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147 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Pollution can result when which of the
following types of agents is/are introduced into the air, water, or soil? 1. Biological 2. Chemical 3. Physical 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which of the following materials is the
primary municipal pollutant? 1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage 2. Radioactive waste 3. Petroleum products 4. Acids |
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
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Which of the following modes of
transportation creates most air pollutants? 1. Trains 2. Waterborne vessels 3. Motor vehicles 4. Aircraft |
3. Motor vehicles
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Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed
to which of the following air pollutants? 1. Pesticides 2. Herbicides 3. Zinc oxides 4. Sulfur oxides |
4. Sulfur Oxides
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Most pesticides fall into which of the
following categories? 1. Selective 2. Nonselective 3. Preselective 4. Control selective |
2. Nonselective
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What is the primary pollution concern of Navy
personnel? 1. Noise pollution 2. Shore command wastes 3. Shipboard wastes |
3. Shipboard wastes
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Which of the following terms identifies
abatement? 1. Maintaining 2. Raising 3. Lowering 4. Containing |
3. Lowering
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Virtually all Navy ships have some type of
sanitation device installed. Which of the following types of systems retains sewage on board for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed? 1. Direct discharge 2. Positive flow 3. Marine sanitation 4. Collection, holding, and transfer |
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
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When operating sanitation devices in foreign
waters, Navy ships comply with which of the following requirements? 1. Status of Forces Agreement 2. Coast Guard instructions 3. NAVFAC guidelines 4. All of the above |
1. Status of Forces Agreement
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Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash
within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline? 1. 20 nm 2. 25 nm 3. 30 nm 4. 35 nm |
2. 25 nm
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Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant
compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms? 1. 1,000 2. 500 3. 100 4. 50 |
1. 1,000
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What program provides information and
support for Navy personnel who are guests in foreign lands? 1. Navy Sponsor Program 2. Overseas Duty Support Program 3. Navy Assistance Program 4. Navy Relocation Program |
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
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The Military Cash Awards Program
(MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount? 1. $ 5,000 2. $10,000 3. $20,000 4. $25,000 |
4. $25,000
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The guidance and policy for making sure
that equal opportunity works rests with what office? 1. Command master chief 2. Commanding officer 3. Chief of Naval Operations 4. Secretary of the Navy |
3. Chief of Naval Operations
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If you cannot resolve a complaint among the
personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days? 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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All first-term Sailors in paygrades E-1 through
E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program? 1. CREO 2. ENCORE 3. HYT 4. EEO |
1. CREO
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Which of the following are sources that set
forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy? 1. U.S. Navy Regulations 2. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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In what year was the Code of Conduct first
prescribed? 1. 1965 2. 1955 3. 1945 4. 1935 |
2. 1955
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The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide
guidance for service personnel in which of the following circumstances? 1. When stationed on foreign soil 2. When traveling at home and abroad 3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war 4. All of the above |
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
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What chapter of the United States Navy
Regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all Navy members? 1. 12 2. 11 3. 10 4. 9 |
2. 11
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What article of the Navy Regs gives officers
the authority necessary to perform their duties? 1. 1021 2. 1023 3. 1025 4. 1033 |
1. 1021
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Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat,
provides which of the following officers the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked? 1. The senior line officer eligible for command at sea 2. The junior line officer eligible for command at sea 3. The senior staff officer 4. The junior staff officer |
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea |
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Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and
Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval? 1. 10 hours 2. 8 hours 3. 6 hours 4. 4 hours |
4. 4 hours
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During a Saturday duty day, one of your
shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs could you be charged? 1. 1138 2. 1134 3. 1133 4. 1129 |
2. 1134
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Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal.
