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401 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How do contraceptives work?
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Negative feedback inhibition of the HPA axis is the major mechanism of action for what group of medications?
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What effect does estrogen have in contraception?
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Which hormone will suppress FSH and inhibit the development of the follicle?
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What effect does progestin have in contraception?
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Which hormone will suppress LH to inhibit ovulation?
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What uterine and cervical effects does progestin have in contraception?
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Which hormone will thicken the cervical mucosa to decrease ovum movement and thin the endometrium?
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What vaginal effect does progestin have in contraception?
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Which hormone renders the vagina hostile to sperm and implantation of the zygote?
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Mestranol is metabolized in the liver to what product?
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Ethinyl estradiol is one product of liver metabolism of what drug?
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Define combined oral contraceptive.
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A synthetic estrogen combined with C-19 Steroid (with progestin activity) is otherwise known as what?
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Label
Ethinyl Estradiol |
Synthetic Estrogen (Label)
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Label
Mestranol |
Synthetic Estrogen (Label)
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Label
Norgestrel |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Label
Norgestrimate |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Label
Desogestrol |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Label
Levonorgestrel |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Label
Ethynodiol diacetate |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Label
Norethindrone acetate |
C-19 Steroid w/ Progestin Activity (Label)
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Discuss the difference between 1st, 2nd, 3rd generation oral contraceptives.
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Increased estrogen
Decreased Estrogen, Decreased Progesterone Decreased Estrogen, Decreased Progesterone (w/ minimal androgenic side fx) What is described here? |
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Define Monophasic Oral Contraceptive.
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Single dosage EE
Single dosage Pro What type of oral contraceptive is this? |
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Define Biphasic Oral Contraceptive.
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Single dosage EE.
Two dosages Pro. What type of oral contraceptive is this? |
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Define Triphasic Oral Contraceptive.
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One dosage EE.
Three dosages Pro. What type of oral contraceptive is this? |
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What is special about "estrastep"?
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What oral contraceptive has a varying estrogen dosage?
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What is the risk involved in lowering the dose of progestin?
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Decreased contraceptive effect is a risk involved in lowering of which hormone?
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What are the goals of the triphasic BCP?
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Reduce metabolic/physiologic effects of Progestin
Provide adequate contraception Provide adequate endometrial support. These goals are accomplished with what type of medication? |
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Progesterone is highest during which phase?
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The luteal phase has the highest concentration of which hormone?
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What are the symptoms of estrogen deficiency?
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Early-Mid-Cycle Breakthrough Bleeding with spotting or decreased flow is associated with what condition?
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What are the symptoms of progesterone deficiency?
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Late-cycle breakthrough bleeding with amenorrhea is associated with what condition?
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What are the symptoms of estrogen excess?
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Nausea, bloating, edema, breast tenderness, HT, and migraines are associated with what condition?
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What are the symptoms of progesterone excess?
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A female patient presents with chief complaint of fatigue/tiredness. She has an increased appetite and has gained some weight recently. You notice her hair is falling out despite growth of facial hair. Her breasts are getting smaller, and she has acne, so she feels sad. She also asks for some medication for a yeast infection. What do you recommend?
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There are some small/rare risks associated with taking birth control. What are they?
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CVD
MI Stroke Venous Thromboembolism These are associated with what medications? |
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When are estrogen containing oral contraceptives contraindicated?
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Women >35 yo who smoke a pack a day should avoid what medications?
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What oral contraceptive can you offer a light smoker?
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Low-dose-estrogen or progestin-only oral contraceptives are an acceptable alternative for what type of patient interested in birth control?
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What type of BCP can a heavily smoking female use?
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Progestin-only pills can be used by which patients as an alternative to estrogen containing BCP?
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Transdermal contraceptive preparations have an increased risk of what? Why?
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Because this type of birth control skips first pass metabolism in the liver, the risk of DVT increases. What is it?
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Norelgestromine is available in what special type of preparation?
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What medication can be administered in a transdermal patch?
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Why is there an increase in blood pressure associated with combined oral contraceptives?
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An increase in circulating angiotensin is associated with use of what medication? It is contraindicated in women with HT related end-organ damage.
