Blood Bank (Clsr)

Front 1

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: hepatitis B immune globulin

Back 1

1 year

Front 2

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: poss exposure to hep, hiv, & malaria

Back 2

1 year

Front 3

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: recipient of blood/blood products

Back 3

1 year

Front 4

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: tattoo

Back 4

1 year

Front 5

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: mucous membrane exposure to blood

Back 5

1 year

Front 6

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: skin penetration w/ instrument contaminated w/ blood/blood fluid

Back 6

1 year

Front 7

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: sexual contact with indvdl symptomatic for any viral hep, confirmed + for HBsAg/Hiv or in high risk category

Back 7

1 year

Front 8

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: from completion of therapy for syphilis or gonorrhea or reactive STS

Back 8

1 year

Front 9

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: traveled to endemic areas for malaria w/ or w/out antimalarial drug, & were free of malarial symptoms during that time

Back 9

1 year

Front 10

donor deferral (time/year)- possible exposure to: >72 hours in correctional institution

Back 10

1 year

Front 11

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: asymptomatic during time: vistor/immigrant from area endemic for malaria or previous diagnose w/ malaria

Back 11

3 years

Front 12

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: viral hep after age 11

Back 12

indefinite

Front 13

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: + confirmation test for HBsAg

Back 13

indefinite

Front 14

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: repeatly reactive test for anti-HBc

Back 14

indefinite

Front 15

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: doanted only unit to recipient who developed post transfusion hep, HIV, HTLV

Back 15

indefinite

Front 16

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: present/past infection of HCV, HTLV or HIV

Back 16

indefinite

Front 17

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: evidence of parenteral drug use

Back 17

indefinite

Front 18

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: recieved dura mater or pituitary growth hormone of human origin, family history of CJD (Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) or risk of vCJC

Back 18

indefinite

Front 19

donor deferral (time/year) if exposure to: history of Chagas' disease or babesiosis

Back 19

indefinite

Front 20

what is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and what does it cause and how it is related to mad cow disease

Back 20

(CJD) is a transmissible, rapidly progressing, neurodegenerative disorder called a spongiform degeneration related to "mad cow disease."

Front 21

terms for separation & collections of: CYTA-phresis

Back 21

cells

Front 22

terms for separation & collections of: plasma-phresis

Back 22

plasma

Front 23

terms for separation & collections of: platelet-phresis

Back 23

platelets

Front 24

terms for separation & collections of: leuka=phresis

Back 24

leukocytes/granulocytes

Front 25

RBCs (packed cells) - needs to be storage (open/close system, CDP, CPDA & Additive) how & what is the standard of this component

Back 25

1-6 c - closed system
21 days (CPD)
35 days (CPDA-1)
42 days (Additive)
1-6 c open - 24 hours

HCT = 80% max

Front 26

Leukocyte Reduce Cells - needs to be storage how (open/close system, CDP, CPDA & Additive) & what is the standard of this component

Back 26

1-6 c - closed system
21 days (CPD)
35 days (CPDA-1)
42 days (Additive)
1-6 c open - 24 hours

85% of original cells, <5 x 10 6 leukocytes in 95% unit tested

Front 27

Frozen Red Cells - needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 27

10 years = -65c or colder (40% glycerol)
-120 c (20% glycerol)
24 hours once deglycerolized

80% original red cells, adequate removal of cryoprotective agent

Front 28

FFP needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 28

10 years = -65c or cooler (40% glycerol)
-120c (20% glycerol)
24 hours once deglycerolized

frozen to <18c or <-65 w/ 6-8 hours (depends on anticoag)

Front 29

Cryo needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 29

12 months <-18c

Front 30

Platelet (single donor/close system) needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 30

3-5 days depends on collection bag
20-24 c w/ constant angitation

>5.5 x 10 10/plt unit in 90% units tested

ph:6.2or greater in 90% united tested at max storage time

Front 31

Platelets (open system) Pooled needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 31

4 hours
20-24 with agitation

Front 32

Platelet, leukocyte reduced needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 32

3-5 days depends on collection bag
20-24 c w/ constant angitation

>5.5 x 10 10/plt unit in 90% units tested

<8.3 x 10 5/leukocyte in 95% units tested

<5x 10 6/in pooled platelets

Front 33

Platelet - phresis needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 33

5 days, 20-24 c with constant agitation
24 hours in open system

Front 34

Granulocytes - phresis needs to be storage how & what is the standard of this component

Back 34

24 hours, 20-24 c

>1.0 x 10 10/granulocytes in 75% of units tested

Front 35

what is the expiration of CPD-anticoag and what chemicals are added

Back 35

21 days expiration
citrate, phosphate & dextrose

Front 36

what is the expiration of CPDA-1-anticoag and what chemicals are added

Back 36

35 days expiration
adenine added

Front 37

name four main additives and how much longer would it enhance red cell survival

Back 37

contains: dextrose, adenine & sodium chloride + other subtx
enhance red cell survival 42 days

Front 38

when rejuvenating solution is added, what chemical does it contain (4) and what does it restores (2)

Back 38

contains: pyruvate, inosine, phosphate & adenine (PIPA, instead of HIPA)
rejuv PIPA!!
restores: 2,3 - DPG and ATP

Front 39

when rejuvenating solutions are added to product, how much longer does it it be used after expiration date

Back 39

up to 3 days after expiration date

Front 40

what must happen once you add rejuvenating solution in a freeze unit (if stored in 24 hours at 1-6c)

Back 40

must wash cells before transfusion to remove solution

Front 41

what is autologous donation and what are its benefits

Back 41

donation for self and its benefits is that it has no bacteremia

Front 42

autologous donation - what does the patient hct/hgb need to be to donate

Back 42

hct = 33%
hgb = 11 g/dl

Front 43

autologous donation - what must the preoperative collection be labeled that will indicate use for only for this patient

Back 43

"for autologous use only" & it must be separated from allogenic units (from other units)

Front 44

what is the MAX collection for donor blood

Back 44

no more than 10.5 mL of whole blood per kilogram of body weight, including samples

Front 45

autologous donation - Low volume collection - if 300 - 404 ml of blood are drawn, what must be label the unit as

Back 45

label as "Red Blood Cells Low Volume" - these components may not be made from these units

Front 46

autologous donation - Low volume collection - if blood is drawn <300 ml, what must be done