Under what article of Navy Regs may a person be charged with sexual harassment? 1. 1166 2. 1164 3. 1162 4. 1160 |
1. 1166
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A ship’s plan for action is contained in what
type of bill? 1. Battle bill 2. Admin bill 3. Organization bill 4. Watch, quarter, and station bill |
1. Battle bill
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Qualified personnel are assigned to stations
by which of the following persons? 1. Division officer and division chief 2. Leading petty officer 3. Leading chief petty officer 4. Executive officer |
1. Division officer and division chief
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A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II C. CONDITION III Figure A INANSWERINGQUESTIONS4AND5, REFER TO FIGUREAAND SELECT THE CONDITION USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. 4. General quarters—all battle stations are manned. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
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A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II C. CONDITION III Figure A Normal wartime cruising watch—4 hours on, 8 hours off. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
3. C
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If you are scheduled to stand the second
dog watch, you should report at which of the following times? 1. 1745 2. 1750 3. 1755 4. 1800 |
1. 1745
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What watch are you standing between
2000 and 2400 hours? 1. Midwatch 2. Forenoon watch 3. First dog watch 4. Evening watch |
4. Evening watch
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Watches are split into port and starboard
for what reason? 1. For convenience 2. For security 3. To rotate personnel 4. To allow extra liberty |
2. For security
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Which of the following is a duty of the
QMOW? 1. To maintain the ship’s deck log 2. To make sure all bells are correctly answered 3. To stand watch in the bridge and deliver messages 4. To line up and operate the steering engines |
1. To maintain the ship’s deck log
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What person makes sure all deck watch
stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers from previous watches are relieved? 1. BMOW 2. QMOW 3. JOOW 4. JOOD |
1. BMOW
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What type of watch is set when positive
steering control must be maintained? 1. Helmsman 2. Lee helmsman 3. After steering 4. QMOW |
4. QMOW
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What is the purpose of a shipboard fire watch?
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused by welding or burning operations 2. To make sure the welder strikes the welding surface 3. To relay messages from the work site 4. To make sure there is a controlled burn of material at the work site |
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused
by welding or burning operations |
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Sentries are governed by what two types
of orders? 1. Understood and general 2. Special and verbal 3. General and special 4. General and verbal |
3. General and special
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Why is a lookout posted?
1. To prevent blind spots caused by metal objects 2. To search for objects radar can’t detect 3. To detect objects low in the water 4. To search for air attacks |
2. To search for objects radar can’t detect
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The peacetime lookout organization has how
many Sailors in each watch station? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
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Lookouts report what type of bearing?
1. Magnetic 2. Relative 3. True |
2. Relative
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A position angle can never be more than
what number of degrees? 1. 0º 2. 45º 3. 90º 4. 180º |
3. 90º
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How should you report objects that are
low in the water? 1. By feet above the surface 2. By the object’s approximate distance 3. In feet from the ship 4. From the object to the horizon |
2. By the object’s approximate distance
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When using binoculars, what adjustments
should you make? 1. One for focus 2. Two for focus and one for proper distance between the lenses 3. One for proper distance between the lenses 4. Two for eyepiece and lens |
2. Two for focus and one for proper
distance between the lenses |
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When should you use “off-center vision”?
1. Below decks 2. When wearing glasses 3. When it’s dark 4. In broad daylight |
3. When it’s dark
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It’s important for you to remember that the
mouthpiece and earpiece of sound-powered telephones are interchangeable for which of the following reasons? 1. Two people can talk at once 2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks 3. Undesirable noises can be fed into the system 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks
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Why should you unplug a phone’s headset
when it’s not in use? 1. To keep the user costs down 2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit 3. Carbon will build up at the connectors 4. Calls from other circuits won’t go through |
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit
it over the circuit |
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Which of the following sound-powered phone
circuits is used as the CO’s battle circuit? 1. JA 2. JC 3. JL 4. 1JV |
1. JA
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What administrative flag is flown in port to
indicate the ship has ready duty? 1. Hotel 2. India 3. Romeo 4. Quebec |
3. Romeo
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When under way, the national ensign is
normally flown from what location? 1. The gaff 2. The aftermast 3. The flagstaff 4. The jackstaff |
1. The gaff
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When a naval ship is in port or at anchor, the
union jack is flown from what location? 1. The gaff 2. The jackstaff 3. The aftermast 4. The flagstaff |
2. The jackstaff
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Which of the following flags are half-masted
at the death of the CO? 1. National ensign 2. Union jack 3. Commission pennant 4. Each of the above |
3. Commission pennant
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On large ships, what person is responsible for
making sure that special flags or pennants are displayed to indicate changing events aboard ship? 1. Boatswain’s mate 2. Quarterdeck watch 3. Duty signalman 4. Topside watch |
3. Duty signalman
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Where is a list of special flags and pennants
normally posted as a ready reference for watch standers? 1. Combat information center (CIC) 2. After deck 3. Quarterdeck area 4. Half deck |
3. Quarterdeck area
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An officer in command entitled to a personal
flag is embarked in a boat on an official mission. Where should the pennant be flown? 1. Amid ship 2. In the bow 3. In the stern 4. Yardarm, port |
2. In the bow
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The Second Continental Congress approved
the purchase of how many vessels? 1. Eight 2. Six 3. Four 4. Two |
4. Two
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What category of ship carried the largest
number of guns? 1. Ships of the line 2. Sloops of war 3. Schooners 4. Frigates |
1. Ships of the line
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What type of ships did privateers typically sail?
