Board Review Set 1

Front 1

What two species may be protected from erisopilothrix with a vaccine?

Back 1

Turkeys and pigs

Front 2

What is the survival rate for purpurra hemorrhagica?

Back 2

>90%

Front 3

Horse 3 weeks ago had strangles; now it has petechiae under the lips. What is your ddx?

Back 3

Purpurra hemorrhagica

Front 4

What are 3 main signs/groups of signs (only need one or 2 from each group) of equine PF?

Back 4

scaling/crusting/exfoliation
Affects face, trunk, and coronary bands
Urticaria or swelling of legs/ventral abdomen

Front 5

Rounded up epidermal cells (aka acanthlytic cells), crusty horse, subcorneal pustules= what disease?

Back 5

Pemphigous folaceous

Front 6

Ventral midline diffuse pattern of dermatitis in a horse: what is most likely dx?

Back 6

culicoides

Front 7

Ventral midline focal pattern of dermatitis in a horse: what is most likely dx?

Back 7

horn fly/stable fly (hematobia calcitrans) or chorioptes in the literature.

Front 8

If lice on a horse are running around, what are ddx?

Back 8

BITING LICE: Damalinia equi

Front 9

Name 2 biting lice on a horse

Back 9

damalinia equi, werneckiella equi equi

Front 10

Name a sucking louse on a horse

Back 10

Haematopinus asini

Front 11

What are the typical conditions where a horse gets lice? (Suspect lice if you see these conditions with pruritus).

Back 11

Confined horses w/ poor sanitation.

Front 12

Chiggers: what are they?

Back 12

6-legged LARVAL FORM of mites.

Front 13

What causes leg mange in horses? What breed is predisposed?

Back 13

chorioptes- draft horse

Front 14

Question about "munge" or perioral skin lesions in llamas-- what is it likely responsive to?

Back 14

zinc

Front 15

How do you treat equine sarcoidosis, and what is its other name?

Back 15

Generalized Granulomatous Disease is treated with steroids

Front 16

What are the top 3 ddx for widespread scaling in a horse?

Back 16

sarcoidosis (rare)
dermatophilus (rainy)
pemphigous folaceous (common)

Front 17

What causes generalized granulomatous disease in cattle but not horses?

Back 17

"hairy vetch" plant-- vicia villosa

Front 18

What is a common cause of aortic thromboembolism in cats?

Back 18

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

Front 19

What disease caused this?

Back 19

Epidermolysis Bullosa, EB

Front 20

What disease in horses is caused by congenital deficiencies affecting stability of the dermal-epidermal junction? (Affects Belgians, Trait Bretons, Trait Comtois, Saddlebreds.)

Back 20

Epidermolysis bullosa (EB)

Front 21

What disease causes this appearance in a horse? This is a Belgian (sure...)

Back 21

EB- epidermolysis bullosa

Front 22

What disease caused this appearance? (It is a saddlebred horse.)

Back 22

Epidermolysis Bullosa

Front 23

Name a disease in horses that affects deep dermal collagen fibers and is usually noticed by 2 years of age? (Affects quarter horses, paints, appaloosas)

Back 23

HERDA or hyperelastosis cutis

HERDA=hereditary equine regional dermal asthenia

Front 24

What disease causes lesions in horses primarily on the dorsum, sides of the neck and legs, and caused by easily torn/stretched skin with seromas, ulcers, or hematomas?

Back 24

HERDA

Front 25

Do HERDA lesions heal?

Back 25

Yes, they usually heal okay often with scars.

Front 26

What disease causes this appearance?

Back 26

HERDA, aka hyperelastosis cutis

Front 27

Which disease causes this appearance in the horse?

Back 27

HERDA aka hyperelastosis cutis

Front 28

You get a referral case-- A Belgian horse-- initially diagnosed weeks ago as "pyoderma" ddx chorioptic mange. The case has progressed, and you see lower leg enlargement with firm swelling, thick skin folds, and large firm nodules. What is your primary ruleout?

Back 28

Chronic Progressive Lymphedema

Front 29

What 3 breeds of horse get chronic proressive lymphedema?

Back 29

belgians, shires, and clydesdales

Front 30

What condition is depicted?

