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414 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the three objectives of first aid?
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The three objectives of first aid are to prevent further injury, infection, and the loss of life.
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The fundamental elements of First Aid can be categorized into how many main areas?
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Eight main areas..
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What are the eight main areas that First Aid are categorized in?
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Bleeding, the four methods of controlling bleeding are direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and use of a tourniquet as a last resort.
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What is a pressure point?
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A pressure point is a point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone.
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How can you reduce or stop the flow of blood?
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You can reduce or stop blood flow to areas of the body by applying physical pressure to this point with the fingers or with the heel of the hand.
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How many principal pressure pointss are on each side of the body.
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11 pressure points for a total of 22.
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Where are the 11 pressure points located?
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Superficial temporal artery (temple)
- Facial artery (jaw) - Common carotid artery (neck) - Subclavian artery (collar bone) - Brachial artery (inner upper arm) - Brachial artery (inner elbow) - Radial/Ulnar artery (wrist) - Femoral artery (upper thigh) - Iliac artery (groin) - Popliteal artery (knee) - Anterior/posterior tibial artery (ankle) |
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What are the three classifications of burns?
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First, second, and third degree.
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What is the classification of a first degree burn?
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Produces redness, warmth and mild pain
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What is the classification of a second degree burn?
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Causes red, blistered skin and severe pain.
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What is the classification of a third degree burn?
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Destroys tissue, skin and bone in severe cases, however severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed.
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What are the two types of fractures
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The two types of fractures are "closed/simple" or "open/compound"
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What is the difference between a closed/simple fracture and an open/compound fracture?
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Closed/simple is a broken bone without a break in the skin, whereas open/compound has a break in the skin with possible bone protrusion.
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What is electric shock?
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Electric shock is when a person comes into contact with an electric energy source shock occurs; the wide variety of injuries that can result from an electrical shock range from little or no evidence of injury to severe trauma with associated cardiac arrest.
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What is an indication of an obstructed airway?
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Indications of an airway obstruction are inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the skin turning a bluish color.
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How many heat related injuries are there?
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There are two heat related injuries.
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What are the two heat related injuries that the U.S. Navy operates in?
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Heat exhaustion and Heat stroke,
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What is heat exhaustion?
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A serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs. The skin is cool, moist, and clammy and the pupils are dilated. Body temperature may be normal or high; the victim is usually sweating profusely.
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What is heat stroke?
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A very serious condition caused by a breakdown of the sweating mechanism of the body. The victim is unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup. Symptoms may include hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse.
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How many types of cold weather injuries are there?
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There are 3 types of cold weather injuries.
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What are the three types of cold weather injuries?
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Hypothermia, superficial frostbite, and deep frostbite.
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What is hypothermia?
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A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. The victim may appear pale and unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff.
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What is superficial frostbite?
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Superficial frostbite is when ice crystals are forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower
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What is deep frostbite?
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Develops when ice crystals are forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
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What is shock?
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This is a life-threatening medical condition whereby the body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout the body as a result of severe injury or illness
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How many types of shock are there?
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There are 5 types of shock.
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What are the 5 types of shock?
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Septic shock, anaphylactic shock, cardiogenic shock, hypovolemic shock, and neurogenic shock.
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What is septic shock?
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Results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins. Common causes of this are pneumonia, intra-abdominal infections (such as a ruptured appendix) and meningitis.
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What is anaphylactic shock?
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A type of severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction. Causes include allergy to insect stings, medicines or foods (nuts, berries, seafood) etc..
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What is cardiogenic shock?
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Occurs when the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body. This can be the end result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure.
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What is hypovolemic shock?
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Caused by severe blood and fluid loss, such as from traumatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body
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What is neurogenic shock?
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Caused by spinal cord injury, usually as a result of a traumatic accident or injury.
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What is CPR?
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CPR is a combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest.
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When cardiac arrest occurs the use of CPR can support what?
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A small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to ―buy time‖ until normal heart function is restored.
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True or False. The steps for CPR have changed from the A/B/C method or Airway/ Breathing/ Circulation to C/A/B or Circulation/ Airway/ Breathing.
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True
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Why were the steps for CPR changed from A/ B/ C to C/ A/ B?
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This change was due to the recognition of the importance chest compressions have on successful victim resuscitation. Breath/ respiratory rate and pulse detection are very difficult and unreliable even for the skilled medical responders as cardiac arrest, gasping, and individual victim characteristics influence these.
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True or Fasle. All rescuers should be certified and refer to the current procedures as published by the American Heart Association (AHA) and American Red Cross (ARC).
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True
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What does successful resuscitation following cardiac arrest require?
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Successful resuscitation following cardiac arrest requires an integrated set of coordinated actions referred to as the survival chain.
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What is key to survival for victims of cardiac arrest?
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The key to survival for victims of cardiac arrest is the prompt recognition of the arrest and immediate activation of the emergency response system.
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How many steps are there in the survival chain?
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There are 6 survival chain steps.
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What are the six survival chain steps?
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1. Recognition/activation of CPR. 2. Chest compressions. 3. AED/defibrillator 4. Rapid defibrillation 5. Effective advanced life support (EMT’s, ambulance) 6. Integrated post-cardiac arrest care
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What is ORM?
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ORM is a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available. ORM is a tool for both on and off duty; it encompasses a 5 step process that requires constant review for new hazards or engineering controls available.
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How many steps are there in the ORM process?