Back 46

use proportionately less anticoag

Front 47

autologous donation - what is the calculation for low volume collection ex: 90 lb donor

Back 47

90 lb/110 lb x 450 ml (std dontx) = 368 ml

if donor is given in kg, div donor by 50, then mx by 450

amt of anticoag use:
368 x 14% = 51.5 = 52 % amt of anticoag

63 - 52 = 11ml, remove 11ml of anticoag from primary bag into attached satellite bad prior to draw

Front 48

autologous donation - what happens to inoperative collections

Back 48

they become "salvaged" blood collected during surgery, washed onsite & returned to patient during procedure

Front 49

autologous donation - remember must be this amount for mim weight collection

Back 49

<10.5 mL/kg body weight for minimum weight (450 + 45 ml plus testing samples)

Front 50

hemaphresis/apheresis collection - what is the waiting period after aphresis procedure to donate whole blood

Back 50

must wait 48 hours after aphresis procedure to donate whole blood

Front 51

hemaphresis/apheresis collection - what is the FDA limits on this type of collection

Back 51

FDA limit to 500 ml/collection or
if weigh > 175 lbs = 600 mL

Front 52

hemaphresis/apheresis collection - what are the methods on centriugation

Back 52

centrifugation - withdrawl of WB, removing selected fraction & reinfusion of the remaining components into the donor

Front 53

hemaphresis/apheresis collection - what are the methods on filtration

Back 53

filtration - removal of only plasma through a membrane for normal plasma collection or for therapeutic purposes

Front 54

hemaphresis/apheresis collection - what are the methods on adsorption

Back 54

adsorption - removal of only selected constituent of plasma with reinfusion of plasma after constituent removed

Front 55

this is used to reconstitute BM post chemo/irradiation or to replace abn marrow cells w/ normal marrow cells (congenital immune def, anemias, malignant, disorders of BM, red cell disorders etc)

Back 55

hematopoietic progenitor & stem cell collection

Front 56

cells obtains from BM, umbilical cord blood & peripheral blood (apheresis)

Back 56

hematopoietic progenitor & stem cell collection

Front 57

allogeneic marrow - HLA id match LOWERS GVHD link or risk, ABO comp not required

Back 57

hematopoietic progenitor & stem cell collection

Front 58

this blood component is given when: severe shock (blood loss >25% blood volume) needs rbcs for O2 & plasma for volume)

Back 58

whole blood

Front 59

this blood component is given when: rarely used due to increase use & availability of components

Back 59

whole blood

Front 60

this blood component is ___ with plasma removed by sedimentation, centrifugation or washing

Back 60

red blood cells (packed cells)

Front 61

this component is given to provide same O2 carry capacity as whole blood with less volume

Back 61

red blood cells (packed cells)

Front 62

this blood component is used when: <80% hct (indicates sufficient plasma removal), 55-65% hct if additive solution used

Back 62

red blood cells (packed cells)

Front 63

this blood component is given to help raise 1g HGB or 3% HCT

Back 63

red blood cells (packed cells)
1 unit raises HGB 1g
1 unit raises HCT 3%

Front 64

this blood component requires plasma removed by successive saline washes (automated instruments)

Back 64

wash red cells

Front 65

this blood component is given to prevent allergic response to plasma protein & anaphylactic shock in IgA def pat w/ anti-IgA (IgA is in normal plasma)

Back 65

washed red cells

Front 66

this blood component is expired 24 hours after seal of original unit is broken

Back 66

washed red cells

Front 67

this blood component has 85% of red cells retained

Back 67

leukocyte reduced red cells

Front 68

this blood component can help the final WBC count <5 x 10 6 to prevent febrile nonhemolytic rtx & other use ex: prevent CMV transmission

Back 68

leukocyte reduced red cells

Front 69

this blood component is (preferred) prepare by filtration, washing will remove leukocytes also

Back 69

leukocyte reduced red cells

Front 70

this blood component is used primarily for pat w/ repeated febrile nonhemolytic (FNH) rtx, usually due to presence of CYTOKINES related from white cells or alloimmunization to HLA or leukocyte antigens

Back 70

leukocyte reduced red cells

Front 71

this blood component has cells protected from low temp by cryoprotective agent *glycerol*

Back 71

frozen cells

Front 72

this blood component must be thawed @37c & glycerol removed prior to transfusion

Back 72

frozen cells

Front 73

this blood component has 80% of original red cells must be recovered

Back 73

frozen cells

Front 74

this blood component is used for storage of autologous units & rare units, expires 10 years

Back 74

frozen cell

Front 75

this blood component is prepared by separating cells & plasma by centrifugation & freezing plasma within 8 hours of collection

Back 75

FFP

Front 76

this blood component expires 1 year from date of collectio when stored at <-18 c or colder at 7 years at <-65c

Back 76

FFP

Front 77

this blood component once thawed (btwn 30-37c) expires in 24 hours if kept in 1-6c

Back 77

FFP

Front 78

this blood component MUST be ABO compat w/ recipient cells, not necessarily ABO identical

Back 78

FFP

Front 79

this blood component is used for mx coag def, factor 13 defncy, & other coag def for which no concentrate is available

Back 79

FFP

Front 80

this blood component is made after FFP is frozen within 8 hours of WB collection is thawed at 1-6c, a cold INSOLUBLE portion of plasma is formed....

Back 80

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 81

this blood component has to be separated from thawed FFP & refrozen asap

Back 81

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 82

this blood component must contain >150 mg of fibrinogen & >80 IU/bag of factor 8

Back 82

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 83

this blood component also contains factor 8C & VWF of Factor 8 molecule & factor 13

Back 83

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 84

this blood component must be stored at <-18 c for 1 year from date of phlebotomy, 1-6c after thawing

Back 84

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 85

this blood component must be transfused w/in 6 hours after thawing, 4 hours after pooling

Back 85

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 86

this blood component is used for fibrinogen & Factor 13 defncy

Back 86

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 87

this blood component is use for severe VWD (some factor 8 concentrates contain vWF)

Back 87

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 88

this blood component is used as a topical fibrin sealant

Back 88

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 89

this blood component is seldom used for hemophilic cz of factor 8 concentrates which have little or no risk of viral infection transmission (use DDAVP or mild hemo A)

