Blood Bank Post-Review Practice Test: Deltech Owens

Front 1

The donor history questionnaire was developed by ?

Back 1

AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)

Front 2

What are the 3 steps in the donor screening process?

Back 2

1. registration 2. health history 3. physical exam

Front 3

A donor applicant who has received a tattoo or permanent makeup at a facility that it not state regulated must be deferred for how long?

Back 3

1 year

Front 4

A donor applicant with a history of hepatitis after his 11th birthday will be deferred for how long?

Back 4

permanently deferred

Front 5

Donor applicants taking Warfarin/Coumadin will be deferred for how long?

Back 5

1 week

Front 6

Donor applicants who have recently received a Hepatitis B vaccine will be deferred for how long?

Back 6

28 days

Front 7

A donor applicant who tests positive for hepatitis B surface antigen will be deferred for how long?

Back 7

permanently deferred

Front 8

A donor applicant who tests positive for hepatitis B antigen on more than one occasion will be deferred for how long?

Back 8

permanently deferred

Front 9

Donor applicants who have recently received a vaccine for viruses OTHER THAN German measles, Chickenpox, or hepatitis will be deferred how long?

Back 9

2 weeks

Front 10

A donor applicant with past or present lab evidence of hepatitis C virus will be deferred for how long?

Back 10

permanently deferred

Front 11

A donor who has received a rabies vaccine after an animal bite must be deferred for how long?

Back 11

1 year

Front 12

Donor applicants who have recently received the German measles or Chickenpox (Varicella-zoster) vaccines will be deferred how long?

Back 12

4 weeks

Front 13

Donor applicants taking bovine insulin will be deferred for how long?

Back 13

indefinitely

Front 14

A donor applicant must wait how long to donate blood after pregnancy?

Back 14

6 weeks

Front 15

A donor applicant with past or present lab evidence of human T-cell lymphotropic virus will be deferred for how long?

Back 15

permanently deferred

Front 16

Donor applicants who have hepatitis B immune globulins will be deferred for how long?

Back 16

1 year

Front 17

A donor applicant with past or present lab evidence of HIV infection will be deferred for how long?

Back 17

permanently deferred

Front 18

A donor applicant with a history of babesiosis or Chagas disease will be deferred for how long?

Back 18

permanently deferred

Front 19

A donor applicant with a history of malaria or who has lived in a country for 5 consecutive years or more where malaria is endemic will be deferred for how long?

Back 19

3 years

Front 20

A donor applicant with a family history of CJD/Mad Cow disease will be deferred for how long?

Back 20

permanently deferred

Front 21

A donor applicant that has traveled to an area where malaria is endemic will be deferred for how long?

Back 21

1 year after departure

Front 22

A donor applicant who has lived 3 months or more in the U.K. from 1980-1996 will be deferred for how long?

Back 22

indefinitely

Front 23

Donor applicants taking Accutane will deferred for how long?

Back 23

1 month

Front 24

A donor applicant who has received dura mater or human pituitary growth hormone will be deferred for how long?

Back 24

permanently deferred

Front 25

A donor applicant who has lived 5 years or more in Europe from 1980 to the present will be deferred for how long?

Back 25

indefinitely

Front 26

Donor applicants taking Propecia will be deferred for how long?

Back 26

1 month

Front 27

Any donor applicant who has received a blood transfusion or human tissues must be deferred for how long?

Back 27

1 year

Front 28

A donor applicant who has used a needle to self-administer nonprescription drugs will be deferred for how long?

Back 28

permanently deferred

Front 29

Donor applicants taking aspirin will be deferred for how long?

Back 29

2 days FOR PLATELET DONORS ONLY

Front 30

Donor applicants taking Plavix will be deferred for how long?

Back 30

14 days FOR PLATELET DONORS ONLY

Front 31

A donor applicant who has been incarcerated for more than 72 hours must be deferred for how long?

Back 31

1 year

Front 32

The antecubital site where a blood donation is to be made from must be sterilized with 10% __ or .7% __.

Back 32

10% Betadine (povidone-iodine) or 0.7% iodine (aqueous iodophor)

Front 33

What size needle is normally used during a blood donation?

Back 33

16 gauge

Front 34

If a donor begins to complain of weakness, dizziness, pallor, nausea and vomiting, what should you do?

Back 34

1. remove needle and tourniquet 2. elevate legs above head 3. apply cold compresses to forehead and back of neck

Front 35

If a donor faints (syncope) what should you do?

Back 35

Apply cold compresses on back of neck.

Front 36

If a donor has a hematoma, what should you do to minimize the bruise?

Back 36

apply pressure for 7-10 mins, then ice for 5 mins

Front 37

If a donor begins having convulsions while donating blood, what should you do?

Back 37

1. call for help 2. prevent donor from falling or injuring himself 3. ensure donor has adequate airway

Front 38

The donor should notify the blood center if they experience any reactions from their blood donation within how long?

Back 38

2 weeks

Front 39

Donations made to the general population are called ?