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There are 5 steps.
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What are the 5 steps in the ORM process?
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1. Identify hazards 2. ***** hazards 3. Make Risk Decisions 4. Implement controls 5. Supervise
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In the ORM process, what does identify hazards mean?
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Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis. Next, conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
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In the ORM process, what does ***** hazards mean?
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Assess hazards. For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing hazards.
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In the ORM process, what does make risk decisions mean?
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Develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain of command.
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In the ORM process, what does implement controls mean?
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The following measures can be used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk; Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel protective equipment.
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In the ORM process, what does supervise mean?
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Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes, which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.
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How many different classes of mishaps are identified by the Naval Safety Program?
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Three different classes.
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What are the 3 different classes that are mishaps identified by the Naval Safety Program?
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Class A, class B, and class C.
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What is a Class A mishap?
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The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $2,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
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What is a Class B mishap?
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The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $500,000 or more, but less than $2,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
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What is a Class C mishap?
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The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $50,000 or more, but less than $500,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disability at any time (lost time case). For reporting purposes, reportable lost workday Class C mishaps are those which result in 5 or more lost workdays beyond the date of injury or onset of illness (exceptions apply).
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What was established as a last line of defense in the event of equipment breakdown, failure, misuse to include hazardous environments and working conditions that would immediately expose the worker to a hazard?
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The Personal Protective Equipment program was established.
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True or false. The Personal Protective Equipment program methos is a last resort after trying to eliminate hazards through the preferred method of engineering controls.
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True
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Name 6 examples of PPE.
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1. Cranials 2. Eye protection 3. Hearing Protection 4. Impact protection 5. Gloves 6. Foot protection
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Describe cranials in regards to the PPE program.
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Incorporate impact protection, hearing protection and eye protection. Proper fit and wear are essential to the efficiency of this piece of PPE.
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Describe eye protection in regards to the PPE program.
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Impact resistant goggles or chemical goggles
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Describe hearing protection in regards to the PPE program.
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Soft disposable, earmuffs.
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Describe impact protection in regards to the PPE program.
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Hard Plastic shells, with foam liner.
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Describe gloves in regards to the PPE program.
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Protect the worker from a wide variety of conditions. Selection of appropriate hand protection is essential and is based on the application the individual will be involved in. Examples are: leather, rubber, welders.
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Describe foot protection in regards to the PPE program.
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Naval Aviation operates in a highly industrial environment and the need for foot protection is essential due to the wide variety of tasks that individuals could be tasked with on a daily basis. The minimum protective footwear requirements for Naval Aviation are; steel toed boots, ANSI approved, and FOD free soles.
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True or false. U.S. forces do not face a potential CBR threat across a broad range of military operations
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False. U.S. forces face a potential CBR threat across a broad range of military operations
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What does the term "NBC environment" include?
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A deliberate or accidental employment or threat of NBC weapons attack with other CBR materials, including toxic industrial materials.
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What does the employment and threat of NBC weapons and other toxic materials pose?
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Unique challenges to U.S. military operations worldwide.
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What is Chemical Warfare?
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The employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect.
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How many types of chemical agents are there?
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There are 4 types of chemical agents.
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What is a nerve agent?
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Liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue. Examples are Sarin (GB), Tabun (GA), SOMAN (GD), and VX.
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What is a blister agent?
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Liquid or solid casualty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and/or death. Examples are Distilled mustard (HD), Lewisite (L), Phosgene Oxime (CX), and Levinstein Mustard (HL).
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What is a blood agent?
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Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood. Examples are Hydrogen Cyanide (AC), Cyanogen Chloride (CK), and Arsine (SA).
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What is a choking agent?
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Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache. The lungs can become filled with fluid, making the victim feel as if they are drowning, causing breathing to become rapid and shallow. Examples are Phosgene (CG) and Diphosgene.
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What is M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper?
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Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does not detect chemical agent vapors.
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What is an Atropine/2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector?
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Used as specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.
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What is Biological Warfare?
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Biological Warfare is the use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces is.
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What is the basic division in biological agents?
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The basic division in biological agents is between pathogens and toxins.
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What are pathogens?
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The pathogens that could be used as biological agents include bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa and prions.
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What are toxins?
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The categorization of toxins is based on the organisms (source) that produce them and the physiological affects the toxins cause in humans.
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What are mycotoxins?
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The major groupings by source are mycotoxins (which are from fungi), bacterial toxins, algal toxins, animal venoms and plant toxins
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What is (IPE)?
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Individual Protective Equipment
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What is IPE used for?
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Protecting from Chemical/Biological warfare.
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What does the IPE consist of
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Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filter), Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG), Chemical protective gloves and liners, Chemical protective overboots and laces, Skin decontamination kit
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What is radiological warfare?
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the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life.
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What are the five types of nuclear explosions?
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High altitude air burst, Air burst, Surface burst, Shallow underwater burst, deep underwater burst.
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Has the worst fallout due to the fireball touching the surface. What type of blast is this?
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Surface Burst
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What are two shipboard shielding stations?
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Ready and Deep-shelter stations
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Where are ready-shelters located?
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just inside the weather envelope, with access to deep shelter. They provide minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations.
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Where are Deep-shelters located?
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low in the ship and near the centerline. They provide maximum shielding from nuclear radiation, often requiring personnel to be far removed from battle stations.
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What is a DT-60 dosimeter?
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non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter, which has to be placed in a special radiac computer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens.
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What is MOPP?