Back 89

cryoppt (cryo ppt anti-hemophilic factor)

Front 90

VWD can be treated with two different products

Back 90

Factor 8 concentrates that have VWF & DDVAP (milder cases)

Front 91

Inhibitors of Factor 8 can be treated with two different products

Back 91

porcein Factor 8 (low crx reactivity) &
Factor 9 complex (bypass factor 8 in cascade)

Front 92

Hem B can be treated with this product

Back 92

treated w/ Factor 9 (better than Factor 9 complex which can lead to thrombosis)

Front 93

Hem A can be treated with this product

Back 93

treat severe w/ factor 8 ad mild w/ DDAVP (stimulates endogenous factor 8 release)

Front 94

what is the benefit of using factor concentrates vs FFP

Back 94

factor concentrates increases level of specific factors w/ minimal volume compared to FFP

Front 95

factors concentrates - where do recombinant products come from & what are their added benefits

Back 95

recombinant products are prepared from plasma pools, plasma pool is processed to purify & concentrate the protein & inactivate viruses

Front 96

where do platelets come from & how are they stored

Back 96

prepared from WB stored at 20-24c prior to processing

Front 97

what are the steps to preparing/processing platelets
1. spinning
2. how it gets expressed (divided/separated into another bag)
3. remaining portion

Back 97

1. first LIGHT spin (to remove red cells) followed by a HEAVY centrifuge (to spin down platelets & white cells
2. supernatant plasma is expressed into another bag & may be frozen (FFP)
3. remaining platelets & white cells = platelet concentrate

Front 98

under this conditions, what blood product would be used: for severe thrombocytopenia & platelet dysftx

Back 98

platelets

Front 99

under this conditions, what blood product would be used: prophylactic use platelet count is low is controversial (threshold depends on pat's risk of bleeding)

Back 99

platelets

Front 100

under this conditions, what blood product would be used: contraindicated in TTP & heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Back 100

platelets

Front 101

why can't lab use platelets from donors who are w/in 36 hours of taking drugs (ex: aspirin)

Back 101

this would impair the platelet functions and should not be used as a "single source" (aphresis product or single unit for newborn

Front 102

what two things can cause platelet refractoriness (Inappropriately low increment in platelet count following a transfusion)

Back 102

1. antibodies to HLA class I antigens
2. platelet antibodies or neutrophils/lymphocyte antibodies

Front 103

on platelet transfusion, how much can 1 unit of platelet raise platelet count

Back 103

5,000 - 10,000 avg size adult

Front 104

on platelet transfusion, can you transfuse through a microaggregate filter

Back 104

no

Front 105

on platelet transfusion - ABO type/pooled expires when after pooling

Back 105

4 hours

Front 106

platelet QC - what is the pH needed for storage

Back 106

pH >6.2 at end of storage, stored in volume of plasma necessary to maintain pH, usually 30-70cc

Front 107

platelet QC - what is the amount of viability needed on the units tested

Back 107

5.5 x 10 10/platelets/units or
>3 x 10 11/platelets/platelephresis in
90% of units tested

Front 108

platelet QC - what must be done continuously to platelets

Back 108

stored continuously rotating at 20-24 c (room temp)

Front 109

platelet QC - what is important about the following values
<8.3 x 10 5/ leukocytes
<5 x 10 6/ leukocytes

Back 109

indvdl leukoreduced platelets
<8.3 x 10 5/ leukocytes

leukoreduced pooled platelets or plateletphressis product
<5 x 10 6/ leukocytes

Front 110

platelets - is it needed for ABO compatibility testing for infants

Back 110

yes - transfuse ABO compatibility needed for infants

Front 111

granulocytes - why is there a decrease in this product and name an adverse effect on this transfusion

Back 111

decline in use due to new antibiotics, recombinant growth factor & adverse effects from granulocyte transfusion (lung injury)

Front 112

granulocytes - when would this be used on patients

Back 112

used for NEUTROPENIC patients with documented gram negative sepsis who have not responded to antibiotics

Front 113

granulocytes - if not irradiated what are some things it can transmit or induce and then cause (3)

Back 113

transmit = CMV
induce = HLA immunization
GVHD if not irradiated

Front 114

granulocytes - what is the storage reqmnt and when should it be transfused

Back 114

stored WITHOUT agitation at 20-24c for up to 24 hours, but should be transfused ASAP

Front 115

granulocytes what makes this blood component different from other components when it comes to ABO testing

Back 115

it must be ABO compatible w/ recipient

Front 116

irradiated blood & components - what is the main benefits of using this product

Back 116

prevents graft (donor LYMPHOCYTES) vs host (pat's LYMPHOCYTES) disease by inactivating donor lymphs

Front 117

irradiated blood & components - when would it be recommended for usage (2)

Back 117

1. fetus receiving intrauterine transfusion
2. immunosupressed/compromised patients

Front 118

irradiated blood & components - what is the minimum product given

Back 118

25 Gy (2500 cGy)

Front 119

irradiated blood & components - when does it expires

Back 119

RBCs expired on original outdate or 28 days after irradiation, whichever is first

Front 120

how much anticoag is in a blood bag

Back 120

63 ml of anticoag/bag

Front 121

expiration based on expectation of ___% of transfused cells will be in circulation 24 hours after transfusion

Back 121

75%

Front 122

what should you expect would change in plasma during storage (1-6c)

Back 122

INCREASE: Nha & K (fly w/ NhaKKK birds)
DECREASE: Na & pH (go down with a NAP)

Front 123

how should transporting blood & components for the following be:
1. Red cells
2. platelets & granulocytes
3. frozen components

Back 123

1. Red cells 1-10 c
2. platelets & granulocytes 20-24 c
3. frozen components = freezzee

Front 124

what is the expiration of blood/components when seal is broken (packing cell/pooling)
1. product stored at 1-6 c =
2. product stored at 20-24 c =

Back 124

1. product stored at 1-6 c = 24 hours
2. product stored at 20-24 c = 4 hours

Front 125

what is the expiration of pool components:
1. platelets (open system) =
2. cryoppt (open system) =

Back 125

1. platelets (open system) = 4 hours
2. cryoppt (open system) = 4 hours

Front 126

when can a unit of blood NOT able to return & reissued

Back 126

unit of blood cannot be returned/reissued if >10c (room temp 15-30 mins) or if seal disturbed

Front 127

chains of sugar molecules in which specificity is determined by

Back 127

immunodominant sugar

Front 128

what is the genetic pathway (draw)

Back 128

....

