would indicate an immunocomprimised person
Burtonian gumline is
a classic sign of lead poisoning
Cushing's disease is
increased cortisol
CV collapse in anaphylactic shock results from
decreased circulating volume
Most common adult behavioral disorder
Depression
Diabetes would cause
decreased wound healing
endocarditis is a
bacterial infection of the heart valves
a Fetal Alcohol Syndrome baby would have
micro ophthalmia
Ghons tubercle would be found on
a chest Xray of a TB patient
Goodpastures is an autoimmune disease affecting the
basement membrane of the lung and kidney
granuloma is typical of
sarcoidosis
granulomas consist of
epitheliod cells which are macrophages with lymphocytes
HIV affects
T Helper cells (CD4) cells
an HIV vaccine is yet to be found because
HIV can rapidly change its coat antigen
HIV is an
ssRNA retrovirus
HLA causes rejection in a
type 2 reaction
Hodgkins disease is a
neoplastic disorder of the lymph nodes
Hyperpituitarism can result in
acromegaly
Hypothyroidism can result in
cretinism
Hypovolumic shock occurs
in burns
if CN 5 is affected by herpes zoster
you will have upper lid involvement
in AIDS patients the ratio of T4:T8
decreases
In rheumatic fever
anti`streptolysin`O titer will be elevated
lead poisoning should be treated with
calcium disodium EDTA
leukemia will show a decreased
WBC
leukemia is a proliferation of
abnormal WBC
lots of lymphocytes on a slide indicate
a viral infection
Mantoux reaction with TB is what type of reaction?
type 4 reaction
Mitral valve stenosis is seen with
pulmonary edema
opportunistic mycosis has causative agents which invade the
subepithelial tissue such as the dermis and deeper regions
parkinson's affects
the substantia nigra
pellagra is a niacin deficiency marked by the 3 D'sÖ
Dementia Diarrhea Dermatitis
Reed Steinberg giant cells would be present in
Hodgkin's disease
Rheumatic fever is considered to be a
pancarditis
rheumatoid arthritis is an example of
tissue degeneration
scurvy is a deficiency of
Vitamin C
Strep viridans is the most common bacterial cause of
subacute endocarditis
subcutaneous mycosis generally does not spread to
internal organs
most common genetic disorder in the US
Down's syndrome
most common site for colon carcinoma
the rectum
transient ischemic attack is reversible
CVA is not reversible
type 1 DM which is IDDM has
decreased insulin secretion from beta cells
type 2 DM which is NIDDM has
decreased insulin receptor function
vasodilation causes
headaches in migraines
Varicella zoster is the
virus of chicken pox
all layers of the cornea except Epi are from
neurocrest cells
anterior border of the iris is formed by
neural crest
these three are all from neural ectodermÖ
CB epi & Iris epi & the RPE
cerebral cisterns develop from
the subarachnoid space
corneal epithelium is derived from
ectoderm
the corpus callosum is derived from
telencephalon
during embryological development the ciliary muscles changes attachment
from TM to SS
the embryonic cornea is more hydrated than in adults and as a result the
embryonic cornea is less transparent
ganglion cells are the first to
differentiate
imcomplete closure of the fetal tissue would most like affect the
iris
order of development of the lacrimal system
1st lacrimal sac 2nd canaliculi 3rd nasolacrimal duct
lens placode develops first in the lens
lens vesicle develops last
when does the fovea centralis mature
at birth to postnatal four months
myelinization of the optic nerve usually reaches the lamina cribosa
by the 8th month
neural ectoderm gives rise to the
sensory retina
the optic stalk develops from
diencephalon
the sclera and choroid are derived
from neural crest cells
the proximal CRA is derived from the
fetal hyaloid artery
the first wave of neural crest cells forms the
corneal endothelium
the glial tissue forming the meniscus of Khunt is found in the
physiological cup
the lens placode comes from the
surface ectoderm
the muscles of the orbit are derived from
mesoderm
the neural groove becomes the neural tube which develops into the
prosencephalon and the mesencephalon and the rhombencephalon
the RPE develops from the pigmented layer of the
optic cup
the skin the glands and the conjunctiva are all derivatives of the
ectoderm
the tarsal plate is derived from
mesenchyme
the epithelium of upper and lower eyelids develops from the
ectoderm
two myoblasts fuse in the fetus and form
striated muscle
a spirometer measure three types of volume
tidal and inspiratory and expiratory volume
aldosterone is NOT
anti-inflammatory
atrial natriuretic peptide causes
sodium and water excretion by the kidneys
bradykinin causes
vasodilation
CO equalsÖ
CO equals SV times HR
Cortisol causes
hypokalemia and hypercalciuria and hyperglycemia
depolarization is caused by influx of
Na
during prophase there is formation of
chromatids and spindles
during prometaphase the
nuclear envelop disappears
during metaphase the
chromatids line up to form the equatorial plate
during anaphase the
chromatids are pulled apart at the centromere
during telephase the
chromosomes are pulled completely apart
during isovolumetric contraction
all the valves are closed and the ventricular pressure is increasing
histamine triple response refers to the triad of
localized edema and flare and localized erythema
IL1 is an endogenous pyrogen that acts on
the hypothalamus to produce fever
inspiration is caused by the
contraction of the diaphragm
insulin is not required for glucose uptake in
neurons
K+ is coming in during the repolarization of an
action potential
mitral valve prolapse causes regurgitation into the
left atrium
neutrophils (PMN) are the first to
respond to damage
opsonization attracts bacteria to
phagocytes
passage of leukocytes through vessel walls is called
diapedesis
neutrophils (PMN) are the most abundant
phagocytes in the blood
P-R interval is
SA node conduction
resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle is
-55mV
the first and most rapid response in inflammation
is transient vasoconstriction
the first heart sound is the
atrioventricular valves closing
the QRS wave is
ventricular contraction
the liver is least affected by
ischemia
the lymph system prevents
edema
the resting membrane potential of tissue cells is
- 70 mV
a retinal triad consists of
one bipolar and two horizontal cells
amblyopia affects the
cortex
an Rx is written in
back vertex power
beta waves are present during
REM sleep
cortisol is from the
zona reticularis
dazzle reflex is
CN II
direct is the best method of
quantifying
dysplasia is
benign and irreversible
Herring effect is due to
lateral inhibitions
high spatial frequency is due to
optics
HLA recognizes the Ag for
lymphocytes
if a patient sees Moore's lighting streaks
you would do ophthalmodynometry or ophthalmoscopy
in the vasovagal reflex you have
tachycardia
leptokurtosis in the typical refractive error frequency distribution curve may be due to
covariation among ocular elements
liquefaction is a type of necrosis that is characteristic of an
abcess
meiasma is an increased pigment in
pregnant women
methotrexate is an
antimetabolite
a mirage can be
photographed
muscae volitantes are
floaters in the vetreous
mutations in future generations occurs in
DNA
one cycle of fatty acid oxidation uses
two carbons
overextension is when a word is used incorrectly to
describe a wider set of things
pseudotumor would be present in
obese females with papilledema
retinal afterimages get
smaller as you move closer to the retina
stroboscopic motion is due to
Phi motion
the cornea reflects about 2.5% of the
light incident on it
the gap size in a 20/200 Landolt C is
ten minutes
the JCC uses the
method of limits
the lens fiber cells are considered to be
immunologically foreign
the mean and median and mode are
expressions of central tendency
the median is less influenced by extremes than
the mean is
the rabbit lacks a
fovea
the RE curve is
leptokurtotic
there are 46 chromosomes in a
normal diploid cell
4% of blood that comes to the CB will form
aqueous
a 6mm pupil is 9x larger than a
2mm pupil
a higher myope will have more
vitreous liquefaction and higher incidence of PVD
a lesion to the innervation of the dilator muscle causes
hypersensitivity to NE
after a corneal abrasion
mitosis stops and migration occurs
all of the EOMs have the same anatomical and physiological origin except the
Superior Oblique SO
the IO is the only muscle that doesn't originate from the
Annulus of Zinn
amacrine cells and ganglion cells use
action potentials
anterior chamber depth decreases with
presbyopia
anterior ciliary artery supplies the
CB and Iris
the anterior iris is classified as
stroma
aqueous contains lots of
Vitamin C
average IOP is
15 mmHg
axial length of the eye is
24mm
basal cells of corneal epithelium are responsible for replacing
epithelial cells
blinking in response to an object approaching the eye is called the
menace reflex
blood supply to the optic tracts is via the
Anterior cerebral artery the posterior cerebral artery and the anterior communicating artery
blood vessels that supply the optic nerve are from the
ophthalmic artery
bruch's membrane is
avascular
capillary nets are located in
layers 6 and 8 of the retina
caruncle is skin and
plica semilunaris is conjunctiva
CB contraction causes zonule relaxation and
peripheral retinal pulls forward
CB produces
3 microliters of aqueous per minute
CN VII paralysis can cause
ectropion
cornea gets the majority of its glucose from
the aqueous
corneal dehydration is due to
chloride ion (Cl-)
corneal stroma is continuous with
sclera
corneal stroma is
type II collagen
distance from the cornea to the lens is
3.6 mm
drusen are most often located on the
RPE
episcleral veins have less pressure than
normal IOP
excess CO2 in retinal arterioles causes
dilation
fingerlike projections outside the limbus are called the
palisades of Vogt
first response of the corneal epithelium to abrasion is
migration
flare is associated with
increased aqueous protein content
flourescein passes easily through everything except
RPE
free nerve endings are most numerous in the
corneal epithelium
glands of Zeis keep
the eyelashes flexible and the hair follicles moist
glutathione is important for
lens transparency
glycolysis detoxifies
vitamin A before it enters the retina
greater superficial petrosal nerve eventually innervates the
lacrimal gland (parasympathetics)
Hassle-Henle bodies form in the
Descemet's layer
Henle's fiber layer is a
thickened outer plexiform layer around the macula
hexokinase is a
glycolytic enzyme in the cornea
horizontal cells are lateral inhibitors working to enhance
visual contrast
if CN II is cut you will have
ipsilateral loss of direct and consensual pupillary light response
if the crystalline lens was shifted forward and everything else stayed the same
you would get a shift towards myopia
if you sever the optic tract just behind the chiasm you will see
retrograde degeneration towards the retina
increased blood osmolarity would decrease
IOP
the index of refraction of the lens is
greatest in the center
IO originates on the
maxilla
IOP is highest in the
morning
Aniridia is associated with
Wilm's tumor
iris capillaries most closely resemble retinal capillaries
they are both non fenestrated
the glands of Krause and Wolfring are in the
upper fornix
the glands of Krause and Wolfring produce the
majority of the normal tear aqueous layer
lacrimal gland acini do contain
basement membrane
laminar part of the optic nerve is supplied by the
pial artery plexus
lens cortex has the
highest protein content in the body
levator palpebrae muscle is not involved with the
eyebrows
low water concentration in the lens is due to the
Na/K pump
lymph channels are most plentiful in the