Back 30

Chronic progressive lymphedema

Front 31

Name 4 coagulase positive staph species that can cause large animal dermatological problems

Back 31

Staph pseudintermedius
S aureus
S hyicus
S delphini

Front 32

Name 2 drugs that can encourage growth of MRSA in large animals

Back 32

ceftiofur
Aminoglycosides

Front 33

What condition is seen here? (Pathogen/condition)

Back 33

Staph aureus vasculitis

Front 34

Name an equine skin pathogen that causers deeper infections rather than superficial lesions. How do you treat it?

Back 34

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Treat with pain meds (phenylbutazone) and a hot pack.

Front 35

What is the most common bacterial skin disease in horses?

Back 35

Dermatophilus congolensis

Front 36

Is d congolensis gram-positive or gram-negative?

Back 36

gram positive actinomycete

Front 37

Name four bacteria with a filamentous phase in their life cycle; which two cause pyogranulomatous inflammation with fistulous tracts?

Back 37

Actinomyces*, nocardia*, dermatophilus, streptobacillus

Front 38

Where is actinomyces found normally?

Back 38

Oral mucous membranes and tooth surfaces, urogenital mucous membranes.

Front 39

What causes lumpy jaw? How is it treated?

Back 39

actinomyces bovis, and rarely actinomyces israelii. Tx with oral iodine compounds (oral or IV) or penicillins with aminoglycosides.

Front 40

What causes "poll evil"?

Back 40

Actinomyces (along with other bacteria)

Front 41

How is feline and canine actinomyces treated?

Back 41

surgical treatment-- drainage/lavage/excision/removal of foreign bodies, plus abx long-term (ampicillin.)

Front 42

Name two antibiotic classes not useful in canine or feline actinomycosis

Back 42

aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones

Front 43

What causes strawberry footrot and how is it treated?

Back 43

Dermatophilus congolensis. Usually self-limited, extreme cases tx with penicllins G, tetracycline, or chloramphenicol.

Front 44

What condition is shown here? In addition to presence of the pathogen, what two conditions are ncessary for this condition to develop?

Back 44

Dermatophilosis; moisture and skin damage

Front 45

Name a zoonotic horse skin pathogen that causes nodules, ulcers, and lymphatic cording.

Back 45

sprothrix schenckii

Front 46

What condition is seen here? How do you treat it?

Back 46

Sporotichosis- organic iodides.

Front 47

You treat sporotrichosis with the typical RX; what signs might you see as a side-effect of the drug, and how should you respond?

Back 47

iodinism causes scaling, alopecia, serous ocular/nasal discharge, salivation, coughing, and other problems.

D/C 1 week, resume at 3/4 dosage.

Front 48

This horse from the vet school at Ross in the caribbean was self-mutilating; what is this and how do you treat it?

Back 48

Pythium insidiosum, tx surgical debulking, therapeutic vaccine

Front 49

List four equine dermatophytes. What is the best diagnostic method?

Back 49

Trichophyton equinum, trichophyton mentagrophytes, trichophyton verrucosum, microsporum equinum.

FUNGAL CULTURE-- wood's lamp only rarely positive

Front 50

What dermatophytes do cattle and goats get?

Back 50

T mentagrophytes and verrucosum

Front 51

What condition is depicted?

Back 51

Dermatophytosis (caused in cow by Trichophyton mentagrophytes or t verrucosum)

**Note: the image has been repeatedly updated, however it still seems to sometimes show the same image as the HERDA case. If this image was answered as HERDA elsewhere, HERDA is correct and dermatophilus should be an image of a dun or grey horse (I think, I hate horses and stupid horse colors) with white spots all over.

Front 52

You see a pig with a history of lethargy and anorexia and scaling and now is covered in dark red macules and pustules, as well as coronary band erosions. What is the disease, and what organism causes it?

Back 52

Staphylococcus hyicus-- greasy pig disease (aka exudative epidermitis of swine)

Front 53

What causes the lesions seen here? How is it treated?

Back 53

purpurra hemorrhagica. 90% survival rate; tx with steroids and procaine penicillin.

Front 54

How do you treat chorioptes?

Back 54

Topical lime sulfur. (Can use fipronil/ aka Frontline spray if O wants to pay for it.)

Front 55

How would you treat this llama?