Front 129

what is Anti-A1 made up

Back 129

Dolichos biflorus (or anit-A1 human)
lectin - plant or seed extract diluted to agglutinate specific human blood grp antigens

Front 130

what are the reactions when Anti-A1 is added to Subgroup
1. A1
2. A2
2. A3

Back 130

1. A1 = POSITIVE
2. A2 = negative
2. A3 = negative

Front 131

Other Subgroup of A are rare, but contain what ratio when it comes to A antigen and H antigen

Back 131

less A antigen and more H antigen

Front 132

lack of H is genetically called

Back 132

hh = Bombay phenotype

Front 133

hh has no _____ which is needed for attachment of A or B sugars, what reaction will happen Bombay forward typing

Back 133

has no fucose
Bombay forward typing will look like O type

Front 134

Anti-H (ulex europaeus) will react how with Bombay cells & O cells

Back 134

Bombay cells = neg aggltx
O cells = positive aggtlx

Front 135

Se (secretor) gene allows which expression in saliva (4)

Back 135

A, B, H and Le b in saliva

Front 136

these plasma antigens which absorb onto red cells as individual matures, who am I

Back 136

Le antigens

Front 137

Antigens in the Lewis (Le) blood grp system do not develop as integral part of the RBC membrane but are

Back 137

ADSORBED by the RBC from the surrounding plasma (develops gradually)

Front 138

reagent Anti-A & Anti-B are designed so testing is performed at what temp

Back 138

room temp

Front 139

unknown cells + antisera = no aggltx what does that mean

Back 139

no aggltx = cells lack antigen to which antisera (reagent antibody) corresponds

Front 140

unknown cells + antisera = aggltx
what does that mean

Back 140

cells posses antigen to which antisera corresponds

Front 141

opt reactivity of serum Anti-A and anti-B is

Back 141

4c

Front 142

serum grp/reverse grouping - these cells is performed at **ROOM TEMP w/ saline suspended known group

Back 142

A1 and B red cells

Front 143

unknown serum + reagent red cells - NO aggltn
what does that mean

Back 143

serum lack antibody to antigen on red cell

Front 144

unknown serum + reagent red cells - aggltn
what does that mean

Back 144

serum has antibody to antigen on red cells

Front 145

what is saline replacement and what does it differentiate

Back 145

saline replacement can diff ROULEAUX from AGGLUTINATION
Rx - "stack of coins" appearance, when serum in the test mixture is replaced with saline, the cells dissociated. in assessing Rx formtx knowledge of the pat's diagnosis & serum protein content & proportions is helpful

Front 146

what can rouleaux formation be associated with (disease)

Back 146

multiple myeloma & waldernstrom's macroglobulinemia

Front 147

I am the MOST immunogenic of all blood group antigens

Back 147

D

Front 148

D grouping (Rh type) is based on what

Back 148

presence or absence of D when tested with anti-D

Front 149

When is weak D required

Back 149

on DONORS and OB patients

Front 150

Weak D is consider what positive

Back 150

D positive

Front 151

D reactive at which phase only

Back 151

antiglobulin phase only

Front 152

monoclonal/polyclonal Anti-D - is separate D control necessary

Back 152

separate D control not necessary

Front 153

monoclonal/polyclonal Anti-D - control is a _____ reaction with anti-A or anti-B in ABO cell grouping (patient A & B cells not spontaneously agglutinating)

Back 153

control is a NEGATIVE reaction

Front 154

monoclonal/polyclonal Anti-D - if patient is AB positive, what controls (3) must be used

Back 154

6-8 % albumin control
autocontrol or
DAT

Front 155

D controls are used with high protein

Back 155

anti-D reagents

Front 156

D controls what does it mean when its POSITIVE or when its NEGATIVE

Back 156

if positive - repeat with another type of anti-D (monoclonal, chemically modified or saline)

must be negative for D negative grping to be valid

Front 157

D controls - must contain same media as anti-D reagent without

Back 157

the anti-D (use same manufacturer's control)

Front 158

D controls - ensures aggltnx w/ anti-D reagent is use to presence of F antigen and NOT

Back 158

due to proteins in reagents or aggltnx of in vivo antibody coated cells (POSITIVE DAT)

Front 159

D controls - most common cause of positive D control is

Back 159

a positive DAT

Front 160

since Rh structure is integral part of the RBC membrane, what does it mean to have a Rh null & what is it associated with

Back 160

no D, C, E, c or e antigens; cells have associated hemolytic anemia

Front 161

___ is missing one or more of normal Rh alleles

Back 161

Deleted cells (--D--)

Front 162

what is the resolution techx for the following problems with red cells: rouleaux - failure to wash

Back 162

repeat with SALINE WASHED cell

Front 163

what is the resolution techx for the following problems with red cells: mixture of cell types (ex: A or B transfused with O

Back 163

check transfuse history

Front 164

what is the resolution techx for the following problems with red cells: subgroups (ex: A2 with or without anti-A1)

Back 164

test with Anti-A1 for A subgroups

Front 165

what is the resolution techx for the following problems with red cells: unusual genotypes (ex: bombay)

Back 165

test with Anti-H for Bombay (bombay lacks H antigen & cells will NOT AGGLTNX with anti-H, Bombay serum will agglutinate A1 & B cells as well as Group O screening cells

Front 166

what is the resolution techx for the following problems with red cells: disease process (ex: leukemia or bacteria - acq B phenomenon)

Back 166

check patient diagnosis

Front 167

what is the resolution for the following problems with serum: rouleaux due to increase serum proteins (ex: Waldenstrom's or MM)

Back 167

saline replacement

Front 168

what is the resolution for the following problems with serum: room temp or cold reacting antibody (H, I, M, N, P1 or Lewis or anti-A1 in an A2 or A2B indvdl) reacting with their corresponding antigens on reverse cells

Back 168

mini cold screen or panel (test at lower temp)

Front 169

what is the resolution for the following problems with serum: age-elderly (antibody produce is decreased) or newborn (antibody produce has not reached opt levels, missing antibodies) (2)

Back 169

check patient age, mini cold panel (may enhance serum Anti-A or Anti-B so interpretation will agree with cell grouping)