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture
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How many MOPP levels are there?
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Five
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What is the Primary duty of the firefighter?
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Saving lives
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What is the secondary responsibility of the firefighter?
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extinguish fires and limit the damage to aircraft,
shipboard, airfield installed equipment, and/or airfield structures |
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What does the fire triangle consist of?
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Heat, Fuel, and Oxygen
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What are the four classes of fires?
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Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, and Delta
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What type of materials would you find in a class Alpha fire?
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Combustibles such as burning wood, cloth, textiles, and fibrouse materials.
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What type of extinguishing agent would be used on a classes Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta?
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Alpha-Water/AFFF
Bravo-AFFF, halon1211,PKP,CO2 Charlie-CO2, halon, PKP, Delta-H2O |
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What type of fire is Classes A, B, C, D
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A-Combustibles
B-Liquids C-Electrical D-Metals |
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What is AFFF?
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Aqueous Film Forming Foam
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What is PKP?
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Potassium bicarbonate
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What is PPE?
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Personal protective equipment
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What type of of PPE would be worn on the flight line?
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- Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
- Cranial impact helmet - Protective eye goggles - Leather gloves. |
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What are Runways?
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Paved areas that are used for aircraft takeoff and landing
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What are Threshold Markings?
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Parallel stripes on the ends of the runways. The stripes are 12 feet wide by 150 feet long and designate the landing area.
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What is an Overrun Area?
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Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provide a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft.
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What is the MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier designed to do?
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stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks
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What are Taxiways?
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Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runways, and airfield services.
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What is a Parking Apron?
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Open paved areas adjacent to hangers, fuel, services often called the flight line.
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What is the Compass Calibration Pad?
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A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated.
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How is the runway numbering system numbered?
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Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees
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What is the Airfield rotating beacon used for?
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Identify the airports location.
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How often do the lights on the airfield rotating beacon flash?
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12 to 15 times per minute.
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What consists of flight deck proper safety equipment?
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- Flight deck (steel-toed) safety shoes
- Protective jersey - Cranial impact helmet - Protective eye goggles - Leather gloves |
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Who wears yellow jerseys on the flight deck?
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Aircraft Handling Officer, Flight Deck Officer, Catapult Officer, Air Bos’n, Arresting Gear Officer and Plane directors.
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Who wears white jerseys on the flight deck?
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Safety department, Air Transport Officer, Landing Signal Officer, Squadron Plane Inspectors (troubleshooters) and medical.
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Who wears brown jerseys on the flight deck?
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Plane captains.
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Who wears blue jerseys on the flight deck?
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Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman (Chocks, Chains and Tractors) and Elevator Operators.
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Who wears green jerseys on the flight deck?
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Catapult and Arresting Gear personnel, Squadron Aircraft Maintenance personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted-man and Photographers.
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Who wears red jerseys on the flight deck?
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Crash and Salvage, Explosive Ordnance Disposal, and Ordnance handling personnel.
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Who wears purple jerseys on the flight deck?
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Aviation fuel crew
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What is a bomb jettison ramp?
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Ramps designated to eliminate loose ordinance
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What are some danger areas for aviation?
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intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, hazardous materials, eye, hearing and other industrial environment dangers.
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What are the procedures for grounding the aircraft?
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first hook up a grounding strap to a certified static ground and then to the aircraft grounding receptacle.
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How many chains are required for winds up to 45 Knots?
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Nine chains required
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How many chains are required from 46 to 60 Knots?
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Fourteen chains required
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How many chains are required Above 60 Knots?
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Tweenty chains required
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Aircraft critical walkways that cannot be walked on are identified by?
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NO STEP markings
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How do we communicate in the high tempo high noise environments of naval aviation?
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Hand signals
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What is the only manditory signal regardless of aircraft type?
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Emergency Stop
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What is the towing speed when moving or respoting the aircraft?
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Towing speed shall not exceed 5 mph or the speed of the slowest walker
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Who is overall responsible for assmbling the move crew?
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move director
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What does the move crew consist of?
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Move Director, Brake Rider, Chock Walker, Safety Observers, Tractor Driver
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What does FPCON stand for?
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Force protection conditions
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Who can set the FPCON level?
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Commanders at any level can set the FPCON level.
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How many different FPCON levels are there? What are they?
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Five, FPCON Normal, FPCON Alpha, FPCON Bravo, FPCON Charlie, FPCON Delta
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Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.?
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FPCON Delta
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What is a DEFCON?
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Defense readiness condition.
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How many different levels of DEFCON are there? What are they
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Five, DEFCON 5, DEFCON 4, DEFCON 3, DEFCON 2, DEFCON 1.
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What is the NAMP?
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Naval Aviation Maintenance Program.
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Who is in charge of the NAMP?
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The Chief of Naval Operations.
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What is the MO and what does he/she do?
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Maintenance Officer, manages the department and is responsible to the CO for the accomplishment of the department's mission.
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What is the AMO?
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Aircraft Maintenance Officer
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What is the MMCO?
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Maintenance/Material Control Officer
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What is the MMCPO and what does he do?
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Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer, Senior Enlisted Advisor for the Maintenance Department, reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, aircraft maintenance, and department personnel.
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What is a QAO?
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Quality Assurance Officer.
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What is the MCO?
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Material Control Officer.
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What are the three levels of maintenance?
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O-level, I-level, and D-level
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What are two types of maintenance described in the NAMP?
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Rework, and Upkeep.