conjunctival stroma
lymph from the lateral canthus drains into the
preauricular lymph nodes
meibomiam glands produce the
layer of the tear film that prevents evaporation (oil)
more pigment is present over the ciliary processes in the
CB epithelium
most of the aqueous is produced in the
pars plicata
most of the blood in the eye is located in the
choroid
movement of tears through the lacrimal drainage system is aided by
Horner's muscle
mueller cells are not found in the
photoreceptor layer
mueller cells are the
support cells of the retina
mueller cells of the retina supply glucose to the
nerve cells of the retina
non pigment epithelium of the CB makes
zonules
nuclei of mueller cells are located in the
inner nuclear layer
ocular media absorbs more
short wavelengths
ocular torticollis is associated with
trochlear nerve damage
outer choroid stroma is Haller's
inner choroid stroma is Settler's
pachymetry measures the
corneal thickness
pars plicata is synonymous with the
corona ciliaris
photoreceptor cells only hyperpolarize in
the light
these three cells use graded potentials
photoreceptor cells and horizontal cells and bipolar cells
posterior epi of the iris is continuous with the
non pigmented epi of CB and sensory retina
proper water equilibrium of the cornea depends on the
endothelial pump
protein is more in the blood than the
aqueous
the pupil can range in diameter from
1 to 8 mm
pupil is displaced
nasal and down
pupils are mioticÖ
when sleeping
purkinje image 4 hasÖ
against motion
purkinje images from largest to smallest Ö
3 then 1 then 2 then 4 (4 is inverted)
reflex tearing is stimulated by the
CN V
removing the lens from a 50 year old would increase the
amount of short wavelength light incident on the retina
retinal detachment is most likely to occur between
the photoreceptor and the RPE
rhodopsin is found in the
rod outer segment
rouget cells surround the vessels of the choriocapillaris thus
regulating foveal blood flow
schlemm's canal is surrounded by
fenestrated endothelium
scleral spur is made of
collagen
sodium chloride is considered to be an
ocular hyperosmotic
staining of the corneal nerves can be seen with
methylene blue
the tear film is
7 to 10 microns thick
tears drain from the
canaliculi into the lacrimal sac
tertiary vitreous originates in the
zonular fibers
the blink rate is
about 15 times per minute
the canal of Hanover is
the space between the anterior and posterior zonular layers
the canal of Schlemm is
lined by endothelium
the check ligaments of the IR attaches to the
suspensory ligament of lockwood
the choroid is thickest at
the macula
the ciliary muscle is described as
multi unit smooth
the circular muscle fibers of the CB are called
Mueller's muscle
the cornea is sensitive to
pain and touch and temperature
the corneal epithelium has
zonula occludens
the mucous layer of the tear film makes
the cornea more hydrophilic
the depth of the physiologic cup is dependent on the
thickness of the sclera
the diameter of the pupil is
usually larger in myopes than hyperopes
the eyeball normally lies nearer to
the lateral wall and roof than to the medial wall and floor
the fibers of Landolt are found
in the retina
the first cells to have orientation selectivity are in
Area 17
the front surface of a lens changes curvature the most during
accomodation
the greatest density of ganglion cells is in the
parafoveal area
the hyaloidean vitreous has the
lowest viscosity
the imbibition pressure is the
negative pressure that keeps the corneal water content fixed
the inferior nasal fibers (contralateral superior temporal field) form
the Knee of Willebrand
the inner molecular layer contains
bipolar cells
the innermost extensions of Mueller's cells are called
fiber baskets
there is convection current in the aqueous that moves up
when close to the iris
the lacrimal gland is separated into orbital and palpebral portions by the
levator aponeurosis
the layers of the choroid from external to internal are:
epichoiroid ' hallers ' sattlers' choriocapillaris ' bruch's
the lens capsule is thinnest at the
posterior pole
the lens has more potassium and less sodium than
the aqueous and vitreous
the macula fibers are located centrally in the
chiasm
the macula lutea occupies about
1/20 of the retina
the major blood supply to the choroid is via the
SPCA's
the major source of oxygen to the corneal epithelium is the
atmosphere
the medial canthus drains to the
submandibular nodes
the medial root of the optic tract is named the
commisure of Gudden
the most anterior portion of the iris is the
collarette
the most posterior structure in the angle is the
ciliary body
the most superficial portion of the CB muscle is formed by
longitudinal smooth muscle
most mitochondria are located in the
photoreceptor inner segment
the optic canal is formed by the greater and lesser wings of the
sphenoid bone
the optic nerve is a projection of the
diencephalon
the orbit is protected from inflammation by the
orbital septum
the pain of conjunctivitis is carried along the
infratrochlear and supratrochlear nerves
the postganglionic neurons involved in the lacrimal reflex are in
the sphenopalatine ganglion
the production rate of aqueous is about
1% per minute
the pupil may dilate if the IOP is
markedly increased
the recti muscles most closely associated with the ON sheath are
SR and MR
the retinal circulation (not the choroidal circulation) exhibits
autoregulation
the retinal layer that gets blood from both the CRA and the choriocapillaris is the
outer plexiform layer
the RPE is absent from the
fovea centralis
the sclera is thinnest at the
insertion points of the EOMs
the stria gennari is made of fibers of the
optic radiations
the trabecular meshwork begins to develop in the
third trimester
the valve of hassner is associated with the
lacrimal system
the yellow pigment found within the macula is
xanthophyll