Front 170

what is the resolution for the following problems with serum: compromised immune system (ex: a/hypogrammaglobulinemia) (2)

Back 170

check patient diagnosis, mini cold panel/screen

Front 171

what blood group system am I - plasma antigen that adsorb onto RBCs, not alleles

Back 171

Lewis

Front 172

what blood group system am I - not on cord cells

Back 172

Lewis

Front 173

what blood group system am I - my antibodies DO NOT cause HDN (i'm not on fetal cells & my antibodies are usually IGM - though I can be hemolytic

Back 173

Lewis
IgM antibody - can be hemolytic, usually seen in Le (a-b-) persons

Front 174

what blood group system am I - my antibodies are often seen in pregnant woman who may temporarily become me

Back 174

Le (a-b-) Lewis

Front 175

what blood group system am I - absent or week on cord cells

Back 175

I/i

Front 176

what blood group system am I - ___ convert to ___ as infant matures due to branching of carbohydrate chains, not alleles (what do I look like when I am an Adult and when I am an Infant?)

Back 176

I/i
Infant - i positive/ I negative
Adult - I positive, i negative

Front 177

what blood group system am I - IgM antibody that reacts with ALL adults cells

Back 177

Antibody I except rare i adult

Front 178

what blood group system am I - to detect me you have to do
1. an autoadsorption (if not recently transfused) or allogenic adsorption
2, RESt adsorption
3. prewarmig serum & using IgG AHG instead of polyspecific

Back 178

Antibody I

Front 179

what blood group system am I - my antigen strength deteriorates upon storage

Back 179

P1 antigen

Front 180

what blood group system am I - IgM cold antibody can be neutralized to reveal other clinically significant ALLO-ANTIBODIES (my substance in hyadatid cyst fluid)

Back 180

Anti-P1

Front 181

what blood group system am I - frequently the specificity of the biphasic Donath-Landsteiner antibody found in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

Back 181

Anti-P

Front 182

what blood group system am I - my antibody reacts with all P or P1 positive cells

Back 182

Anti-P

Front 183

what blood group system am I - my antigens are CO DOMINANT alleles

Back 183

M and N

Front 184

what blood group system am I - my antibodies usually cold IgM but NO HDN

Back 184

Antibody M and N

Front 185

what blood group system am I - my antibody often shows dosage (property where cells having a homo expression of antigen as opposed to hete cells)

Back 185

Antibodyy M and N

Front 186

what blood group system am I - my antibodies WILL NOT react to emz treated cells (my antigens are destroyed by emz)

Back 186

Antibodyy M and N

Front 187

what blood group system am I - my antibodies are IgG can cause HDN & may require acidification of serum to identify

Back 187

Antibodyy M

Front 188

what blood group system am I - what kind of immunoglobin am I: Anti-S and anti-s

Back 188

IGG

Front 189

what blood group system am I - my antibody form by black pple who lack S, s and U and which group of immunoglobins & antibody do I belong to

Back 189

Anti-U and IGG

Front 190

what blood group system am I - beside M and N, we are also CODOMINANT alleles

Back 190

K and K (cellano)

Front 191

what blood group system am I: my antigens are second most immunogenic (next to D)

Back 191

K antigen

Front 192

what blood group system am I: what percentage are K antigen negative in the population

Back 192

91% are K negative

Front 193

what blood group system am I: my antigens are inactivated w/ 2-ME, DTT or AET and I am an IGG

Back 193

K

Front 194

what blood group system am I: besides M and N, K and k - we are also codominant allelets

Back 194

Jka and Jkb (Kidd)

Front 195

what blood group system am I: we are Igg, react STRONGER w/ EMZ treated cells

Back 195

Antibody Jka and Jkb (Kidd)

Front 196

what blood group system am I: our titer rise & fall rapidly and associated with delay transfusion reactions

Back 196

Antibody Jka and Jkb (Kidd)

Front 197

what blood group system am I: we are found in 68% of Blacks

Back 197

Fy (a-b-): duffy which are also CODOMINANT ALLELES

Front 198

what blood group system am I: our antigens are destroy by emz

Back 198

Fy (a-b-): duffy

Front 199

what blood group system am I: what can you tell me about antigen typing Fy (a+b-) and how it relates to whites and black

Back 199

white - homo for Fya (Fya Fya)
blacks - heter for Fya (FyaFy-) --dosage problem

Front 200

what blood group system am I: our antibodies are IgG, weak examples that show dosage and have negative reaction w/ emz treated cells

Back 200

antibody Fya & Fyb (Duffy)

Front 201

try to name 7 IgM antibodies

Back 201

Anti-
I, H
M, N
P1
Lea, Leb

Front 202

try to name 12 IGG antibodies

Back 202

Anti-
D
C, c
E, e
M (some)
K, k
Fya, Fyb
Jka, Jkb

Front 203

name 4 interesting thing about Paternity testing

Back 203

1. maternity is assumed
2. you may have problems that inc ABO and or D grouping
3. PT requires chain of sample custody that must be adhere to in legal cases

Front 204

RBCs blood group with _____ ______ can be used for parentage testing along with HLA system & DNA analysis

Back 204

codominant alleles

Front 205

____ _____ marker present in child, ABSENT from father and mother

Back 205

direct exclusion

dad: K k
mom: Kk
baby: KK

Front 206

____ _____ child lacks a marker that is alleged father must transmit

Back 206

indirect exclusion

Front 207

Paternity test example of: Direct
(when its positive for the Dad DNA)

Back 207

Anti-K Anti-k
Alleged father + 0
Mom + 0
baby + +

Front 208

Paternity test example of: Indirect (baby has same positive with MOM)

Back 208

Anti-K Anti-k
Alleged Dad + 0
Mom 0 +
baby 0 +

Front 209

is the alleged father, excluded
Father: KK
Mom: kk
baby: Kk

Back 209

the alleged father is NOT excluded

Front 210

which emz enhancement am I:
1. decrease NET SURFACE CHARGE
2. ONLY increase AB uptake if under low ionic conditions
2. Rh AB may show @37c

Back 210

albumin (bovine)

Front 211

which emz enhancement am I:
1. INCREASE AB uptake which allows decrease in incubation time
2. removes SIALIC ACID which decrease negative surface charge and promote cell aggltnx
3. increase reactivity of Rh, Kidd & Lewis AB
4. usually increase WARM & COLD autoAB
5. DESTROYS: M, N,S, Fya & Fyb antigents