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How long is a turnaround inspection good for?
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Good for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed.
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How long is a daily good for?
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It is valid for 72 hours without flight or major maintenance and the aircraft can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is needed as long as it does not surpass the 72 hour time limit.
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What is a Phase inspection?
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This inspection divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content
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When do you perform an Acceptance inspection?
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Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft or support equipment from any source and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance.
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When is a Transfer inspection performed?
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Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment.
Second is rework maintenance, since |
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Rework is done at what level of maintenance?
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D-level
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What is the main difference between Maintenance control and Production control
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Maintenance control is O-level and Production control is I-level
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What are the two most critical aspects of naval aviation?
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Release of an aircraft safe for flight and the acceptance fo the aircraft.
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What is the MMP
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Monthly Maintenance Plan
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When is the MMP distributed by O-level?
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By the 25th of each month
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What is the Aircraft Logbook?
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The logbook is a hard bound record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items, and installed equipment.
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What is the concept of QA?
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The prevention of the occurrence of defects.
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What is a CDI?
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Collateral Duty Inspector
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What is a QAR?
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Quality Assurance Representative
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What different programs does QA manage?
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CTPL, Maintenance Department/Division Safety, QA Audit Program, SE Misuse/Abuse, ACSP, NAMDRP
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What is CTPL?
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Central technical publications library
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What are the three types of audits QA performs?
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Special, Workcenter, and Program
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What is ACSP?
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Aircraft confined space program
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What is the NAMDRP?
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Naval Aviation Discrepency Reporting Program
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What is the objective of the ASCP?
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Ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel cells and tanks.
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What is the NATOPS
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Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization.
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When was the NATOPS established?
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1961
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Before starting an engine, the wheels of the A/C shall be?
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Chocked and the parking brake set.
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|
Prior to starting jet engines, intakes and surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected to eliminate the possibility of?
|
FOD
|
|
|
What is FOD?
|
Foreign Object Damage
|
|
|
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed. ?
|
Warning
|
|
|
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed. ?
|
Caution
|
|
|
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized. ?
|
Note
|
|
|
Means a procedure that is mandatory. ?
|
Shall
|
|
|
Means a procedure that is recommended. ?
|
Should
|
|
|
Mean the procedure is optional. ?
|
May
|
|
|
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure. ?
|
Will
|
|
|
COMNAVAIRLANT-The first character shall be? second character?
|
A through M, A through Z
|
|
|
COMNAVAIRPAC. The fist character shall be? the second character should be?
|
N through Z, A through Z
|
|
|
CNATRA. The first character shall be? The second character should be?
|
A through G, there is no second character
|
|
|
When was the frst take off from a ship-Eugene Ely?
|
14 November1910
|
|
|
Who was the first fatality of naval aviation?
|
Ensign William D. Billingsley
|
|
|
When was the first fatality of naval aviation?
|
20 June 1913
|
|
|
What was the name of the Navy's first carrier?
|
USS LANGLEY/CV-1
|
|
|
When was the first carrier landing for a Navy jet?
|
10 March 1948
|
|
|
When was the battle of Coral Sea?
|
7-8 May 1942
|
|
|
When was the battle of Midway?
|
3-5 June 1942
|
|
|
When was the battle of Guadalcanal?
|
13-15 November 1942
|
|
|
What is significant about the battle of Midway?
|
It was the turning point in the Pacific war.
|
|
|
What happend to the Sullivan brothers? How did it change Navy Policy?
|
The Sullivan brothers died together on the JUNEAU. Navy policy was to place members of the same family on different ships.
|
|
|
The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time.
|
Acceleration
|
|
|
The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time.
|
Speed
|
|
|
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
|
Velocity
|
|
|
an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
|
Newton's first law of motion
|
|
|
Newton's second law of motion
|
if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
|
|
|
for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
|
Newton's third law of motion
|
|
|
Bernoulli's Principle
|
The principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased
|
|
|
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight.
|
Lift
|
|
|
The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.
|
Weight
|
|
|
Drag
|
The force that tends to hold an aircraft back.
|
|
|
The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction.
|
Thrust
|
|
|
Longitudinal axis
|
An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail.
|
|
|
Lateral axis
|
An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings
|
|
|
An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.
|
Vertical axis
|
|
|
True or False A hellicopter has Ailerons
|
False
|
|
|
Flap
|
Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift to reduce takeoff runs and landing rollout.
|
|
|
Used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces, this creates a more predictable landing glideslope.
|
Spoiler
|
|
|
Speed brakes
|
Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircraft
|
|
|
Define Angle of Attack
|
The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air
|
|
|
Define Autorotation
|
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power.
|
|
|
What is the Shock Strut Assembly's job?
|
Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
|
|
|
What is the job of the Wheel Brake Assembly?
|
Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
|
|
|
What is the job of the tires
|
Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing.
|
|
|
All the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.
|
Retracting and Extending Mechanism.
|
|
|
What does NALCOMIS mean?
|
Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
|
|
|
What does OOMA mean?
|
Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity
|
|
|
What is OOMA?
|
OOMA is a management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis through the online Visual Electronic Displays (VEDs) and MAINT-1 through -6 reports as well as Adhoc data extraction
|
|
|
9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection.
|
JCN
|
|
|
Optimized IMA
|
provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by the maintenance activity.
|
|
|
Key capability that establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.
|
Forward Presence.