there are ?# rods and ?#cones in each eye
120 million rods and 6 million cones
there are schwann cells in the
corneal stroma
Tissue of Elsching separates sclera and choroid from the
optic nerve
total water content of the corneal stroma is
75-80 %
Troxler's phenomenon occurs with the
retinal vessels
type I collagen holds cells together in
the cornea
type IV collagen is found in
the lens
Verhoeff's membrane is located in the
retinal pigment epithelium
vitreous base is the strongest attachment of the
vitreous
volume of vitreous is
4.5 mL
when episcleral venous pressure increases the IOP also
increases
when glucose presence is more than 20% in the lens the
sorbitol pathway begins
with age the water content of the lens
decreases
X cells are the
slowest
Y sutures are most evident in the
fetal nucleus
Zonular area of the posterior chamber is the
Canal of Hanover
4 symptoms of inflammation
redness ' swelling' heat' pain
acanthamoeba is associated with
extended CL wear
acanthomoeba is a
protozoan
actinomycetes is an
aerobic gram positive fungus like bacteria that produces some of the antibiotics
aerobic metabolism is
18 times more effective (than what? But alas it doesn't say on the fact sheet)
an obligate aerobe can only use
oxygen
aspergilus is a filamentous fungi that can be treated with
amphotericin B
autoclaving consists of 121*C heat and steam for a period of
15 minutes
autoclaving is the
best means of disinfection
bacteria are in the kingdom
monera
bacterial cell walls are made of
peptidoglycan
candida albicans can be cultured on
Sabaraud's agar at room temperature
capsule is used for
virulence in bacteria
clostridium perfringens is
gas gangrene
cornyebacterium diphtheria is a non spore forming Ö
gram positive bacilli
corneal ulcers are mostly caused by pseudomonas which is a
motile anaerobic rod
cornyebacterium and E. coli are
club shaped and commonly found in normal flora
endotoxins are found
only in gram negative organisms
filamentous fungi have
spores and hyphae
floroquinolones are good against
pseudomonas
fungal identification is made on the basis of
presence of hyphae and spores in culture
common fungal infections like jock itch or athlete's foot or ringworm begin with
Tinea
fungi have cell walls made of
chitin
neisseria' haemophilus' and moraxella will only grow on
chocolate agar
gram positive lance shaped dipplococcus is
strep pneumoniae
haemophilus is not transmitted at birth
however' neisseria and chlamydia and treponema are transmitted at birth
haemophilus is a non motileÖ
gram negative rod coccobaccilus
herpes virus is an
enveloped virus
heterotrophs get energy from
organic sources
histoplasmosis is
a fungal infection that resembles TB
Kochs-Weeks bacillus is
haemophilus aegyptius and is associated with conjunctivitis
molds reproduce via
spores
moraxella commonly cause problems in the
elderly
mycobacterium is an
acid fast stain
mycoplasma are
facultative aerobes
mycoplasma lack cell walls so PCN isn't affective butÖ
antibiotics that attack membranes or protein synthesis are useful for mycoplasma
neisseria gonorrhea is a
gram negative aerobic diplococcus
onchocheriasis causes
river blindness
strep. Pneumoniae is the
most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis
protozoa are
unicellular heterotrophic
pseudomembranous colitis is caused by
clostridiumm difficil
pseudomonas aeruginosa is a
gram negative rod
rickettsia is an intracellular parasite that causes
rocky mountain spotted fever
spirochetes are
helical gram negative bacteria
spore forming bacteria are
bacillus (aerobic) and clostridium (anerobic)
staph and strep both will grow on
blood agar
staph aureus causes
abcessess ' boils ' and toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
staph epidermidis is
catalase'+ coagulase'- and gram'+
staph epidermidis is considered to be
normal flora
staphylococcus aureus is a
coagulase positive bacteria
streptomycetes produce
antibiotics
syphilis is caused by
treponema pallidium
the log phase of bacterial growth is
the best time to use drugs
toxocariasis is carried by
dogs
toxoplasmosis is an
obligate parasite carried by cats
transformation is taking up naked DNA
Ö
conjugation is via
cell to cell contact
transduction is via viruses
Ö
varicella zoster causes
chicken pox
yeasts are unicellular and molds are multicellular and
both molds and yeast are non photosynthetic
yeast infections are mostly caused by
candida albicans
our sexy buddy yeast propagates via
budding and sexual reproduction
going from near to far is 0.38 seconds
going from far to near is 0.56 seconds
latency of accommodation is
300 msec
maximum horizontal eye rotation is
70 degrees
reading is considered to be a
microsaccade
the stimulus for accommodation is a
blurry retinal media
the stimulus for pursuit is velocity
the stimulus for saccade is position
SR and IO are
synergistic EOMs
inability to elevate OD while in the adducted position is due to action of the
Inferior Oblique (IO)
The IO originates in the
maxilla
IO originates farthest from the
optic foramen
according to Listing a person exhibits false tortion when the eye is in the
tertiary position
botulinum toxin is used to treat
strabismus
CN III palsy manifests as
down and out of the eye
eye movements in REM are
saccadic
larger saccades are
faster
pursuits have the
shortest latency
the fronto mesencephalic pathway controls
saccades
the medial rectus depresses the globe when
the line of sight is below the horizontal plane
the orbicularis oculi is antagonistic to
the levator
with the eye abducted 39 degrees which muscle is an intorter?
the SO (Superior Oblique)
if a Canadian figure skater spins to the right and then stopsÖ
the nystagmus will be fast phase to the right
a patient with different distance and near cyl is not due to axial length
Ö (that's all it says)
1 degree is equal to how many prism diopters?