Back 55

Zinc!

Front 56

What is this and how do you treat it?

Back 56

Equine sarcoidosis, tx with pred.

Front 57

You see a 6 year old Jack Russel Terrier with corneal edema. What is your primary differential?

Back 57

lens luxation

Front 58

You see a cocker spaniel with corneal edema. What is your primary differential?

Back 58

Glaucoma.

Front 59

You see a german shepherd with corneal edema. What is your primary differential?

Back 59

pannus (chronic superficial keratitis)

Front 60

What are normal values for intraocular pressure and schrimer tear test?

Back 60

<25, >15

Front 61

In what order would you do the following: dilate the eye, perform a schirmer tear test, perform tonometry, neuro exam, opthalmoscopy, fluroescein

Back 61

1. Schirmer. 2. fluorescein 3. Tonometry. 4. Dilation 5. Opthalmoscopy

Front 62

KCS: who is predisposed?
Tx-- medical, plus what to do if medical tx fails

Back 62

brachycephalic breeds
cyclosporine, tacrolimus, frequent tear replacement.
If fails: parotid duct transposition

Front 63

Dog has IOP of 31. What are your treatment options? (List 7 treatments and one major contraindication.)

Back 63

Glaucoma- rx underlying cause.
Can give mannitol in an emergency.
Beta-blockers
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (methazolamide systemic, dorzolamide topical)
Prostaglandin analogues (latanoprost)
Miotics (pilocarpine)
Anterior chamber valve implantation

DO NOT GIVE ATROPINE.

Front 64

Name 4 dog breeds predisposed to glaucoma

Back 64

Basset hound, cocker spaniel, beagle, samoyed.

Front 65

Name 5 causes of canine cataracts

Back 65

inherited, DM, trauma, uveitis, senile

Front 66

What condition is pictured? What classic sign is present?

Back 66

Chronic superficial keratitis, starts ventrolaterally and extends across.

Front 67

WIth KCS, how long does melanosis take to resolve?

Back 67

It is permanent.

Front 68

A cocker spaniel comes to you with blepharospasm, mydriasis, and absent PLR in the left eye; no abnormal history and no abnormalities on PE and hx.. What after treating the current problem, what is an important action to take?

Back 68

Primary glaucoma-- treat the other eye pre-emptively to delay onset.

Front 69

A dog comes to you with acute vision loss. What is your primary diagnosis? What is one definitive test? How do you tx?

Back 69

SARDS-- severe acute retinal degeneration. Should see flatline ERG. No treatment.

Front 70

A dog comes to you with gradual vision loss. What is your primary diagnosis? What are some supportive findings? How do you tx?

Back 70

PRA-- progressive retinal atrophy. See retinal vasculature attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity, optic disk atrophy. No tx.

Front 71

What condition is pictured here? In what dog might you find this (2 features of signalment.) What is the treatment?

Back 71

This is an indolent ulcer, aka boxer ulcer. See in boxers or any older dog. Tx: blunt debridement, grid keratotomy, superficial keratectomy. Antibiotics, NSAIDs, atropine won't help.

Front 72

A cat has keratoconjunctivitis. What is your primary ruleout? What are 3 ddx? How do you treat.

Back 72

FHV-1. DDx: calicivirus, chlamydophila, mycoplasma. Tx: oxytetracyclin (Terramycin (r)) topical, doxy or azithromycin systemic, or antiherpetics.

Front 73

Name 4 antiherpetic medications.

Back 73

trifluridine, idoxuridine, cidofovir, and lysine (competitively inhibits arginine.)

Front 74

You see this; how do you respond?

Back 74

Systemic workup includes lymph node aspirates, AUS, and chest rads.

The Diffuse Iris Melanoma will eventually spread; try to enucleate before then.

Front 75

Cat has acute vision loss, unilateral mydriasis. What is your first diagnostic step?

Back 75

Possibility of retinal detachment: get systemic BP first!

(SARDS is in DOGS)

Front 76

What can cause retinal detachment in a cat? (6 categories or diseases)

Back 76

Systemic hypertension-- secondary to renal disease or hyperthyroidism.
Toxoplasmosis
Trauma
Fungal infection
FIP
Neoplasia

Front 77

How do you treat feline acute blindness (assuming the most common cause) and what is the prognosis?