|
|
|
Deterrence
|
Aligned to the national belief that preventing wars is as important as winning wars.
|
|
|
Protects the ability to operate freely at sea and is an important enabler of joint and interagency operations.
|
Sea Control.
|
|
|
Power Projection.
|
The ability to project from the sea is the essential combat element of the Maritime Strategy.
|
|
|
The maintenance of security at sea and the mitigation of threats short of war.
|
Maritime Security.
|
|
|
A human obligation and a foundation of human character.
|
Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief
|
|
|
(HSC)
|
Helicopter Sea Combat
|
|
|
These units perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, and eventually combat search-and-rescue missions?
|
Helicopter Sea Combat (HSC).
|
|
|
Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)
|
Tasked with the primary roles of antisubmarine and anti-surface warfare, and secondary roles of logistics and rescue.
|
|
|
Helicopter Training
|
Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary wing aircraft.
|
|
|
(VAQ)
|
Tactical Electronic Warfare
|
|
|
(VAW). Fixed wing carrier based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft.
|
Carrier Airborne Early Warning
|
|
|
Fixed wing utility squadrons providing air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing.
|
Fleet Composite (VC).
|
|
|
Strike Fighter VFA
|
Fixed wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
|
|
|
Fixed wing land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance and mining.
|
Patrol (VP).
|
|
|
Fleet Air Reconnaissance (VQ).
|
Fixed wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.
|
|
|
Fixed wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies.
|
Aircraft Logistics Support (VR)
|
|
|
(VRC)
|
Carrier Logistics Support
|
|
|
Training (VT).
|
Fixed wing squadrons that provides basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers.
|
|
|
What is MSDS?
|
Material Safety Data Sheet
|
|
|
What are the six categories of Hazmat?
|
Flammable or combustible materials, Aerosol containers
, Toxic materials, Corrosive materials (including acids and bases), Oxidizing materials, Compressed gases |
|
|
The general steps of spill response are?
|
Discovery, Notification, Initiation of action, Evaluation, Containment, Damage control, Dispersion of Gases/vapors, Cleanup and decontamination, Disposal, Certification for re-entry, Follow-up reports
|
|
|
How many different type of hangars are used in naval aviation?
|
Three
|
|
|
What type of hanger is used for land based patrol and large transport aircraft?
|
A Type III
|
|
|
How big are hangars on a CVN?
|
they are 110ft wide by 685 feet long
|
|
|
Hangar bays have What type of fire protection system installed in overhead?
|
AFFF
|
|
|
Where are the fuel selector levers located?
|
On the engine control quadrant
|
|
|
What do the fuel selector levers do?
|
They control the flow of fuel from the boost pumps to the
engine driven fuel pumps |
|
|
Where are the fire t handles located?
|
On the engine control quadrant
|
|
|
How do you arm the fire extinguisher system?
|
By pulling back on the fire t handles
|
|
|
Where is the insturment pannel located?
|
Under the glare shield in the cockpit
|
|
|
Where is the pedal adjuster lever?
|
Outboard side of glare shields
|
|
|
Where do you control the cockpit and cabin overhead lighting?
|
On the cockpit overhead console
|
|
|
Where is the tail wheel lock switch located? and what is its function?
|
Is located on the starboard side of the lower console. The switch is used to electrically lock and unlock the
tail wheel in the trailing position. |
|
|
Where is the fire extinguisher switch located?
|
On the overhead console.
|
|
|
Where is the standby magnetic compass located?
|
Mounted on the center windshield support above the glare shield.
|
|
|
Where is the engine control quadrant? What does it do?
|
Located on the over head console. It provides a means to start and shutdown the engines. Also allows for setting engine power.
|
|
|
Where is the rotor brake located?
|
Starboard side over head console.
|
|
|
What does the master warning panel do?
|
It alerts the pilots of an unsafe condition which requires immediate attention.
|
|
|
What movments does the cyclic stick control?
|
controls forward, aft and lateral movements of aircraft.
|
|
|
What movments does the collective stick control?
|
It changes pitch of aircraft allowing for an increase or decrease in lift.
|
|
|
Where are the first aid kits located?
|
Behind the pilot and copilot seats.
|
|
|
Where is the operator control panel located? What does it do?
|
The Operator Control panel is located on the lower console. It allows for internal communications between aircrew.
|
|
|
What do the tail rotor pedals control?
|
They control helicopter heading by changing the angle of the tail rotor paddles.
|
|
|
How many circuit breaker panels are located in the cockpit section?
|
Five
|
|
|
Where is the cargo hook located?
|
The well area of the cabin floor
|
|
|
Where is the Cargo Hook located? How many pounds can it carry?
|
The Cargo Hook is located in the well area of the cabin floor. It is used to carry external cargo. It is capable of handling 8000 pounds of cargo.
|
|
|
Where is the rescue hoist located? What is its load capacity?
|
The Rescue Hoist is located above the starboard side cabin door. It is used to rescue downed personnel. It is capable of handling a 600 pound load capacity.
|
|
|
Where are the IHEELS located? What do they do?
|
Two IHEELS are located on each cabin door. They illuminate during emergencies to show exit points from aircraft through cabin door windows.
|
|
|
Where are the ADHEELS located? What do they do?
|
The ADHEELS are located around each cabin door way. They illuminates during emergencies to show exit points from aircraft through cabin door.
|
|
|
How many cabin lights are there? Where are they located?
|
There are three cabin lights. They are located in cabin over head, forward, midsection and aft cabin. They are used to illuminated cabin area as required.