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Drosperinone is an oral contraceptive with increased risk of what?
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Hyperkalemia (inc. serum K) is a risk of which oral contraceptive?
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Drosperinone has anti-aldosterone properties and can cause hyperkalemia. Patients taking which meds should be monitored VERY closely?
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ACE(-) (Captopril)
K-sparing Diuretic (Spironolactone) Patients taking these medications should be closely monitored if they try to take which medication? Why? |
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Diabetics should take what type of oral contraceptive?
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A BCP with more estrogen and less progesterone can actually be good for which patient population?
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What type of metabolic disturbance can occur with use of progestins (especially norgesterl)?
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An increase in LDL and a decrease in HDL can be seen in patients taking what type of oral contraceptive?
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What type of metabolic disturbance can be seen in a patient taking a 1st generation oral contraceptive?
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Impaired glucose tolerance can be seen in a patient taking what type of oral contraceptive?
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Label
Cenestin |
Conjugated Equine Estrin (Label)
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Label
Enjuvia |
Conjugated Equine Estrin (Label)
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Label
Premarin |
Conjugated Equine Estrin (Label)
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Label
Progens |
Conjugated Equine Estrin (Label)
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Label
Sodium Estrone Sulfate |
Short Acting Estrogen Mix
Conjugated Estrogen (Label) |
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Label
Sodium Equilin Sulfate |
Short Acting Estrogen Mix
Conjugated Estrogen (Label) |
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Label
Estratab |
Esterified Estrogen (Label)
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Label
Menest |
Esterified Estrogen (Label)
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Label
Menrium |
Esterified Estrogen (Label)
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Label
Neoestrone |
Esterified Estrogen (Label)
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Which medications require enzymes in the lower gut to remove a charged sulfate group, thus allowing absorption across the epithelial membrane?
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Esterified Estrogens have what requirement to be absorbed across the epithelial membrane?
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In hormone replacement therapy for women with an intact uterus, what hormones should be used? Why?
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In order to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer, progestins should be included in the HRT of which patients?
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In hormone replacement therapy for women who have undergone a hysterectomy, what hormones should be used?
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Conjugated Equine Estrins are recommended for which women undergoing HRT?
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Oral contraceptives are Category X drugs. However, the risk, in reality, is equal to what?
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There is no research indicating that use of oral contraceptives is associated with increased risk of fetal malformations. The risk is equal to that of an uneventful pregnancy. However, oral contraceptives belong to which category?
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What is the mechanism underlying a hot flash?
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Inc Sympathetic activity leads to inc adrenaline and sweat gland activity. This is the mechanism underlying what?
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Levonorgestrel is available in what method of administration? What is the benefit associated with this method?
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Subdermal Capsule Implants remove the risk associated with lack of patient compliance (skipped dose). Which oral contraceptive is available in this form?
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Medroxyprogesterone is available in what method of administration?
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IM Injectable Contraceptive is known as?
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What are the drawbacks to using Long-Acting Progesterone Only Contraceptives?
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Mestrual irregularities and prolonged infertility are common drawbacks to use of what type of contraceptive?
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Label
Medroxyprogesterone |
Long-Acting Progesterone-Only Contraceptive (Label)
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Post coital contraception is a high dose of what hormone?
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Progesterone administered in high doses after sex can have what effect?
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Name some enzyme inducing drugs that can cause contraceptive failure.
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Antibiotics (rifampin)
carbamazepine phenytoin These medications can cause what unwanted event? |
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Any increase in Cyp450 levels can have what effect on oral contraceptives?
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Increased clearance of oral contraceptives can be associated with what?
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Progesterone only pills are contraindicated in patients with what conditions?
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Women with a history of breast cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or liver diseases should not take what type of oral contraceptive?
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True- Women who are breast feeding sometimes choose to switch to what type of birth control?
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Progesterone only pills can be used in breast feeding women- true or false?
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Which suprarenal gland secretes catecholamines?
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The medulla secretes what substances?
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Which suprarenal gland secretes adrenal steroids?
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The cortex secretes what substances?
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The Zona Glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes what substances?
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Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone are secreted by what gland?