Back 77

Most common cause: hypertension, usually secondary to renal disease/hyperthyroidism. Treat the primary disease and put on BP meds, and they'll regain vision in a week quite frequently.

Front 78

Cattle eye problem: name a disease more prevalent in summer than winter, in calves than cows, and in bos taurus than bos indicus.

Back 78

infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis

Front 79

what is the major pathogen leading to IBK, as well as secondary pathogens? How is it transmitted?

Back 79

Major pathogen is moraxella bovis. Secondary pathogens include infectious bovine rhinitis virus, mycoplasma. Transmitted by handlers, flies, infected animals. WILL SPREAD THROUGH HERD!

Front 80

A cow has pinkeye; it started in the left eye, and spread to the right. The C/S were first noted in June. Now the cow has decreased milk production and slow weight gain. What is your treatment?

Back 80

This is infectious bovine keratitis. Treat with any antibiotic-- usually penicillin, ampicillin, or oxytetracycline. Also HERD MANAGMENT: segregation and tx of carriers plus fly control.

Front 81

What's the most common horse eye problem?

Back 81

ERU-- equine recurrent uveitis

Front 82

A client shows you a horse with bilateral cataracts, bupthalmos, and degeneration of the corpora nigra. On examination, you note chorioretinal scarring. History reveals that the horse was septic in Feb, but it's July now. How do you treat?

Back 82

This is equine recurrent uveitis; treat with topical anti-inflammatories, atropine, oral NSAIDS, or cyclosporine implant.

Front 83

What are some signs that an equine eye problem is in the active stage?

Back 83

ANy sign of active inflammation-- edema, blepharospasm, conjunctival hyperemia, corneal vascularization, aqueous flare, epiphora, miosis.

Front 84

Name four treatments, including one specific drug.

Back 84

Radiation, surgery, cryotherapy, cisplatin (chemo).

Front 85

How is IOP affected by acute inflammation?

Back 85

DECREASES; may possibly increase with chronicity.

Front 86

How do you treat an uncomplicated ulcer?

Back 86

Topical antibiotic
Atropine
NO STEROIDS

Front 87

What is ptosis?

Back 87

drooping eyelid

Front 88

What is miosis?

Back 88

CONSTRICTED pupil-- smaller word, smaller pupil

Front 89

What is mydriasis?

Back 89

Dilated pupil

Front 90

How do you determine preganglionic vs postganglionic horner's?

Back 90

Because of the principle of denervation supersensitivity, a Horner’s syndrome produced by a lesion interrupting the postganglionic fibres should dilate the pupil when phenylephrine 1% is placed in the conjunctival sac. The pupil of a patient with central (first order) Horner’s syndrome should not dilate, while a pre-ganglionic (second order) pupil may dilate minimally1; a normal pupil may, at best, dilate minimally.

Front 91

An owner has a lab and a pekingese that ran into each other in a head-on collision. They are both in your office right now with proptosis, and every single prognostic indicator is identical between the two: vision present, PLR and dazzle response intact, non-mydriatic, no hyphema. You give lubrication and pain relief and replace both eyes. What do you tell the owner regarding prognosis?

Back 91

The signs that are seen are all positive prognostic indicators. However, signalment also plays a role. Both of them have a good chance of regaining vision, but the Pekingese has the best prognosis-- Easy Out, Easy In (brachycephalics do better generally.)

Front 92

Describe the surgical process to repair proptosis, and list 4 kinds of drugs you should give.

Back 92

General anesthesia
2. Place simple interrupted sutures (lid margin)
3. Tighten sutures while applying gentle pressure with scalpel handle


Atropine
Antibiotics (topical and systemic)
oral anti-inflammatories
Analgesics

Front 93

What are 3 anticipated complications after proptosis repair?

Back 93

re-proptosis, KCS, strabismus

Front 94

You are presented with a 2 year old female spayed cocker spaniel dog with a history of acute blepharospasm and a “red eye.”
Which medication is initially contraindicated?
Carprofen
Dorzolamide
Latanoprost
Tropicamide

Back 94

Tropicamide is a mydriatic (anticholinergic). A cocker spaniel with acute eye problems=GLAUCOMA, don't dilate a glaucomic eye! (That thing with the changing the angle and acute problems...)