1.745 prism diopters
a person looking at 250mm with 0.125D depth of focus can move the object 8mm beforeÖ
it gets blurred
a real image can be created in a convex mirror by
a virtual object inside the focal point
an absolute presbyope has a range of accomodation because of
depth of focus
an optical system that is corrected for both spherical aberration and coma is called
aplanatic
angle lambda is between the
pupillary axis and line of sight
as the wavelength increases the
power decreases
center of rotation is defined as the
point of zero velocity during rotation
depth of field is inversely proportional to
pupillary size
dispersion is when light slows down in mediaÖ
other than a vacuum
diverging light comes from
real objects
the doctor's Rx plus the patient's Rx is equal to
the amount of power in the ophthalmascope
drop ball test is a 5/8th inch ball dropped from 50 inches
for safety test it is 1 inch at 50 inches
focal length of concave mirror is
independent of the medium
galilean telescope is a
terrestrial telescope
image displacement in a prism increases asÖ
apical angle increases in a prism
in a spherical mirror the focal power is
directly proportional to the radius of curvature
increasing vertex distance of a plus lensÖ
increases effective power
internal reflections occur most in
low minus lenses
keratometer uses doubling prism to move theÖ
image in relation to observed cornea
laser works byÖ
coherence
light in air will dimish in wavelength uponÖ
entering the eye
microwaves have a wavelength of
?? Meters
mirrors do not change focal distance in different media
oblique light rays cause marginal aberration
oblique light that hits a clear glass surface isÖ
reflected with 180 degrees out of phase
peripheral flattening of cornea compensates for
spherical aberration
peripheral rays forming in front of paraxial rays give
positive spherical aberration
refractive ametrope correct by
contact lenses
reverse slab off is
PDP (plastic ' base down' more plus)
shade #5 is the correct shade tint for
electric spot welding
for slab off you can remember GUMÖ
glass' base up' more minus lens
spherical aberrations increase withÖ
plus power and pupil size
the energy of a quantum is
inversely proportional to the wavelength
the entrance pupil is the image ofÖ
the aperture stop in object space
the far point of the hyperopic eye is behind the eye
and for the myope the far point is in front of the eye
the Gullstrand simplified schematic eye has
three refracting surfaces
the largest refracting angle that a prism can have so that light can pass through is
twice the critical angle
the lens has an
anterior radius of curvature of 10 mm
the nodal points of the eye
lie at equal distances from the respective principle points
the optical axis of the eye typically intersects the
retina nasal to the macula
the orientation of the first line of focus in the interval of sturm is
the same as the meridian of minimum power
the pupillary axis passes throughÖ
normal to the cornea and through the center of the entrance pupil
the retinal image size of an uncorrected axial myope isÖ
larger than an uncorrected refractive myope
the speed of light in air is
186'000 miles/sec (3e^8 m/s)
with thin prisms divergent light shifts image toward the apex
with a thin prism convergent light shifts the image to the base
to use an astronomical (Keplerian) telescopeÖ
an uncorrected myope must move the eyepiece towards the objective
up to 4 D of ametropia are probably due to
axial length (Srosby's study)
Wave theory does not explain
photoelectric emission
when accomodation is relaxed
the line of sight falls at the far point
when viewed through cross polaroidsÖ
a heat tempered lens will show a maltese cross pattern
when you accommodateÖ
the exit pupil and the retinal image size both get smaller
colors focus in this order with chromatic aberration
blue then yellow then red
you would decenter an XP (exophore) at near because of
accomodation
you would place a +10D lens at 35 cm to correct aÖ
4D myope
the frame material called Zyl has Ö
total memory and is hypoallergenic
a Fresnel double mirror is used to demonstrate
interference
Autoimmunity is via
MHC gene
the hypervariable region recognizes
antigen
antibody levels in secondary immune respose are Ö
higher and persist longer than primary immune response
macrophage initiates the
primary immune response
the rheumatoid factor is
an IgM type immunoglobulin
non specific immunity is
natural killer cells
cytotoxic T cells (CD8) areÖ
active against parasites
Type II reactions are
autoimmune
IgA is found
in the tears
IgA is present
in the GI tract
IgE has the greatest affinity for
mast cells
IgG crosses
the placenta
IgE is
involved in allergy
IgM is formed during the
primary response to an antigen
Histamine triple response refers toÖ
localized edema and flare and localized erythema
a transplant is most likely to be rejected ifÖ
it is from a cousin
acute inflammation involves four thingsÖ
transient constrictions ' arteriolar dilation ' and capillary & venule dilation
0.1% epi or 2.5% phenyl would
elevate lids in a patient with sudden ptosis and miosis (hypersensitivity)
a toxicity of NE is
increased BP
ADH acts on the
collecting tubule
adrenergic drugs do not affect
accomodation much
albumin is not involved in the
detoxification of drugs
amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug which causes
whorl like corneal deposits
an alpha blocker followed by epinephrine causes
vasodilation
antazoline phosphate is an
H1 blocker that is used in type I allergic reactions
anticholinesterase can cause
hyperemia ' excess tearing ' accomodative spasm
atropine causes
dry skin and tachycardia
bacitracin and gramicidin are effective against both
gram positive and gram negative
bacitracin is good against
gram positive in pus and blood
bacitracin is the first drug used to treat
staph blepharitis
BAK isÖ
a cytotoxic preservative
beta 2 agonists such as aminophylline can be used to
treat bronchospasm
betaxolol does not cause