|
|
|
Where is the Main Gear Box chip detector located? What does it do?
|
The Main Gear Box chip detector is located in cabin overhead inside main gear box drip pan. It is used to attract metal particles inside main gear box to show wear.
|
|
|
Where are the Input Module chip detectors located?
|
Cabin over head outboard side of main gear box
|
|
|
Where is the Main Gear Box oil filter located?
|
The Main Gear Box oil filter is located in cabin overhead starboard aft side of main gear box
|
|
|
Where are the Utility power receptacles located?
|
The Utility power receptacles are located port side of cabin under gunner’s window
|
|
|
Where is the Environmental Control System ducting located?
|
The Environmental Control System ducting is located throughout cabin overhead.
|
|
|
Where is the Auxiliary fuel tank receptacles are located?
|
aft cabin bulkhead
|
|
|
How many fire extinguishers are located in the cabin?
|
Two
|
|
|
The helicopter inflight fueling receptacle is located? What does it do?
|
The Helicopter Inflight Fueling Receptacle (HIFR) is located in starboard side cabin door frame. It is designed to allow for ship-to-air refueling.
|
|
|
How does the collective stick change the blades of the A/C?
|
The Collective stick changes the angle of all four blades at the same time increasing or decreasing lift
|
|
|
How does the cyclic stick work?
|
The Cyclic stick changes the pitch of the swash plate which changes the angle of one blade at a time allowing the aircraft to roll left, right, pitch up or pitch down
|
|
|
What are used to access the helicopter saftey?
|
Handholds, steps and walkways must be used to safely access the helicopter
|
|
|
_________ Is cancer causing agent. Personnel should avoid touching any component containing this agent?
|
Copper Beryllium
|
|
|
Why do we use flat coatings on the aircraft?
|
The use of flat coatings protects the aircraft from corrosion and other forms of deterioration, but also to reduces glare
|
|
|
By the MRC-350 aircraft must be washed ____ days at sea and every____ days on shore?
|
7, 14
|
|
|
What is the purpose of emergency reclamation?
|
prevent further damage to aircraft and components after exposure to gross amounts of salt water or fire extinguishing agents. To reclaim, salvageable components and to remove them by their priority
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the main rotor head dampers?
|
The main rotor head dampers are installed between the hub and spindles to restrain hunting of the main rotor blades.
|
|
|
How many ways can the tail wheel be locked? What are they?
|
2, Electrically and manually
|
|
|
What are the 4 factors that affect helicopter flight?
|
Lift, Weight, Drag, Thrust.
|
|
|
What are the four factors that affect helicopter performance?
|
Weight, Weather, Wind, Engine Performance.
|
|
|
What make up the six sections of fuselage?
|
the cockpit, the cabin, the transition section, the tail cone, the tail rotor pylon and the main rotor pylon.
|
|
|
What is the Accronym BIM?
|
Blade Inspection Method
|
|
|
What does the BIM test for?
|
The indicator compares a built in reference pressure with the pressure in the spar.
|
|
|
What are the three flight controls that affect helicopter flight?
|
Collective stick, Cyclic stick, and Rudder pedals.
|
|
|
How many cutter blades does the Wire Strike protection system contain?
|
Seven Cutter Blades
|
|
|
What is the job of the main landing gear?
|
The main landing gear supports the helicopter while on the ground and cushions the aircraft during landings
|
|
|
The tail wheel is capable of swivelling ____ degrees to aid in turning helicopter while taxiing?
|
360
|
|
|
What does RAST stand for?
|
Recovery, Assist, Secure, Traverse.
|
|
|
Where are the SH-60 F/H danger areas?
|
suction form #1 and #2 engine inlets, heat from #1 and 2 engine exhausts, heat from ECS exhaust on right side of A/C, exhaust from APU left side of A/C and main rotor arc and tail rotor blades.
|
|
|
What type of engine does the SH60 F/H have?
|
T700-GE-401C
|
|
|
What are the four modules that make up the engine?
|
Cold section module, hot section module, power turbine module, and accessory section module.
|
|
|
What reduces exhaust gas radiation and line of sight hot surfaces?
|
The Hover Infrared Suppression System
|
|
|
What three types of fuel does the T700 engines use?
|
JP-5, JP-8, JP-4
|
|
|
What is the NATO Code for JP-5?
|
F-44
|
|
|
What is the NATO Code for JP-8?
|
F-34
|
|
|
What is the NATO Code for JP-4?
|
F-40
|
|
|
What type of fuels' Flaspoint is to low for shipboard use?
|
JP-8
|
|
|
TRUE/FALSE The main rotor head rotates clockwise?
|
False
|
|
|
How many pounds of fuel does the auxiliary tank hold?
|
816 pounds
|
|
|
During fueling operations, the pre-check valves shall significantly reduce or stop fuel flow to main fuel cells within how many seconds?
|
4-10 seconds
|
|
|
What are two different methods to fuel the A/C?
|
Pressure fueling, and Gravity fueling
|
|
|
What are three different pneumatic sources for engine start?
|
They include external ground source, the APU and engine cross bleed.
|
|
|
What is the primary function of the main transmission system?
|
Drive and support the main rotor and the tail rotor
|
|
|
What is the secondary function of the main trasmission system?
|
Drive the accessory modules and the utility hydraulic system pump.
|
|
|
Where is the main transmission located?