Front 95

Which of the following is the incorrect order to complete an ophthalmic examination?
a) Corneal cytology, tonometry, fluorescein stain
b)STT, tonometry, pupil dilation, fluorescein stain
c) Pupil dilation, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry
d) Indirect ophthalmoscopy, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry

Back 95

c-- STT needs to be done early on.

Front 96

A 3 year old male castrated German Shepherd dog presents for evaluation of dorsolateral corneal vascularization and melanosis. You diagnose Chronic Superficial Keratitis (pannus). Which of the following is not part of your treatment plan?
Topical latanoprost
Topical cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment
Topical glucocorticoid ophthalmic solution
Reducing time spent outdoors during summer months

Back 96

Latanoprost is not indicated. (Latanoprost reduces IOP by increasing aqueous outflow.)

Front 97

Glaucoma is a leading cause of blindness in dogs. Underlying mechanisms include:
A) Anterior lens luxation, uveitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B) Posterior lens luxation, trauma, indolent (Boxer) ulcers, herpesvirus
C) Cataracts, anterior lens luxation, trauma, retinal detachment
D) Proptosis, anterior lens luxation, ehrlichiosis, trauma

Back 97

C)... I guess. But I kinda suspect that these are associated, not underlying mechanisms necessarily.

Front 98

Herpesvirus is the leading infectious agent causing conjunctivitis in cats. Which of the following statements is true of this pathogen?
A) Infection is life-long and treatment involves topical antibiotics, topical antivirals and topical prednisolone acetate (1%) ophthalmic solution
B) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral antivirals
C) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral and topical antivirals
D) Infection is life-long and recrudescence can be stimulated by stress. Lysine is one therapeutic agent.

Back 98

D)

Front 99

A 4 year old Quarter Horse mare is presented for a pre-purchase examination. On ophthalmic examination you detect cataracts, blunted corpora nigra, chorioretinal scarring and hobs striae. You advise the prospective owner:
A) That the horse likely suffers from herpesvirus keratitis
B) That the horse will likely become blind eventually
C) That the horse likely has Equine Recurrent Uveitis (ERU), but this is a common condition in horses and rarely causes ongoing problems
D) That the horse should not be used for breeding

Back 99

B)- the horse is likely to become blind.

Front 100

Which of the following is the incorrect order to complete an ophthalmic examination?
a) Corneal cytology, tonometry, fluorescein stain
b)(STT, tonometry, pupil dilation, fluorescein stain
c) Pupil dilation, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry
d) Indirect ophthalmoscopy, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry

Back 100

c-- STT needs to be done early on.

Front 101

A 3 year old male castrated German Shepherd dog presents for evaluation of dorsolateral corneal vascularization and melanosis. You diagnose Chronic Superficial Keratitis (pannus). Which of the following is not part of your treatment plan?
Topical latanoprost
Topical cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment
Topical glucocorticoid ophthalmic solution
Reducing time spent outdoors during summer months

Back 101

Latanoprost is not indicated. (Latanoprost reduces IOP by increasing aqueous outflow.)

Front 102

Glaucoma is a leading cause of blindness in dogs. Underlying mechanisms include:
A) Anterior lens luxation, uveitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B) Posterior lens luxation, trauma, indolent (Boxer) ulcers, herpesvirus
C) Cataracts, anterior lens luxation, trauma, retinal detachment
D) Proptosis, anterior lens luxation, ehrlichiosis, trauma

Back 102

C)... I guess. But I kinda suspect that these are associated, not underlying mechanisms necessarily.

Front 103

Herpesvirus is the leading infectious agent causing conjunctivitis in cats. Which of the following statements is true of this pathogen?
A) Infection is life-long and treatment involves topical antibiotics, topical antivirals and topical prednisolone acetate (1%) ophthalmic solution
B) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral antivirals
C) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral and topical antivirals
D) Infection is life-long and recrudescence can be stimulated by stress. Lysine is one therapeutic agent.