1. Ships of the line 2. Sloops of war 3. Schooners 4. Frigates |
3. Schooners
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What ship was the first warfare submarine?
1. Turtle 2. Hornet 3. Alfred 4. Wasp |
1. Turtle
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John Paul Jones is often referred to as the
“father of our highest naval traditions” because of the example he set as an officer during the Revolutionary War. He is also famous because of which of the following accomplishments? 1. His appointment as the first U.S. Navy admiral 2. His selection as the first commander in chief 3. His victory over the HMS Serapis 4. His capture of the HMS Nancy |
3. His victory over the HMS Serapis
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Approximately how many ships did the
British loose to privateers? 1. 1,000 2. 1,500 3. 2,000 4. 2,500 |
3. 2,000
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What is the oldest U.S. Navy ship still
in commission? 1. Lexington 2. Constitution 3. Constellation 4. Bonhomme Richard |
2. Constitution
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During the War of 1812, what ship earned
the nickname “Old Ironsides”? 1. Chesapeake 2. Constitution 3. Constellation 4. Enterprise |
2. Constitution
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On which of the following Great Lakes did
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry defeat a British squadron, cutting British supply lines? 1. Lake Superior 2. Lake Michigan 3. Lake Huron 4. Lake Erie |
4. Lake Erie
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The first half of the 19th century saw a
development that was to change navies all over the world. What was that development? 1. Task forces 2. Steam power 3. Steel hulls 4. Practical submarines |
2. Steam power
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The first true submarine attack was conducted
against what Union ship? 1. USS New Ironsides 2. USS Housatonic 3. USS Hunley 4. USS Custis |
2. USS Housatonic
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During what Civil War battle was the order
“Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” given? 1. Vicksburg 2. Mobile Bay 3. New Orleans Orleans 4. Kings Bay |
2. Mobile Bay
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In what year did the Navy accept its first
operational submarine? 1. 1895 2. 1898 3. 1900 4. 1902 |
3. 1900
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Who was the Navy’s first aviator?
1. Lt. Ellyson 2. Lt. Towers 3. Lt. Corry 4. CAPT Chambers |
1. Lt. Ellyson
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Destroyers were first used effectively for
antisubmarine warfare during what war? 1. Civil War 2. Spanish-American War 3. World War I 4. World War II |
3. World War I
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In what war did women first serve as members
of the Navy? 1. Civil War 2. Spanish-American War 3. World War I 4. World War II |
3. World War I
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In what capacity did women first serve as
members of the Navy? 1. Nurse 2. Yeoman 3. Radio operator |
2. Yeoman
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What was the first naval battle of World War II
in which two opposing fleets didn’t see each other during combat? 1. The Battle of Midway 2. The Battle of Okinawa 3. The Battle of Guadalcanal 4. The Battle of the Coral Sea |
4. The Battle of the Coral Sea
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During World War II, the Japanese loss/losses
of what island(s) heralded the end of the war in the Pacific? 1. Philippines 2. Solomons 3. Guadalcanal 4. Iwo Jima |
4. Iwo Jima
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During World War II, WAVES were eligible
for how many ratings? 1. 28 2. 30 3. 34 4. 40 |
3. 34
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The first U.S. Navy nuclear-powered vessel
was what type of ship? 1. Carrier 2. Submarine 3. Merchant ship 4. Guided-missile cruiser |
2. Submarine
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In what year did the USS Nautilus make its
history-making transpolar voyage? 1. 1952 2. 1955 3. 1958 4. 1961 |
3. 1958
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America’s first suborbital flight was made
by what Navy officer? 1. Commander Conrad 2. Commander Gordan 3. Commander Shepard Jr 4. Commander Kerwin |
3. Commander Shepard Jr
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Which of the following ships was the world’s
first nuclear-powered carrier? 1. USS Nimitz 2. USS Carl Vinson 3. USS Enterprise 4. USS Abraham Lincoln |
3. USS Enterprise
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Which of the following is NOT a DoD
military department? 1. Army 2. Coast Guard 3. Navy 4. Air Force |
2. Coast Guard
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By law, what person heads the Department of
the Navy (DoN)? 1. Secretary of Defense 2. Joint Chief of Staff 3. Secretary of the Navy |
3. Secretary of the Navy
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The operating forces are under the command
of the 1. Secretary of Defense 2. Secretary of the Navy 3. Chief of Naval Operations 4. Chief of Naval Personnel |
3. Chief of Naval Operations
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What is the purpose of the Shore
Establishment? 1. A last line of defense 2. To provide support to the operating forces 3. To provide a supply line 4. To support the front line |
2. To provide support to the operating forces
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When a ship is abandoned, custom and