bronchoconstriction
bioavailability is best defined as the amount of
drug present at the desired receptor level
BZD's can cause abnormal
EOM versions
Cephalosporins are associated with
hypersensitivity
chloramphenicol is known to cause
blood dyscrasia
chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that causes
bulls eye retinopathy
chloroquine accumulates in the
RPE and choroid
chlorphinaramine blocks
H1
cholinergic drugs decrease the
AC/A ratio
cimetidine is an
H2 antagonist
cimetidine is
prescribed as a prophylactic
cocaine acts as a
vasoconstrictor
cocaine blocks
reuptake of NE
cooperativity is
binding one substrate which increases another site's affinity for another substrate
corneal toxicity of epi is
adenochrome deposition
cyclopentolate can cause
hallucinations in children
cyclosporin is used to
prevent graft rejection
diazepam enhances
GABA
digoxin increases
contractile force
The OTC drug diphenhydramine causes
CNS depressant effects
doubling the dose of a drug usually increases its duration of action by
one half life
drugs excreted in breast milk may be dangerous to the baby due to
lack of metabolic enzymes
echothiphate and isothiphate are
irreversible
epi decreases
systemic absorption of local anesthetics
epinephrine is used to test for
supersensitivity dennervation
erythromycin is
broad spectrum and active against neisseria
esters are
short acting local anesthetics
furosemide is the best
diuretic
gramicidin is similar to
bacitracin
H1 blocker will
decrease accommodation with long term use
high T1 means
the drug is safer
hydroxyamphetamines increase
NE and epi
hypnotic drugs are
commonly used to calm anxious patients
ibuprofen was introduced as a treatment for rheumatoid arthritis but is now used as
an analgesic
if a patient is in anaphylactic shock you should give them
epinephrine
if you give a patient an MAO inhibitor with a TCA you will get
a hypertensive crisis
isoproterenol stimulates
beta 1 and 2 receptors
isosorbide is
an osmotic diuretic
ketanserin is a
serotonin antagonist used in the treatment of hypertension
labetalol blocks
adrenergic receptors alpha 1 ' beta 1' and beta 2
large doses of aspirin may be useful in
promoting uric acid excretion
lidocaine is used for
ventricular arrythmias
local anesthetics act to block
sodium channels
lomustine and carmustine are used
to treat brain tumors
loop diuretics act at the
thick ascending loop
mannitol (osmotic diuretics) work at the
proximal tubule
methacholine is used to diagnose
Adie's tonic pupil
methazolamide is an
CAI
methicillin is to be used sparingly because it is
beta lactamase resistant
neomycin is
an antibacterial commonly used in the eye in conjunction with steroids
neomycin is
bactericidal
neomycin is known to cause
hypersensitivity reactions
nicotine causes
clonic spasm of the EOMs
nitroglycerine is
a treatment for hypertension
nitroglycerine is
most often prescribed for angina
NSAID's are
contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease
nystatin is good against
fungal infections of the skin
nystatin is
too toxic to be used systemically
ocuserts follow
zero order kinetics
opiates may cause death via
respiratory depression
parasympathetic stimulation will
decrease AV conduction
parathyroid hormone works by
bone resorption
phenylephrine should not be given to a patient on
amitriptylline
flucytosin is used to treat
Candida infection
polymyxin B is not affective against
gram positive staph aureus
povidone is
a germicide
prolonged use of corticosteroids can cause
HTN (hypertension)
propantheline is
a synthetic antimuscarinic agent
proparacaine has duration of action of
fifteen minutes
propranalol is
a negative ionotrope
quinidine is used to treat
arrythmias
SE of chlorpromazine (anti psychotic) is
dry mouth
small unmyelinated fibers are the first to be affected by
local anesthetics
steroids increase
IOP
succinylcholine is
non competitive with acetylcholine
succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant that acts by
maintaining depolarization of the motor endplate
sucraflate is
an anti ulcer med that coats the stomach
sulfacetamide
inhibits folic acid metabolism
tachycardia would not be expected with
echothiphate
tetracycline acts by
inhibiting cell protein synthesis
tetracycline is used
to treat chlamydia
tetracyclines
modify fatty acids and metallomatrix proteases for treatment of Meibomian gland dysfunctions
tetrahydrozoline (visine) causes
vasoconstriction
the antidote for atropine is
physiostigmine
the steady state plasma concentration is
not affected by the half life of a drug
thiopental is slowly metabolized and thus has
a long duration
thyroxine stimulates
the levator
tobramycin is good against
pseudomonas
tolbutimen makes
the receptor more effective
trachoma should be treated with
oral tetracycline
trazadone is an
atypical antidepressant
velocity is
1/2 maximum when the substrate concentration equals Km
V max is
on the vertical axis of the Lineweaver Burke plot
the pancreas and liver empty into the
duodenum
paranasal sinuses include the
ethmoid' sphenoid' frontal' and maxillary sinuses
parathyroid hormone is released in response to
decreased calcium
parotid (salivary) glands secrete by
the holocrine method
PNS is craniosacral
SNS is thoracolumbar
posterior auricular artery is
a branch of the ECA
posterior communicating arteries connect the
ICA to the PCA
prolactin stimulates
mamillary secretions
proto oncogenes are
a normal tissue component that regulate cell proliferation
respiratory bronchi lack
cartilage
right ventricular failure is
least likely to cause pulmonary edema
Schwann cells surround axons in the
PNS
gastrin is made in
the G cells of the stomach
Secretin secretion by the duodenum is
stimulated by low pH in the stomach
shrugging is innervated by
CN XI (trapezius)
slowest conduction in the heart is the AV node
fastest conduction in the heart is the bundle of His
somastatin is produced by
D cells in the pancreas
stratum basale of the skin is
the most active (layer?)