Back 103

D)

Front 104

A 4 year old Quarter Horse mare is presented for a pre-purchase examination. On ophthalmic examination you detect cataracts, blunted corpora nigra, chorioretinal scarring and haab's striae. You advise the prospective owner:
A) That the horse likely suffers from herpesvirus keratitis
B) That the horse will likely become blind eventually
C) That the horse likely has Equine Recurrent Uveitis (ERU), but this is a common condition in horses and rarely causes ongoing problems
D) That the horse should not be used for breeding

Back 104

B)- the horse is likely to become blind.

Front 105

Which of the following is the incorrect order to complete an ophthalmic examination?
a) Corneal cytology, tonometry, fluorescein stain
b)(STT, tonometry, pupil dilation, fluorescein stain
c) Pupil dilation, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry
d) Indirect ophthalmoscopy, STT, fluorescein stain, tonometry

Back 105

c-- STT needs to be done early on.

Front 106

A 3 year old male castrated German Shepherd dog presents for evaluation of dorsolateral corneal vascularization and melanosis. You diagnose Chronic Superficial Keratitis (pannus). Which of the following is not part of your treatment plan?
Topical latanoprost
Topical cyclosporine ophthalmic ointment
Topical glucocorticoid ophthalmic solution
Reducing time spent outdoors during summer months

Back 106

Latanoprost is not indicated. (Latanoprost reduces IOP by increasing aqueous outflow.)

Front 107

Glaucoma is a leading cause of blindness in dogs. Underlying mechanisms include:
A) Anterior lens luxation, uveitis, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
B) Posterior lens luxation, trauma, indolent (Boxer) ulcers, herpesvirus
C) Cataracts, anterior lens luxation, trauma, retinal detachment
D) Proptosis, anterior lens luxation, ehrlichiosis, trauma

Back 107

C)... I guess. But I kinda suspect that these are associated, not underlying mechanisms necessarily.

Front 108

Herpesvirus is the leading infectious agent causing conjunctivitis in cats. Which of the following statements is true of this pathogen?
A) Infection is life-long and treatment involves topical antibiotics, topical antivirals and topical prednisolone acetate (1%) ophthalmic solution
B) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral antivirals
C) Infection is short-lived and rarely causes ongoing disease. Treatment consists of oral and topical antivirals
D) Infection is life-long and recrudescence can be stimulated by stress. Lysine is one therapeutic agent.

Back 108

D)

Front 109

A 4 year old Quarter Horse mare is presented for a pre-purchase examination. On ophthalmic examination you detect cataracts, blunted corpora nigra, chorioretinal scarring and hobs striae. You advise the prospective owner:
A) That the horse likely suffers from herpesvirus keratitis
B) That the horse will likely become blind eventually
C) That the horse likely has Equine Recurrent Uveitis (ERU), but this is a common condition in horses and rarely causes ongoing problems
D) That the horse should not be used for breeding

Back 109

B)- the horse is likely to become blind.

Front 110

This is a Jersey; several are affected in the herd. You advise that:
A) This is likely due to trauma and the fences should be checked
B) Calves will likely be spared as this condition mostly affects older cows
C) The condition will likely resolve once the summer months begin, and that economic significance is negligible
D) That fly control and segregation of affected animals are important parts of management of this condition

Back 110

D) This is IBK, caused by moraxella bovis, carried by flies and people.

Front 111

Glaucoma is a painful, potentially vision-threatening ocular condition. The following are true of this disease:
A) It occurs most commonly in older pure-breed dogs, especially German Shepherds and Boxers
B) It is caused by use of topical atropine
C) It can be treated with mannitol, prostaglandin analogues and/or carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D) It is a symptom of early uveitis, which could be caused by a perforating injury

Back 111

C. Uveitis does NOT cause glaucoma. PG analogues decrease pressure.

Front 112

Iris neoplasia differs between dogs and cats in the following ways:
1. A) Iris melanoma is the most common tumor in cats, while adenocarcinoma is most likely in dogs
2. B) Iris melanomas in cats rarely progress, while those in dogs frequently metastasize to distant organs early in the course of disease
3. C) Iris melanomas in cats do not typically respond as well to chemotherapy as do those in dogs
4. D) Iris melanomas in cats tend to more diffusely affect the iris than those in dogs

Back 112

D Iris melanomas in cats tend to more diffusley affect the iris in cats than in dogs.