Back 39

allogeneic

Front 40

Donations made for the donor's personal use are called ?

Back 40

autologous

Front 41

Donations contributed for use by a specific person other than the donor are called ?

Back 41

directed donations

Front 42

What are the 5 advantages of an autologous blood donation?

Back 42

1. prevents transmission of disease 2. prevents alloimmunization 3. supplements the blood supply 4. prevents febrile and allergic reactions 5. reassures the patient

Front 43

What are the 5 disadvantages of making an autologous blood donation?

Back 43

1. inventory control 2. preoperative anemia 3. increased cost 4. high wastage 5. increased incidence of adverse reaction to donation

Front 44

When blood is drawn and stored before the anticipated date of surgery, this is called a __ donation.

Back 44

preoperative

Front 45

Removing units of blood at the beginning of surgery and reinfusing them at the end of surgery is called a __ donation.

Back 45

normovolemic

Front 46

When a medical device washes, filters, and concentrates blood during an operation, this is called __ __.

Back 46

blood recovery

Front 47

A donor applicant's hemoglobin must be at least __ g/dL to donate.

Back 47

12.5 g/dL

Front 48

A donor applicants hematocrit must be at least __% to donate.

Back 48

38%

Front 49

A donor applicants temp must be less than or equal to __ degrees Celsius.

Back 49

37.5

Front 50

A donor applicants must be at least __ years old to donate.

Back 50

17, or in accordance with state law (18 in Delaware)

Front 51

To make a preoperative donation, a patient's hemoglobin must be at least __ g/dL.

Back 51

11

Front 52

To make a preoperative donation, a patient's hematocrit must be at least __%.

Back 52

33

Front 53

A patient can make a preoperative donation up to how many hours before an operation?

Back 53

72

Front 54

You must wait how many days after a blood donation to make another one?

Back 54

56 days

Front 55

When blood components are separated and the remaining blood is returned to the donor, this is called ?

Back 55

apheresis

Front 56

When white blood cells are separated for a donation, this is called ?

Back 56

leukapheresis

Front 57

Plateletpheresis donations must be made at least how many hours apart and how many times per week?

Back 57

48 hours apart, no more than twice per week

Front 58

What immunoglobulin levels are monitored when making a donation for frequent plasmapheresis?

Back 58

IgG and IgM

Front 59

After donating for red cell apheresis, deferral for making another donation is how long?

Back 59

16 weeks

Front 60

Testing blood for ABO, D type, and antibody screening is what category of test?

Back 60

Immunohematologic testing

Front 61

Testing blood for infectious agents is called what category of testing?

Back 61

infectious disease screening

Front 62

NAT stands for?

Back 62

nucleic acid test

Front 63

What does HBsAg stand for?

Back 63

Hepatitis B surface antigen

Front 64

What does anti-HBc stand for?

Back 64

antibody to Hepatitis B core

Front 65

When testing for Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease) we are really looking for what antibody?

Back 65

IgG antibody to T. cruzi

Front 66

HTLV stands for?

Back 66

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

Front 67

Certain people require blood that has been tested for CMV. What are the 3 groups of people?

Back 67

1. immunocompromised 2. babies 3. pregnant women (or women of child bearing age)

Front 68

What 4 tests are performed on blood to check for hepatitis?

Back 68

1. HBsAg (hepatitis B surface antigen) 2. anti-HCV (antibody to hepatitis C virus) 3. Anti-HBc (antibody to hepatitis B core) 4. HCV NAT (hepatitis C virus nucleic acid test)

Front 69

RPR stand for?

Back 69

rapid plasma reagin

Front 70

Syphilis is caused by what infectious agent?

Back 70

Treponema pallidum

Front 71

What test is used to check blood for syphilis? What test is used to confirm?

Back 71

RPR test, confirmed with Fluorescent treponemal antibody adsorption test

Front 72

What does EIA stand for?

Back 72

Enzyme-linked Immumosorbent Assay

Front 73

Indirect EIA detects what?

Back 73

antibodies

Front 74

Sandwich EIA detects what?

Back 74

antigens

Front 75

What is the advantage of a NAT over other tests?

Back 75

NAT can detect VERY low numbers of viral copies in plasma, even before antibodies appear

Front 76

Which kinds of hepatitis can be transmitted by IV?

Back 76

B, C, D

Front 77

HBsAG (hepatitis B surface antigen) tests for a __ on the viral surface that indicates the patient has been infected.

Back 77

protein

Front 78

What antibody appears in a patient after HBsAG but before symptoms appear?

Back 78

anti-HBc (antibody to hepatitis B core antibody)

Front 79

What makes a retrovirus different from a DNA virus?

Back 79

A retrovirus has reverse transcriptase that allows the virus to convert RNA to DNA and integrate the new DNA into the cell

Front 80

HTLV-1 is associated with ?

Back 80

adult T-cell leukemia

Front 81

Even after blood has been leukareduced, some WBCs remain and the patient can still be infected by __.

Back 81

HTLV-1

Front 82

What 4 infectious agents can trigger a look-back investigation?