|
On top of the helicopter in the center of the main rotor pylon
|
|
|
____are installed on each gearbox. Their function is to detect metal chips in the gearbox and send a signal to the cockpit indication a chip has been detected?
|
Metal chip detectors
|
|
|
____supplies pneumatic power for engine start?
|
APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)
|
|
|
What are the two different typs of APU?
|
Turbomach, Garrett
|
|
|
What are two ways to charge the APU Accumulator?
|
Manually with the hand pump, and Electrically with the back up hydraulic pump
|
|
|
What happens when hydraulic fluid is decomposed by heat?
|
Toxic gases are released. Prolonged contact with liquid or mist can cause dermatitis and irritation to skin and eyes.
|
|
|
Is a test method used to measure metallic and non-metallic contaminate levels in aircraft and support equipment hydraulic systems?
|
Hydraulic patch test
|
|
|
The HH-60H only has
____ pumps |
Three
|
|
|
Witch hydraulic pump is used for rescue hoist opperation?
|
Back up Pump
|
|
|
_____ store hydraulic fluid?
|
reservoirs
|
|
|
How many hydraulic reservoirs are on the HH60H
|
Four
|
|
|
Name all the hydraulic reservoirs on the HH60H?
|
Attached to the #1 hydraulic pump, Attached to the #2 hydraulic pump, Attached to the back-up hydraulic pump, Servicing reservoir in hydraulic bay
|
|
|
How many primary servos are there? What are they?
|
three, the forward, aft, and lateral
|
|
|
A directed movement of electrons in a conductor or circuit from positive to negative?
|
Current (I)
|
|
|
Measured as the difference of potential of two charges of interest?
|
Voltage (E)
|
|
|
The opposition to current. The Ohm is the basic unit of measurement and is represented by the Greek letter omega (Ω)?
|
Resistance (R)
|
|
|
A measurement of cycles in a given period of time. Also referred to as frequency?
|
Hertz (Hz)
|
|
|
The equation I=E/ R. The current (I) in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage (E) and inversely proportional to the resistance (R)?
|
Ohm's Law
|
|
|
____ is current which constantly changes in amplitude, and which reverses direction at regular intervals.
|
Alternating Current
|
|
|
Flows only in one direction?
|
Direct Current
|
|
|
Each generator provides?
|
◦ 115/200 Volts A/C
◦ 3 Phase ◦ 400 Hz |
|
|
There are ____ Generator Control Units (GCUs)?
|
Three
|
|
|
What does the GCU do?
|
They regulate generator output and provide over and under voltage protection as well as under frequency protection.
|
|
|
DAFCS?
|
Digital Automatic Flight Control System
|
|
|
Provides displays aircraft attitude also known as artificial horizon?
|
Attitude Indicator
|
|
|
Reads aircraft position above sea level?
|
Barometric altimeter
|
|
|
Indicates vertical speed?
|
Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
|
|
|
Measures difference between impact pressure and static pressure?
|
Airspeed Indicator
|
|
|
White light located tail rotor pylon/ red light on the left and green on right main landing gear sponsons or stub wings?
|
Position lights
|
|
|
Where are the Anti Collision lights?
|
On top of the tail underside of tail cone clear lens for day and red lens for night.
|
|
|
What kind of battery is the aircrafts battery?
|
24volts-dc ni-cad battery
|
|
|
What does the aircrafts battery do?
|
provides primary source of power to start APU
|
|
|
____is a junction of two dissimilar metals that produce voltage when heated?
|
thermocouple
|
|
|
____makes sure there is no shorts/breaks in the wire, from one end of the wire to the other end of the wire?
|
continuity test
|
|
|
____checks for required voltage as specified?
|
voltage check
|
|
|
____measures voltage, amperage, and resistance ohms also diode check?
|
Digital Mulitmeter
|
|
|
____identifies how far (in feet) if there is a short/break in the wire?
|
Time Domain Reflectometer
|
|
|
____ is self activated by a 5-G force or by turning on the switch. It sends out distress signal up to 100 miles with the search aircraft at an altitude of 10,000 ft?
|
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
|
|
|
TDP
|
Tactical Data Processor
|
|
|
CDU
|
Control Display Unit
|
|
|
DCP
|
Display Control Panel
|
|
|
MFD
|
Multi Function Display
|
|
|
HUD
|
Heads Up Display
|
|
|
CSC
|
Communications System Control
|
|
|
DALS
|
Downed Aviator Locator System
|
|
|
IFF
|
Identification Friend or Foe
|
|
|
HSVD
|
Horizontal Situation Video Display
|
|
|
HF
|
High Frequency
|
|
|
UHF
|
Ultra High Frequency
|
|
|
VHF
|
Very High Frequency
|
|
|
ARI
|
Azimuth Range Indicator
|
|
|
____collects navigation information for visual display on cockpit indicators?
|
Tactical navigation
|
|
|
____is a programmable data cartridge for flight plans etc?
|
Mission Data Loader (MDL)
|
|
|
____is an electronic countermeasure unit designed to protect helicopters and low, slow flying aircrft against surface to air and air to air missiles?