regulation require which of the following actions by the commanding officer? 1. To be the first person to leave the ship 2. To be the last person to leave the ship 3. To exert every effort to destroy the ship before it sinks 4. To inform all personnel that they are on their own |
2. To be the last person to leave the ship
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What is the function of the command master
chief? 1. To take charge of and be responsible for the training of enlisted personnel 2. To assign enlisted personnel to their duties according to their qualification 3. To relieve the commanding officer of the responsibility for the welfare and morale of enlisted personnel 4. To transmit ideas and recommendations directly to the commanding officer |
3. To relieve the commanding officer of the
responsibility for the welfare and morale of enlisted personnel |
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What is ground tackle?
1. Equipment bolted to the deck 2. Equipment used to anchor and moor with anchors 3. Equipment electrically connected to ground 4. Equipment used to refuel the ship |
2. Equipment used to anchor and moor
with anchors |
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Which of the following is/are the most
commonly used anchors aboard Navy ships? 1. Lightweight 2. Stockless 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Locking pin |
2. Stockless
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How long is a standard shot of anchor chain?
1. 15 fathoms 2. 20 fathoms 3. 25 fathoms 4. 30 fathoms |
1. 15 fathoms
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What device is used to secure shots of anchor
chain together? 1. Link pins 2. Bending shackles 3. Detachable links 4. Securing shackles |
3. Detachable links
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What types of anchor windlasses are used
for lifting the ship’s anchor? 1. Vertical shaft type only 2. Horizontal shaft type only 3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types 4. Lateral shaft type |
3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types
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What device engages the chain links when
hauling anchors on board ship? 1. Wildcat 2. Capstan 3. Gypsy heads 4. Bending shackles |
1. Wildcat
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What lines are used to prevent the ship from
drifting forward or aft? 1. The bowline and the forward spring lines 2. The stern line and after spring lines 3. The forward and after spring lines 4. The bow and stern lines |
3. The forward and after spring lines
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What means are used to protect the sides
of a ship when it is alongside a pier? 1. Doubled lines 2. Camels only 3. Fenders only 4. Camels and fenders |
4. Camels and fenders
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Which of the following is NOT a deck fitting
found aboard ships? 1. Bitts 2. Cleats 3. Bollards 4. Pad eyes |
3. Bollards
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Nylon line is about how many times stronger
than manila line of the same size? 1. 1 1/2 2. 2 1/2 3. 3 1/2 4. 4 1/2 |
2. 2 1/2
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The square knot is also known as a
1. granny knot 2. seaman’s knot 3. reef knot 4. top knot |
3. reef knot
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The main value of the becket bend is that it
can be used to bend together two lines of different sizes. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which of the following actions would you
perform to “coil down” a line? 1. Lay line in successive circles with the bitter end in the center 2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other 3. Lay line in long, flat bights 4. Lay line out in full |
2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other
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Which of the following actions would you
take to “flemish down” a line? 1. Lay line in successive circles with the bitter end in the center 2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other 3. Lay line in long, flat bights 4. Lay line out in full |
1. Lay line in successive circles with the
bitter end in the center |
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Which of the following is the purpose of using
a short splice? 1. To temporarily join two lines together 2. To permanently join two lines together 3. To form an eye 4. Each of the above |
2. To permanently join two lines together
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Which of the following structural components
is the backbone of a ship? 1. Stringer 2. Prow 3. Stem 4. Keel |
4. Keel
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The device that bears up tight on wedges and
holds watertight doors closed is identified by which of the following terms? 1. Dogs 2. Scuttle 3. Coamings 4. Belaying pins |
1. Dogs
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Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a
commission pennant that is secured to what point? 1. The forecastle 2. Aft of the fantail 3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck 4. Level adjacent to the bridge |
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
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Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how
many categories? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
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Which of the following is the mission of
frigates? 1. Protective screens 2. Open ocean escort and patrol 3. Defensive operations against surface ships 4. Offensive operations against subsurface ships |
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