sucrafate lines
craters in the stomach
taste is by
CN 7 (first 2/3 ) and CN 9 (last 1/3 )
the adequate stimulus for the semicircular canal is
gravity
the anterior ethmoidal air cells open into the
superior meatus
the maxillary opens into the
middle meatus
the nasolacrimal duct opens into the
inferior meatus
the cavernous sinus encloses the
somatic afferrent and efferent nerves to the eye and its muscles
the right bundle branch is not
part of the moderator band
the ciliary ganglion is located between the
optic nerve and the lateral rectus
the ciliospinal center of budge is located between
CN 8 and T1 or T2
the diaphragm is innervated by the
phrenic nerve
the fossa for the lacrimal gland is the
frontal bone
the framework of the heart is called the endocardium and is made of
fibrous connective tissue
the hypophysis is connected to the brainstem by a
portal system
the kidney is
retroperitoneal
the lateral wall of the orbit consists of the
zygomatic and greater wing of sphenoid
the least damageable cell type is
pseudostratified columnar
the maxillary artery does not pass through either the
SOF or the cavernous sinus
the muscles involved in frowning are the
corrugator superciliaris (eyebrows) and the depressor anguli oris (mouth)
the optic nerve goes through the
lesser wing of the sphenoid through the optic canal
the SOF is formed by the
greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid
the orbit communicates with the
IT fossa and PP fossa through the IOF
the orbit is protected from inflammation by the
orbital septum
the orbital septum is continuous with the
tarsal plate
the palatine bone contributes least to the
orbit
the pancreas is both
exocrine and endocrine
the pituitary gland sits
above the sphenoid bone
the spina recti lateralis lies on the
sphenoid bone
the tentorium cerebelli is found between the
cerebrum and cerebellum
the A band contains
actin and myosin
as you go from artery to arteriole to capillary you get a
decrease in velocity and an increase in total cross sectional area
calcitonin causes hypocalcemia mostly by
inhibiting bone resorption
gap junctions are responsible for
electrical transmission
in the muscles calcium binds to troponin which
changes tropomyosin so myosin can bind to actin
lymph capillaries are larger than
blood capillaries
monocytes turn into
macrophages
oligodendrocytes are found in the
retrolaminar part of the optic nerve
release of neurotransmitter is caused by
calcium
smooth muscle is able to
regenerate
surfactant is secreted by
type II alveolar cells
the most mitotic layer of the epidermis is
stratum germinativum/stratum basale
the thymus is active until young adulthood at which point it
begins to atrphy
the tympanic membrane is
NOT part of the cochlea
the vertebral artery arises directly from the
subclavian
the vidian (pterygoid) nerve carries both
sympathetics and parasympathetics
a lesion in the ciliary ganglion would most likely give rise to
Adie's tonic pupil
the corneal nerves begin to lose their myelination as they
progress through the corneal stroma
the dilator muscle of the iris is formed of
epithelial cell processes
the thymus is necessary for
cell mediated immunity
there are 31 spinal nerves and
there are 33 vertebrae
to destroy all reflex tearing you should prevent sensation by disrupting the
trigeminal ganglion
type 1 pneumocytes make up the
blood air barrier
cone peaks occur at
450nm ' 510nm ' 570nm
5 to 14 (avg of 9) quanta are minimum for detection in a
dark adapted person
50-140 (avg of 90) quanta of light must hit the cornea in order for
it to be detected
a deuteranomolous trichromat matches
yellow with red &green on the anomoloscope
a normal trichromat would see more green than a
deuteranomolous trichromat
a gray square will appear red on a green background because of
simultaneous contrast
a myope sees a red center with a blue fringe when
looking at a cobalt filter
a person cannot be a
deuteranomolous deuteranope
a protanope and a deuteranope have
the same scotopic luminosity curve
Abney's law (NOT abney's affect) states that
the luminance of a mixture of colors is equal to the sum of the luminances of its parts
Abney's law (NOT abney's affect) states that
luminance is additive
Airy's disc is due to
diffraction
an emmetrope with '+1.00 will see
a blue circle with a red center
at the rod saturation point
10% of the pigment is bleached
autokinetic motion is
apparent motion of small isolated object in dark environment
backward masking is explained by a
latency difference
blue arcs of the retina
can be seen as moving spots while looking at a brightly illuminated surface like a blue sky
blue spots or Maxwell's spots are
entoptic phenomena seen in the center of the fovea
blue yellow color vision problems can be due to
acquired retinal defects
cataracts and age decrease
Critical Flicker Frequency CFF
cells in an ocular dominance column respond to stimuli in the
same orientation
CFF decreases 7 cycles/sec by age 40
70% of the decrease in CFF by age 40 is due to senile miosis
CFF decreases with
yellowing of the lens
CFF increases with
light intensity if high frequency
it takes 5 minutes for 50% of rods to regenerate and
1.5 minutes for 50% of cones to regenerate
a kitten's critical period is
1 to 3 months
Lambert surface reflects light
equally in all directions and is a perfect diffuser
large pupils affect VA by
spherical and chromatic abberation
location of maximal stimulus for rods is
greater than 20 degrees
luminous flux is the rate of
passage of light from a source
clouds are white due to
Tyndall scatter
color confusion is the basis for
pseudoisochromatic plates
color specification can be demonstrated by
hue ' chroma ' and value
complete spatial summation is implied in
Ricco's law
cones are maximally sensitive at
555 nm
contrast sensitivity peaks at all spatial frequencies by
age 18 and remains until age 39
contrast sensitivity shows overall depression under
mesopic conditions
depth of focus varies directly with the
effective size of a retinal unit
detection VA is the
minimum visible
Fechner's colors are generally attributed to
different photoreceptor latencies
Fechner's colors result from
intermittent mixing of white and black stimuli
Flu equals 685 P coefficient
Ö
for a given exposure to light retinal cones willÖ
bleach faster
for every five degrees you move out on the horopterÖ
Panum's fusional area gets larger by 1 degree
Hue and Saturation contribute to
chromaticity
Hue specifies how much color stimulus differs from a
white light of equal brightness
if rods and cones are both bleachedÖ
after 5 minutes more cones than rods will be regenerated
if you induce exotropiaÖ
a monkey will be able to see out of either eye but not at the same time
if you wanted to test scotopic dark adaptation you would use a
5 degree blue/green target located 20 degrees eccentrically
in a Badal OptometerÖ a '+40D lens would provide
16D per centimeter of object displacement
accommodative posture in the dark is
inside infinity
in the leaf room all
monocular cues are removed
incandescence yields a
continuous spectrum
induced effect is from axis 180
geometric effect is from axis 90
the critical period for a monkey is
six weeks
monkeys raised in a confined environment will exhibit