|
The Missile Warning Set (MWS)
|
|
|
____provides real time infrared and daylight imagery for a variety of missions?
|
The Forward Looking Infrared System (FLIR)
|
|
|
____system passively detects, classifies, locates, and tracks external radio frequency (RF) emitters?
|
The Electronic Support Measures (ESM)
|
|
|
____processes signal received from 4 GPS satellites to compute a position and provides latitudinal and longitudinal
coordinates of the aircraft’s present position to the TDP? |
GPS
|
|
|
____is the internal communications (talking to one another in the aircraft) 7 stations on the SH-60F, 6 on the HH-60H?
|
Intercommunication system (ICS)
|
|
|
Dispenses metallic chaff, flares, and two other categories of expendables to defeat air intercept, anti-aircraft artillery, and surface to air missiles?
|
Countermeasures
|
|
|
Set provides protection from infrared guided missiles. It continuously emits infrared radiation to decoy incoming missiles?
|
ALQ-144 Infrared Countermeasures (IRCM)
|
|
|
Pyrotechny means?
|
The art of fire
|
|
|
____are items that produce their effect by burning, and are consumed in the process?
|
pyrotechnics
|
|
|
CODR
|
Conventional Ordnance Discrepancy Report
|
|
|
____provides a standard system for reporting malfunctions or induced defects involving live ordnance, ammunition, explosives, explosive systems and devices such as bomb racks, missile launchers, gun systems, rocket launcher, sonobouy launchers, leaking or spilled OTTO fuel, and armament weapons support equipment?
|
Conventional Ordnance Discrepancy Report
|
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____is a report that applies to explosive incidents involving conventional ordnance, ammunition, explosives, explosive system and devices resulting in actual unintentional detonation, firing, burning, launching of ordnance material leaking of spilled propellant fuels and oxidizers, or chemical agents released?
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Explosive mishap Report (EMR)
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NAWMP
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naval airborne weapons maintenance program
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issues the policies, procedures and responsibilities for activities supporting or performing airborne weapons maintenance?
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naval airborne weapons maintenance program
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EOD
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explosive ordnance disposal
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What are the three categories of HERO
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HERO SAFE, HERO SUSCEPTIBLE, HERO UNSAFE
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HERO
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Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordnance
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____standardizes loading procedures used throughout the Navy and Marine Corps?
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airborne weapons stores loading manual
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____contain a cad to discharge the fire extinguishing agent through the lines to put out fires?
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Fire bottles
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Mk 79 Mod 0 signal kit consists of?
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a Mk 31 Mod 0 signal projector, a plastic bandoleer that holds seven Mk 80 Mod 0 signals, and an instruction sheet.
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Each signal contains a single red star. On activation of the Mk 80 Mod 0, this star is propelled upward to a height of between?
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250 and 650 feet
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Mk 80 Mod 0 signals single red star burns for?
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a minimum of 4 1/2 seconds.
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Mk 124 Mod 0 is used as?
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day or night signal by personnel on land or sea.
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What is the color of smoke for the day side of the Mk 124 Mod 0? And one for night?
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Orange, Red Flame
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The Mk 124 Mod 0 burns for?
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approx. 20 seconds
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____ are launched from aircraft to provide day or night reference points for marking the course of enemy submarines in antisubmarine warfare operations? Burns for a period of?
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MK 25 MOD 4 Marine location Marker, 10 to 20 minutes
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____ are launched from aircraft to provide day or night, long burning reference point marking on the ocean surface. It is also used for SAR operation, man overboard, and as a target for practice bombing at sea (40 to 60 minutes)?
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The MK 58 MOD O marine location marker
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Contains a CAD to sheer the cable in an emergency?
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The Rescue Hoist (M514)
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Contains a squib to disable the linkage and open the cargo hook in an emergency?
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The Cargo hook (MJ21) squib
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Contains a CAD to jettison torp. or aux. tank in the event of mechanical failure or emergency?
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BRU-14/A M264, M934
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Contains CADs to release shower of metal pieces to confuse radar missiles?
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Chaff
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Contains CADs to release hot flares to confuse infrared (IR) missiles?
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Flare
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____machine gun weighs 23 ¾ lbs. Has a length of 44 7/8 inches, and can fire 550 rounds per minute?
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M60D machine gun
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What are the three configurations of the MK 46 torpedo?
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War shot, Exercise, Rex torp
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There are 3 sonobouy classifications. They are?
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Active, Passive, Special pourpose
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There are three types of torpedoes utilized on the MH-60R. They are?
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MK-46, MK-50, MK-54
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How much does the AGM 114 Hellfire Missile weigh?
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99 pounds
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How many missiles can the aircraft carry?
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Maximum of eight missiles.
◦ Four on the port M299 ◦ Four on the starboard M299 (when authorized for flight) |
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____is fully automatic and fires 7.62" rounds, with a rate of fire: 650-950 per minute. It is air cooled and pneumatically operated. And it can be dismounted form the aircraft and hand carried or mounted on a tripod?
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M240 machine gun
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There are 4 different types of rafts available to flight crews. They include the?
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LRU-1, LRU-12, LRU-13, MPLR.
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The components located in the life raft(s) include?
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a beacon, water desalinizer, food, water and oar.
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The rescue swimmers Tri-SAR harness includes several components. They include?
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a flotation device, a harness, smokes, a strobe light, a knife and a J-knife.
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The basic equipment required for rescue swimmers during a deployment/rescue is the?
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Tri-SAR harness, Mask, Fins, HABD, Radio, Wet/dry suit, and Booties.
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The components of the LPU-32 life preserver include?
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a Sea dye marker, Whistle, Chemlite, and Manual/auto inflation.
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There are several delivery options for cargo via helicopter. They include?
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Internal Palletized, Internal individual loading, External Vertical Replenishment, Hoist.
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