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The Zona Fasciculata of the adrenal cortex secretes what substances?
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Glucocorticoids such as hydrocortisone (cortisol) are secreted by what gland?
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The Zona Fasciculata of the adrenal cortex secretes what steroids?
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Sex Steroids (androgens) are secreted by what gland?
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The Zona Reticularis of the adrenal cortex secretes what substances?
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Dihyrepiandrostenedione (DHEA) is secreted by which gland?
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In what state is cortisol generally found in the plasma?
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The majority of what substance is found bound to Corticosteroid Binding Globulin (CBG, transcortin) when it is in the plasma?
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What stimulates ACTH secretion?
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The hypothalamus uses Corticotropin Releasing Factor (CRF) to stimulate secretion of what hormone?
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Cortisol has what effect on the release of ACTH and CRF?
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What substance inhibits the release of ACTH and CRF?
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Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) or corticotropin is released by what?
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The pituitary releases what hormones to regulate corticosteroids?
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Name the natural glucocorticoids. Which is most potent?
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*Cortisol (Hydrocortisone)
Cortisone Corticosterone These are also known as? * indicates most potent |
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Cortisol treatment should be aimed at mimicking the natural circadian rhythm, which is what?
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What substance's levels are highest in the a.m. and lowest in the p.m.? How should you structure your treatment?
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Glucocorticoids have what metabolic action on carbohydrates that can lead to hyperglycemia?
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Increased glucuneogenesis
Decreased glucose uptake Decreased glucose utilization These effects can be seen with what substance? What condition do they lead to? |
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What is the site of action of aldosterone?
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What substance acts on the mineralocorticoid receptors in kidney, colon, and bladder?
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Decreased Na (hyponatremia) has what effect on aldosterone production?
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Aldosterone production will increase in response to ______ Na.
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Increased K (hyperkalemia) will have what effect on aldosterone production?
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Increased aldosterone production occurs as a result of ______ K.
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Activation of the RAS will have what effect on aldosterone production?
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Increased aldosterone production occurs as a result of activation of the _____.
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Angiotensin II will cause a ______ in aldosterone production?
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Increased aldosterone production occurs as a result of release of what?
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What is the drug of choice to treat a patient with Addison's disease?
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Hydrocortisone is the drug of choice to treat what type of adrenal insufficiency?
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What drug is used as an adjunct to hydrocortisone if signs of mineralocorticoid deficiency (hyponatremia) become apparent while treating patients with adrenal insufficiency?
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Fludrocortisone is sometimes used as an adjunct to treatment with what drug? Why?
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Where is CRH produced? Lesion to this area can cause what?
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Secondary/Tertiary Adrenocortical Insufficiency can be caused by decreased production of what hypothalamic hormone?
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Where is ACTH produced? Lesion to this area can cause what?
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Secondary/Tertiary Adrenocortical Insufficiency can be caused by decreased production of what pituitary hormone?
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21-Hydroxylase deficiency can cause what condition?
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Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia can occur as a result of what enzyme deficiency?
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What are the manifestations of 21-Hydroxylase deficiency?
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An increase in androgen production can cause early/inappropriate appearancy of male characteristics in both males and females. A deficiency in what enzyme may be the cause?
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If the adrenal gland releases cortisol in response to ACTH/corticotropin, what diagnosis can be made?
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The adrenocortical insufficiency is secondary/tertiary if you have what response to ACTH/corticotropin?
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What is the treatment for patients with secondary/tertiary adrenocortical insufficiency?
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Hydrocortisone alone (fludrocortisone is not needed) is the treatment for patients with what condition?
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How is the diagnosis of Addison's disease made?
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A lack of cortisol increase in response to ACTH/corticotropin is diagnostic of what condition? In general, ACTH levels in these patients are also higher.
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The salt-wasting form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia would present with what symptoms?
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Dehydration, nausea, vomitting, hyperkalemia, and cardiac arrhythmias are often seen in patients with what condition?
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What is the drug of choice for treating Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia? Why?
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Dexamethasone is the drug of choice in what condition because it suppresses the release of ACTH and CRH, thus reducing the production of androgens?