Back 82

1. hepatitis 2. HIV 3. HTLV 3. WNV

Front 83

Chagas disease is the result of what infectious agent?

Back 83

Trypanosoma cruzi

Front 84

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by what bug?

Back 84

Reduviid bug

Front 85

What substance supports ATP generation by the glycolytic pathway?

Back 85

dextrose

Front 86

What substance acts as a substrate for red cell ATP synthesis?

Back 86

adenine

Front 87

What substance prevents coag by chelating calcium and protects donated RBC membranes?

Back 87

citrate

Front 88

What substance prevents an excessive decrease in donor blood pH?

Back 88

sodium biphsophate

Front 89

What substance is an osmotic diuretic that acts as a membrane stabilizer?

Back 89

Mannitol

Front 90

CPD and CP2D can allow blood to be stored for how many days?

Back 90

21

Front 91

CPDA-1 can allow blood to be stored for how long?

Back 91

35 days

Front 92

Additive solution AS-5 can allow blood to be stored for how long?

Back 92

42 days

Front 93

CPD stands for?

Back 93

Citrate-phosphate-dextrose

Front 94

What increases when blood is stored?

Back 94

potassium and plasma hemoglobin due to RBC lysis

Front 95

RBC ATP and 2,3 DPG go (up or down?) once blood has been stored?

Back 95

down

Front 96

Platelet-rich plasma (PRP) is expelled into a satellite bag when whole blood undergoes a (light or heavy?) spin.

Back 96

light

Front 97

Platelets are separated from plasma when PRP is spun at a (heavy or light?) spin?

Back 97

heavy

Front 98

Plasma can be further processed into __ __ __ during a heavy spin.

Back 98

fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

Front 99

FFP (fresh frozen plasma) can be processed into __.

Back 99

cryoprecipitate

Front 100

A unit of whole blood increases a recipient's hemoglobin by how much?

Back 100

1g/dL

Front 101

A unit of whole blood increases a recipient's hematocrit by what percent?

Back 101

3%

Front 102

RBC component must be stored at what temp?

Back 102

1-6C

Front 103

Frozen RBCs must be stored at what temp?

Back 103

-65C or lower

Front 104

Frozen RBCs remain viable for how long?

Back 104

10 years

Front 105

Deglycerolized or washed RBCs must be stored at 1-6C and are good for how long?

Back 105

24 hours

Front 106

Irradiated RBCs must be stored at what temp?

Back 106

1-6C

Front 107

Irradiated RBCs are good for how long?

Back 107

28 days from irradiation or their pre-irradiation expiration date

Front 108

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) must be stored at what temp?

Back 108

-18C or less

Front 109

If stored at -18C, FFP is good for how long?

Back 109

1 year

Front 110

Once thawed, FFP and PF24 are good for how long?

Back 110

24 hours

Front 111

Leukocyte reduced apheresis platelets should be stored at what temp?

Back 111

20-24C

Front 112

Leukocyte reduced apheresis platelets are good for how long?

Back 112

5 days

Front 113

Cytokines produced by WBCs can cause _ reactions.

Back 113

febrile reactions

Front 114

Cytokines produced by leukocytes can cause what 3 reactions?

Back 114

1. fever 2. shaking 3. chills

Front 115

Removing WBCs does not prevent GVH disease (graft VS host) but what does?

Back 115

irradiation

Front 116

The final RBC apheresis must have at least __ g of hemoglobin and a minimum volume of __ mL.

Back 116

51g, 153mL

Front 117

Automatic collection of 1 unite of apheresis RBCs takes place once every __ weeks.

Back 117

8

Front 118

What do we wash RBCs with to remove plasma proteins that might cause allergic, febrile, or anaphylatic reactions?

Back 118

saline

Front 119

GVH disease is a reaction to __ on T cells.

Back 119

HLAs

Front 120

Which is better: Apheresis platelets or pooled platelets?

Back 120

apheresis

Front 121

FFP and PF24 contain all coag factors, but PF24 is deficient in what coag factor?

Back 121

8

Front 122

Patients in need of which 4 factors can be given FFP?

Back 122

II, V, X, XI

Front 123

What 6 reasons are there for giving someone FFP?

Back 123

1. coag deficiency 2. mass transfusion 3. warfarin 4. therapeutic plasmapheresis 5. live disease and factor deficiency 6. DIC

Front 124

FFP and PF24 thaw in __ mins and should be stored at what temp?

Back 124

30-45 mins, 1-6C

Front 125

If FFP and PF24 have not been transfused within 24 hours, it can be stored at 1-6C and used within __ days.

Back 125

5

Front 126

Thawed plasma cannot be used to replace factor __.

Back 126

8

Front 127

CRYO must have __ mg of fibrinogen and __ international units of factor __ per unit.

Back 127

150mg, 80 IU, factor 8

Front 128

CRYO contains what factors?

Back 128

VWF, fibrinogen, 8, fibronectin, 13

Front 129

AABB standards required all facilities to convert to __ by May 1, 2008.

Back 129

ISBT 138