Back 211

Low ionic strength saline (liss) Emz: bromelin, ficin, papain & trypsin)

Front 212

which emz enhancement am I:
1. INCREASE AB activity, decrease incubation time
2. cause reversible cell aggregation
3. if AG-AB RXT occurs during aggregation, this aggltnx does not reverse

Back 212

polybrene

Front 213

which emz enhancement am I:
1. INCREASE AB uptake
2. remove WATER which increase antibody concentration which promotes antibody uptake

Back 213

polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Front 214

how do IGGs, RBC membrane, complement protein related to Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) --in VIVO

Back 214

1. in certain disease & conditions, pat's blood contains IGG (2): IgG AlloAB and IgG AutoAB that binds to RBC membrane & circulating RBC
2. also COMPLEMENT PROTEIN may subsequently bind to bound antibodies
3. DAT---> is used to detect the AB &/OR COMPLEMENT protein that bound to the surface of RBC

Front 215

what is IAT and when is it used

Back 215

indirect aggltnx test is use in prenatal testing of pregnant woman & detect very low concentrations of antibodies present in a patient's plasma/serum prior to a blood transfusion
DETECTS: ANTIBODIES against RBC that are present unbound in pat's serum (antigenicity)

Front 216

what are the steps in IAT (5)

Back 216

1. AB attaches to corresponding AG on red cells @37c
2. SALINE WASH (excess serum/AB removed)
3. + AHG (which will bind to AB on the cells)
4. POSITIVE rtx = agglutnx or DECREASE in size of button due to hemolysis @37c
5. + CHECK CELLS - (IgG sensitive cells), these should be POSITIVE indicating AHG was actually added in the final step & was not NEUTRALIZED

Front 217

what happens in IAT if you fail to wash cells adequately

Back 217

failure to adequately wash ells ma cause a FALSE NEGATIVE --human globulin, ex: antibodies protein etc..not wash away will NEUTRALIZE the AHG

Front 218

when emz treated & untreated cell which antigens are ENHANCED (3)

Back 218

1. Kidd
2. I
3. some Rh (NOT D)

Front 219

when emz treated & untreated cell which antigens are DESTROYED (4)

Back 219

1. Duffy
2. M
3. N
4. S

Front 220

when emz treated & untreated cell which antigens show DOSAGE (5)

Back 220

1. Rh (other than D)
2. M
3. N
4. Kidd (JKa and JKb)
5. Duffy (Fya and Fyb)

Front 221

Autocontrol - if POSITIVE may indicate (2)

Back 221

1. delay transfusion reaction
2. if POSITIVE along with all panel cells, AUTOANTIBODY indicated

Front 222

in DAT, what type of tube is the sample of choice & why

Back 222

EDTA because it chelates CA++ preventing complement activation by plasma antibody (cause a FALSE POSITIVE DAT)

Front 223

AUTOimmune or ALLOimmue hemolytic anemia - warm autoantibodies (WAIHA)

Back 223

autoimmune

Front 224

AUTOimmune or ALLOimmue hemolytic anemia - cold hemagglutinin (CHD)

Back 224

autoimmune

Front 225

AUTOimmune or ALLOimmue hemolytic anemia - mixed type of AIHA (autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

Back 225

autoimmune

Front 226

AUTOimmune or ALLOimmue hemolytic anemia - paroxysmal cold hemoglobinura (PCH)

Back 226

autoimmune

Front 227

AUTOimmune or ALLOimmue hemolytic anemia - HDN & transfusion reaction

Back 227

ALLOimmune hemolytic anemia

Front 228

warm autoantibodies hemolytic anemia is caused by what protein coating red cell is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 228

IGG and or complement

Front 229

cold hemagglutinin disease (CHD) is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 229

complement

Front 230

mixed type of AIHA is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 230

IGG and or complement

Front 231

drug induced hemolytic anemia (DIHA) is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 231

IGG and or complement

Front 232

HDN is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 232

IgG

Front 233

Transfusion reaction is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 233

IgG

Front 234

name 4 things about AHG reagents

Back 234

1. monoclonal/polyclonal
2. polyspeicific (anti-IGG & anti-C3B or C3D)
3. Anti-IgG
4. Anti-complement

Front 235

why should you avoid refrigerating a red top tube before performing DAT

Back 235

--Auto anti-I may attach to I antigen present on red cell & cause FALSE POSITIVE DAT---this will also cause a FALSE NEGATIVE COLD AGGLUTININ TITER since that test measure the anti-I (cold agglutinin) in serum

Front 236

AHG reagents - what is blended/in chemical wise in Polyclonial and Monoclonal

Back 236

Poly - inject animal w/ purified IgG, IgA, IgM, C3 or C4
Mono - hybridoma derived

Front 237

Polyspeicific

Back 237

antibody to human IgG & C3d component of complement, other complement components may be present

Front 238

Monospeicific

Back 238

antibody to IgG or to C3b, C3d

Front 239

Perform ___(DAT/IAT) with polyspeicific to screen & monospeicific to characterize the globulin

Back 239

DAT

Front 240

Perform ___(DAT/IAT) with monospeicific anti-IgG to avoid cold, complement binding antibodies

Back 240

IAT

Front 241

why do we use check cells for

Back 241

to confirm all negative antiglobulin test in antibody detection & compatibility testing --- when using anti-IgG; confirm AHG added & not neutralized (insufficient removal of serum proteins prior to addition of AHG)

Front 242

what is the principle of ELUTION

Back 242

principle based on BREAKING antigen-antibody bond, REMOVING antibody from cell surface

Front 243

elution is used to determine what

Back 243

use to determine antibody specificity in cases of positive DAT due to IgG antibody(ies) ex: HDN & transfusion reactions

Front 244

name 2 types of elution method

Back 244

1. Lui freeze thaw & heat - ABO antibodies
2. Low pH acid, digitonin acid, cold acid, & dichloromethane -- all antibodies

Front 245

_____ _____ can bind with antibody to inhibit a reaction with RBCs, allow detection of ALLOANTIBDOIES "masked" by the antibodies