myopia
Moore's lightning streaks may be a sign of a
posterior vitreous detachment
most common entopic phenomena are from the
vitreous
most common form of hereditary color vision deficiency is
deuteranomaly
most common horopter method is
AFPP
motion parallax is a cue that is within
arms length
night myopia is due to four factors
resting accommodation 'chromatic aberration and the purkinje shift ' spherical aberration and ' extrafoveal fixation
normal vernier acuity is
2 to 4 seconds
Panum's fusional area is largest in the
periphery
Peak of the CFF is
five cycles/degree
phosphenes are more commonly seen in
middle aged women
phosphenes are commonly seen
vertically and temporally
protanopes and deutanopes show the same
scotopic luminosity curves
Pulfrich phenomenon sees counterclockwise with a filter on the
right eye
receptive fields of complex cells are
orientation selective
red curve is missing for protanopes
green curve is missing for deutranopes
red/yellow are the colors that are least confused by a
tritanope
refocusing with plus lens affects the
CSF at high frequency
retinal vessels are not normally visible due to the
Troxler phenomenon
Rods are maximally sensitive at
505 nm
signal detection theory does not detect
background noise
sky is blue due to
Rayleigh scatter
small pupil decreases VA by
diffraction
Snellen acuity compares with CSF at
highest frequency
Snellen acuity of 20/20 subtends details of 1 minute and
overall visual angles of five minutes
spectral sensitivity shifts towards low wavelengths as
you age
stereopsis is the highest form of
visual acuity
stereopsis requires
horizontal disparity
Stiles Crawford effect type I is present in rods and cones
but it is much more in cones
Stiles Crawford effect type I says that
angle affects brightness and has to do with the wave property of light
temporal summation is 100 msec for scotopic and
temporal summation is 10-50 msec for photopic
temporal summation is
independent of wavelength
temporal summation is
longer for pattern stimuli and lower light levels
the B wave has the
highest amplitude
the best measure of resolution is
gratings
the flicker and cascade methods represent
techniques used in heterochromatic photometry
the greatest modulation in a diagram is the one with the
greatest difference between peak and trough
the hue that will appear least saturated to the deuteropic individual is
green
the lumen is a unit of
luminous flux or luminous power
the main reason for modular transfer is
quality image on the retina
the minimum separation distance that can be resolved at 1 km with the unaided eye is
26.8 cm
the Nonius horopter is referred to as the
equi angular horopter
the peak of photopic luminosity curve is
555 nm
the perceived brightness of a brief single flash stimulus remains constant if time is
greater than the critical duration
the photochromatic interval is zero for red stimuli and is
larger for blue/green
the PIC plates are designed around
confusion lines in the CIE
the process of color analysis begins at
the retina
the purkinje shift proves the
duplicity theory
the spatial modulation transfer function is the
ratio of the input frequency to the input contrast
luminance ' chromaticity' S phase (L'C'S) potentials are
transient (graded)
the threshold sensitivity of rods is more affected than cones by
a given amount of pigment bleaching
the time required to perceive apparent motion is around
50 to 60 msec pause between two targets
the troland is a measure of
retinal illuminance
the troland is the luminance of a stimulus times the
area of the entrance ppupil
under scotopic conditions a blue poker chip will
seem brighter
UV B (300nm) light will cause
cataract changes
UV B is
the most damaging to ocular structures (UV C would be if it wasn't filtered by the ozone)
VA increases as Airy's disk
decreases
Vernier is the best measure of
visual acuity
vertical stimuli are preferred in the
cortex
V M circle is the
locus of points with zero geometric retinal disparity
When the eye is dark adapting the cones will
control and determine the threshold sensitivity until 90% of the rhodopsin is regenerated
When you fixate on a dart (?) target it is
oculocentric
with OD axis 90 and OS axis 180 a wall to the right will seem
farther out
when you are dark adapted you are
most sensitive to blue
fibers related to the corresponding retinal points first meet in the
optic radiations
cGMP is a
2nd messenger
albumin keeps the blood plasma in
osmotic equilibrium with the cells of the body
ascorbic acid is an antioxidant in the
lens
B12 acts in the
synthesis of nucleic acids and the maintenance of myelin & folic acid
collagen is the most
abundant extracellular protein
essential fatty acids
are required in the diet
fatty acids are metabolized by
beta oxidation
these four substances fight free radicals in the lens
glutathione reductase ' catalase ' superoxide dismutase ' and ascorbic acid
H bonds hold
DNA strands together
Haptens are only antigens if they are bound to
proteins
inhibiting aldose reductase decreases
sorbitol pathway
ketone bodies produce
acidosis
Krebs cycle occurs in the
matrix of the mitochondria
light converts 11 cis retinal into
all trans retinal
linoleic acid and linolenic and arachidonic acid are all
essential fatty acids
lysosyme is activated by
decreased pH
NADPH is produced from the
pentose shunt (PPP)
oxygen free radicals attack membranes containingÖ
a lot of unsaturated fatty acids
RNA and DNA sequences are written in
5' to 3' order
saturated fats have
single bonds
the golgi apparatus is used in
secretion
the highest concentration of protein in the nucleus of the lens is what type?
beta crystalline
the highest mitotic region in the lens is at the
germinative zone of the epithelium
the oxidative (sorbitol) pathway of glucose is least active in the
lens
the primary storage form of fatty acids is
triacylglycerols
Uracil is found in
RNA
thymine dimer is formed due to
UV radiation
unsaturated fats have
double bonds
vitamins A'C'E all have
antioxidant properties
vitamin B12 is only absorbed with
intrinsic factor
vitamin K is involved in the formation of
prothrombin
vitamins act as
coenzymes
hydrogen bonds are the
weakest bonds
when blood glucose is increased you will have
increased sorbitol pathway
the sclera is derived from
mesenchyme
the neutralizing power of a thick lens is the same as the
front vertex power
the presence of colors in an oil slick is due to
thin film interference
marginal astigmatism is obtained when
a spherical lens is tilted
using the JCC in refraction allows us to
change the power in each principle meridian without changing the position of the CLC
orthoscopic doublets correct for
distortion
orthoscopic doublets are used
in the eyepieces of high powered telescopes
in ophthalmic lenses the designer is most concerned with
distortion and radial astigmatism
spherical abberation and coma are of least concern when designing ophthalmic lenses because
they are corrected by small apertures eg) the pupil
Spherical abberation occurs for both
on and off axis points
what is the f/ number of a typical human eye?
between 8.3(bright) and 2.1 (dark)
f/ or f stop is calculated by
focal length divided by the diameter of the entrance pupil