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The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how
many Trident missile tubes? 1. 16 2. 20 3. 24 4. 26 |
3. 24
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IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP DEFINED BY THE QUESTION. An ammunition supply ship. 1. AOE 2. ASR 3. AE 4. AO |
3. AE
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IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP DEFINED BY THE QUESTION. Supply dry and refrigerated stores. 1. AOE 2. ASR 3. AE 4. AO |
1. AOE
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A separation of what approximate distance is
maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it’s replenishing? 1. 50 feet 2. 75 feet 3. 100 feet 4. 125 feet |
3. 100 feet
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The AOE is designed to operate at what
approximate distance between itself and the ship it’s replenishing? 1. 150 feet 2. 175 feet 3. 200 feet 4. 225 feet |
3. 200 feet
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What are the three main parts of a helicopter?
1. Tail, rotors, and empennage 2. Tail, rotors, and fuselage 3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor 4. Main rotor, empennage, and tail rotor |
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
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What helicopter operates and tows mine
countermeasures devices? 1. CH-46 Sea Knight 2. SH-60B Seahawk 3. CH-53D Sea Stallion |
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion
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In a normal situation, how many paces from
the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered? 1. Two 2. Four 3. Six 4. Eight |
3. Six
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Salutes are rendered to all officers of the U.S.
and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to which of the following organizations are also entitled to salutes? 1. Local police departments 2. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration 3. Public Health Service 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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While standing a sentry box, you are
approached by an officer. What type of rifle salute should you render? 1. Present arms 2. At order arms 3. At shoulder arms |
1. Present arms
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Passing honors for ships are exchanged when
ships pass within what distance? 1. 200 yards 2. 400 yards 3. 600 yards 4. 800 yards |
3. 600 yards
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Passing honors for boats are exchanged
when boats pass within what distance? 1. 200 yards 2. 400 yards 3. 600 yards 4. 800 yards |
2. 400 yards
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Your ship is about to render honors to another
ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals given? 1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts 2. One blast, one blast, three blasts, one blast 3. Two blasts, two blasts, two blasts, three blasts 4. Two blasts, two blasts, three blasts, three blasts |
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three
blasts |
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Gun salutes are normally fired at what time
interval? 1. 5 seconds 2. 10 seconds 3. 15 seconds 4. 20 seconds |
1. 5 seconds
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On Navy ships not under way, where is
the union jack displayed? 1. The highest possible point 2. The flagstaff on the stern 3. The jack staff on the bow 4. The gaff |
3. The jack staff on the bow
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When the national anthem is being played,
Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the following rules? 1. All persons remain seated or standing and salute 2. Only the coxswain salutes; all others remain seated but uncovered 3. All persons standing salute; all others remain seated at attention 4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated at attention |
4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the
coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated at attention |
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Upon entering an area where Christian divine
services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should take which of the following actions? 1. Uncover only 2. Remove you duty belt only 3. Remove you duty belt and uncover 4. Request permission from the chaplain to enter |
1. Uncover only
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An enlisted person and two officers are about
to board a boat. Which of the following procedures should the enlisted person follow in entering the boat? 1. Board first and sit aft 2. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the stern of the boat 3. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the bow of the boat 4. Board first and sit forward, leaving room aft for the officers |
1. Board first and sit aft
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The neckerchief is made from which of the
following materials? 1. Black silk 2. Black acetate 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Black cotton |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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What material is used to make
government-issue dress blue jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
2. Wool serge
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What material is used to make governmentissue
dress white jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
1. Navy twill