Back 245

soluble antigens

Front 246

where can you find the following antibodies: Lewis substance

Back 246

saliva

Front 247

where can you find the following antibodies: P1 substance

Back 247

hydatid cyst fluid

Front 248

warm autoantibodies hemolytic anemia is caused by what protein coating red cell is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 248

IGG and or complement

Front 249

cold hemagglutinin disease (CHD) is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 249

complement

Front 250

mixed type of AIHA is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 250

IGG and or complement

Front 251

drug induced hemolytic anemia (DIHA) is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 251

IGG and or complement

Front 252

HDN is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 252

IgG

Front 253

Transfusion reaction is caused by what protein coating red cell

Back 253

IgG

Front 254

name 4 things about AHG reagents

Back 254

1. monoclonal/polyclonal
2. polyspeicific (anti-IGG & anti-C3B or C3D)
3. Anti-IgG
4. Anti-complement

Front 255

why should you avoid refrigerating a red top tube before performing DAT

Back 255

--Auto anti-I may attach to I antigen present on red cell & cause FALSE POSITIVE DAT---this will also cause a FALSE NEGATIVE COLD AGGLUTININ TITER since that test measure the anti-I (cold agglutinin) in serum

Front 256

AHG reagents - what is blended/in chemical wise in Polyclonial and Monoclonal

Back 256

Poly - inject animal w/ purified IgG, IgA, IgM, C3 or C4
Mono - hybridoma derived

Front 257

Polyspeicific

Back 257

antibody to human IgG & C3d component of complement, other complement components may be present

Front 258

Monospeicific

Back 258

antibody to IgG or to C3b, C3d

Front 259

Perform ___(DAT/IAT) with polyspeicific to screen & monospeicific to characterize the globulin

Back 259

DAT

Front 260

Perform ___(DAT/IAT) with monospeicific anti-IgG to avoid cold, complement binding antibodies

Back 260

IAT

Front 261

why do we use check cells for

Back 261

to confirm all negative antiglobulin test in antibody detection & compatibility testing --- when using anti-IgG; confirm AHG added & not neutralized (insufficient removal of serum proteins prior to addition of AHG)

Front 262

what is the principle of ELUTION

Back 262

principle based on BREAKING antigen-antibody bond, REMOVING antibody from cell surface

Front 263

elution is used to determine what

Back 263

use to determine antibody specificity in cases of positive DAT due to IgG antibody(ies) ex: HDN & transfusion reactions

Front 264

name 2 types of elution method

Back 264

1. Lui freeze thaw & heat - ABO antibodies
2. Low pH acid, digitonin acid, cold acid, & dichloromethane -- all antibodies

Front 265

_____ _____ can bind with antibody to inhibit a reaction with RBCs, allow detection of ALLOANTIBDOIES "masked" by the antibodies

Back 265

soluble antigens

Front 266

where can you find the following antibodies: Lewis substance

Back 266

saliva

Front 267

where can you find the following antibodies: P1 substance

Back 267

hydatid cyst fluid & pigeon egg whites

Front 268

where can you find the following antibodies: Sda substance

Back 268

most abundant in urine

Front 269

where can you find the following antibodies: ABH sugars

Back 269

inhibit anti-A, B, H

Front 270

where can you find the following antibodies: Chido & Rogers substance

Back 270

epitopes of C4 (complement)

Front 271

how does it inactivation Sulfhydryl reagents - AET & DTT

Back 271

destroys or weakens Kell system

Front 272

how does it inactivation Sulfhydryl reagents - ZZAP - emz + DTT

Back 272

Kell system & those destroyed by emz

Front 273

how does it inactivation Sulfhydryl reagents - DTT & 2-ME

Back 273

destroys or diminish activity of IgM antibodies

Front 274

name 4 times when Adsorption is used

Back 274

1. separate multiple AB
2. remove AUTOantibody - reveals alloantibody "masked" by autoantibody
3. confirm antigen existence on RBC
4. confirm antibody specificity

Front 275

what is autologous adsorption

Back 275

(pat own serum + cell) can be used for patient not recently transfused

Front 276

what is ALLOGENEIC adsorption

Back 276

(patient serum + other cells) can be used on patients recently transfused

Front 277

for pretransfusion testing, what test are required (3) and how long do you have to keep the tube after transfusion

Back 277

1. ABO & D grouping
2. Antibody screen
3. Crx match
4. autocontrol not required

7 Days

Front 278

when crossmatching, which is which when it comes to pat serum or cell to donor serum or cell

Back 278

patient serum react with donor cells

Front 279

antigen typing -- patient with clinically significant antibodies should receive

Back 279

antigen NEGATIVE units

Front 280

antigen typing -- confirm antigen negative status by

Back 280

reacting cells with commercial preparation of the antibody

Front 281

antigen typing -- what is the Positive control

Back 281

heter cell (ex: anti-K tested with a Kk cell rather than a KK cell)

Front 282

antigen typing -- what is the Negative control

Back 282

cell without antigen (ex: anti-K test with kk cell)

Front 283

can a D negative get D positive

Back 283

yes - in emergency if no D negative is available (follow with RhIg, if possible)

Front 284

remember this!

Back 284

decide what ABO antibody (ies) are in the patient's plasma, any red cell LACKING those ANTIGEN will be compatible

Front 285

Neonatal crx match -- whats the 2 initial test

Back 285

ABO & D grouping

Front 286

Neonatal crx match -- when is ABO serum grouping not required

Back 286

ABO serum grouping is not required unless giving ABO type not compatible with MOTHER

Front 287

Neonatal crx match -- is crx match necessary if initial antibody screen negative using infant or maternal serum/plasma & group O is given

Back 287

no crx match necessary

Front 288

Neonatal crx match -- do you have to repeat test for infant less than 4 months for any one hospital visit

Back 288

no

Front 289

Neonatal crx match -- in major institutions, what 1 unit of blood is used for neonates

Back 289

1 - O negative - aliquots are taken through a sterile docking device so expirations date is not altered

Front 290

Neonatal crx match -- for infants weighing _____ at birth, blood products with reduced risk of CMV transmission should be used if the mother is CMV negative or CMV status is unknown

Back 290

<1200 g

Front 291

what is the most common transfusion reaction (intravascular hemolytic transfx rtx)

Back 291

fever - accompanied by chills, low back pain, anxiety

Front 292

name 4 physiological events that can happen in a transfusion reaction (intravascular hemolytic transfx rtx)