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How can you determine whether an officer
is a line officer or a staff corps officer? 1. By title on the name tag 2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder board of the line officer 3. By the collar devices 4. A designator stripe for the rank |
2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder
board of the line officer |
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There are how many broad categories
of awards? 1. Four 2. Five 3. Six 4. Seven |
4. Seven
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When personnel are in ranks, the chest of
one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart? 1. 20 inches 2. 30 inches 3. 40 inches 4. 50 inches |
3. 40 inches
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Personnel in formation align themselves
with which of the following persons? 1. Guide 2. Leader 3. Each other 4. Formation director |
3. Each other
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When the command CLOSE RANKS is
given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
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The M16A1 and M16A2 rifles are best
described by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Clip-fed, recoil-operated weapons 2. Magazine-fed, recoil-operated shoulder weapons 3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder weapons 4. Clip-fed, gas-operated weapons |
3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder
weapons |
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What is the muzzle velocity of the M16A1
and M16A2 rifles? 1. 2,500 feet per second 2. 3,000 feet per second 3. 3,500 feet per second 4. 4,000 feet per second |
2. 3,000 feet per second
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For what size cartridge is the M16A1
rifle chambered? 1. .38 caliber 2. .45 caliber 3. 5.56 mm 4. 7.62 mm |
3. 5.56 mm
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What means is used to adjust the rear sights
of the M16A2 rifle? 1. A windage drum 2. A windage knob and an elevation knob 3. A clip lever marked range 4. A slide adjust to windage |
2. A windage knob and an elevation knob
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When cleaning the barrel bore and chamber
of the M16A1 rifle, you should not reverse the brush while in the bore for what reason? 1. The barrel slide will be damaged 2. The bore may jam 3. The trigger pin will need to be replaced 4. The bore cleaner will not work |
2. The bore may jam
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What parts of the barrel bore and chamber
should you lubricate after you’ve finished cleaning them? 1. The locking lugs 2. The extractor ejector 3. The lugs in the barrel extension 4. The magazine springs |
3. The lugs in the barrel extension
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The 9mm service pistol is best described
by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated, magazine-fed hand gun 2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil-operated, double-action pistol 3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading double-action hand gun 4. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed, single-action pistol |
2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed,
recoil-operated, double-action pistol |
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What safety feature of the 9mm pistol
prevents accidental discharge? 1. Firing pin block 2. Half cock notch 3. Muzzle pressure 4. Rear trigger guard |
2. Half cock notch
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How many standard firing positions are taught
in the Navy? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five |
2. Three
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QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL. Missing the target is most often caused by 1. sight misalignment 2. bent barrel 3. improper trigger squeeze 4. bad ammunition |
3. improper trigger squeeze
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Which of the following statements describes a
correct GQ route to follow? 1. Forward in the passageways and down ladders on the starboard side 2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side 3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders on the port side 4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side |
1. Forward in the passageways and down
ladders on the starboard side |
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Which of the following means of
communications is used when all other methods have failed? 1. Messengers 2. Sound-powered telephones 3. Morse Code 4. Bullhorn |
1. Messengers
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All Navy ships have how many material
conditions of readiness? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
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What fittings are secured when the ship is set
for “darken ship”? 1. WILLIAM 2. Circle WILLIAM 3. DOG ZEBRA 4. Circle ZEBRA |
3. DOG ZEBRA
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The emergency escape breathing device
(EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time? 1. 10 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 20 minutes 4. 25 minutes |
2. 15 minutes
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With training, you should be able to activate
the EEBD within what maximum period of time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
3. 30 seconds
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In the fire tetrahedron, how many components
are necessary for combustion? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
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