Back 292

1. hemoglobinemia
2. hemoglobinuria
3. hyperbilirubinemia
4. can result to kidney failure & death

Front 293

extravascular hemolytic transfx rtx -- name 4 examples of clinically significant antibodies that usually occurs after transfusion completed

Back 293

Rh
Kell
Kidd
Duffy

Front 294

extravascular hemolytic transfx rtx -- name some 4 examples that can occur

Back 294

1. urticarial
2. febrile hemolytic
3. allergic reactions
4. transfused related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Front 295

based on delay transfusion reactions, what can one expect to happen to
1. time span
2. change in HGB
3. DAT
4. by which antibody

Back 295

1. hours to day after transfusion
2. indicated by NO rise or a DECREASE in HGB after transfusion
3. Positive DAT (key characteristics)
4. often due to KIDD antibody

Front 296

name some of urticaral symptoms & treatment and what is it caused by

Back 296

1. itching & hives
2. treatment - if urticaria only symptom give antihistamine & transfusion may continue
3. caused by DONOR ANTIBODIES to soluble plasma antigens

Front 297

what is febrile nonhemolytic (FNH) and name three things that can cause it

Back 297

1. temp rise ass w/ transfusion
2. Due to:
a. recipient preformed antibodies reacting with DONOR LYMPHOCYTES, GRANULOCYTE, or PLATELES
b. infusion of CYTOKINES in donor bag from storage
c. LEUKOCYTE REDUCED BLOOD COMPONENTS - prestorage leukoreduction prevents cytokines buildup

Front 298

which immunoglobulin cz allergic reactions recipient preformed ___ antibodies to soluble subtx in plasma

Back 298

IGE

Front 299

allergic reactions if severe enough - what are the symptoms

Back 299

systemic symptoms including hypotension, shock & sometimes death

Front 300

describe the classical anaphylaxis & what is the cure/treatment

Back 300

IgA deficient patient w/ anti-IgA reacting with IgA donor plasm
treatment: give washed cells or plasma components from IgA deficient donors

Front 301

what is transfuse related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Back 301

acute respiratory insufficiency & bilateral pulmonary edema by x-ray without cardiac failure, includes chills, fever & hypotension

Front 302

donor antibodies recipient HLA or neutrophil antigen; rarely, recipient antibodies to transfused _____

Back 302

granulocytes

Front 303

transfusion reaction - determine the type from the following cause: antibody to RBC antigens (usually ABO)

Back 303

hemolytic

Front 304

determine the type from the following cause transfusion reaction: antibody to wbc/plt antigens/preferred cytokines

Back 304

febrile

Front 305

transfusion reaction: what happens when an antibody to soluble antigen is mixed in a donor plasma, what happens to the patient

Back 305

urticarial

Front 306

transfusion reaction - determine the type from the following cause: anti-IgA

Back 306

anaphylatic

Front 307

transfusion reaction - determine the type from the following cause: donor antibody to recipient HLA or neut antigens

Back 307

transfusion related acute lung injury

Front 308

keep in mind:
Positive + hemolysis &
Negative -- Dat:

Back 308

- patient with sickle cell crisis
- thalassemia or G6PD deficient pat
- unit overheated/frozen
- all cells hemolyzed

Front 309

___ contamination is now the most common since current tests detect most viruses, what else must be tested for prior to issuing

Back 309

all PLATELETS must be tested for bacterial contamination before issue

Front 310

name some other transfuion transmitted infections:

Back 310

HBV, HCV
HIV, HTLV
CMV, EBV
Babesiosis, Malaria, Chagas dz & West Nile virus

Front 311

what is a "Look back"

Back 311

identification of indvdl who have received seronegative or untested blood from donor later found to be infected

Front 312

HDN - where do infants inherit antigen from

Back 312

from biological father

Front 313

HDN - mother has corresponding ___ antibody (sensitized by previous pregnancies or transfusion)

Back 313

IgG antibodies

Front 314

HDN - maternal ____ cross the placenta & coats fetal cells

Back 314

material antibodies

Front 315

HDN - ___ has affinity for lipid rich layers of skin & brain and is potent neurotoxin causing brain damage (kernicterus)

Back 315

bilirubin

Front 316

ABO or RH cause:
1. increase Spherocytes
2. DAT weak or negative
3. Delayed jaundice
4. Bili rarely > 15 mg%
5. 1st prgncy: usually O mother with AB baby

Back 316

ABO

Front 317

ABO or RH cause:
1. increase Reticulocytes
2. DAT +
3. immediate jaundice
4. Bili often >20 mg %
5. usually not 1st prgncy: D neg mom w/ D pos baby

Back 317

Rh

Front 318

in which type of HDN (rh or ABO caused) would an exchange transfusion be more likely needed and why

Back 318

RH because bili is neurotoxic to the brain & levels >20 mg% (lower in premies) can lead to mental retardation &/or death

Front 319

HDN intrauterine transfusion - supplies antigen ___ blood

Back 319

negative blood

Front 320

HDN intrauterine transfusion unit selection - name 6 criteria

Back 320

1. Grp O, D negative
2. Negative for antigen to which maternal anitbody directed (comp wi/ maternal antibody)
3. must be IRRADIATED
4. donor = CMW SERONEGATIVE or LEUKOREDUCED unit if mother status CMV negative or unknown
5. should be HGB S negative
6. should be FRESH <3 days

Front 321

HDN exchange transfusion -- what does it replace

Back 321

it replaces antibody coated cells (which would increase bili level if destroyed) with antigen negative cells

Front 322

HDN exchange transfusion -- what does it reduces

Back 322

maternal antibody & bili levels

Front 323

HDN exchange transfusion -- what does it remove

Back 323

removal antibody coated cells which would increase bili levels when destroyed

Front 324

HDN exchange transfusion -- name 3 acceptable samples for crx match

Back 324

1. maternal sample - highest concentration of maternal antibody
2. eluate from infant's cell
3. infant serum

Front 325

HDN exchange transfusion -- what is the unit selection criteria (5)

Back 325

1. Grp O, if ABO HDN, D neg, if Rh HDN
2. Negative for antigen to which maternal antibody directed (comp w/ mom antibody)
3. < 5 days old
4. HGB S = negative
5. should be IRRADIATED