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Which aromatase inhibitors can be used to treat Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
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Anastrazole and Letrazole are what types of medication used in treating Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
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Flutamide is what type of medication that can also be used to treat Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
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What antiandrogen is sometimes used in the treatment of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?
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Antacids have what effect on corticosteroids?
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What drug can decrease the absorbtion of corticosteroids?
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Barbituates have what effect on corticosteroids?
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What drugs decrease the effect of corticosteroids?
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Contraceptives have what effect on corticosteroids?
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What drugs decrease the clearance of corticosteroids?
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Rifampin and Phenytoin have what effect on corticosteroids?
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What drugs increase the clearance of corticosteroids?
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What side effects are associated with long term corticosteroid therapy?
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Negative Calcium Balance
Increased risk of osteoporosis Poor wound healing Increased risk of infection Increased appetite Euphoria/Depression HT/Edema Peptic Ulcers Glaucoma Hypokalemia Hirsutism These side effects are similar to Cushing's Syndrome and are associated with use of what drugs? |
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What is the recommendation for withdrawal from steroid use for < 1 wk?
The recommendation for withdrawal from LT use is: 50% dose each week until 25mg Then decrease 1 mg/d every 3-7 days. |
What is the recomendation for withdrawal from long-term or high-dose use?
The recommendation for withdrawing from short term (<1wk) steroid use is : Decrease 5mg every 2-3 days or 50% dose each day. |
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Cushing's DISEASE is defined as what?
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An ACTH secreting tumor of the pituitary gland causes what condition?
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A patient presents with a wound that just won't heal. You notice he has an abundance of abdominal fat, but muscle wasting of his extremities. His cheeks are red and contribute to his round, moon face. What do you suspect?
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Cushing's syndrome can cause what changes in physical features?
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Ketoconazole is an antifungal agent sometimes uses to treat what condition? Why?
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What drug is sometimes used to treat Cushing's Syndrome because it inhibits gonadal/adrenal hormone synthesis?
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Metyrapone is occasionally used to treat pregnant women with what condition? Why?
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What drug is occasionally used to treat Cushing's syndrome because it inhibits 11B-hydroxylase, thus decreasing cortisol production? What special patients can use it?
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Aminoglutethiamide is sometimes used to treat patients with what condition? Why?
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What drug is occasionally used to treat Cushing's Syndrome because it inhibits desmolase?
Inhibit cholesterol to pregnenelone Inhibit Aromatase Inhibit testosterone to estrogen |
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What are the side effects of ketoconazole?
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Hypersensitivity reaction
GI upset Side effects associated with what treatment for Cushing's? |
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What are the side effects of Metyrapone?
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Na and H20 retention
Hirsutism Transient Dizzyness Side effects associated with what treatment for Cushing's? |
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What are the side effects of Aminoglutethiamide?
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Lethargy/Drowsiness
Headache Nausea/Vomitting Side effects associated with what treatment for Cushing's? |
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What is the function of follicle cells?
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Iodine uptake is the responsibility of which cells?
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What is the function of parafollicular cells (AKA C-cells)?
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Calcitonin release is the responsibility of which cells?
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Where is thyroglobulin colloid stored?
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What is stored in the follicle lumen?
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What protein is responsible for Iodide ions from the plasma?
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NIS transporter is responsible for what?
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What protein assists in thyroglobulin synthesis in the thyroid cell?
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Pendrin assists with transport during what process inside the thyroid cell?
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What does 5'deiodinase enzyme do?
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Activation of T4 by conversion to T3
Inactivation of T4 by conversion to rT3 This is the role of what enzyme? |
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Decreased iodine intake will have what effect on production of T3/T4? What effect on TSH?
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Decreased T3/T4 production
Increased TSH secretion What iodide state is necessary for this to occur? |
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Label
Methimazole |
(Label)
Thyroid Hormone Synthesis Inhibitor Thioamide |
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Label
Propylthiouracil |
(Label)
Thyroid Hormone Synthesis Inhibitor Thioamide |
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MOA
Thioamides |
Inhibit thyroperoxidase
to Block T3/T4 Synth Also decrease the iodination of thyroglobulin. MOA of what drug? |
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Additional MOA of Propylthiouracil.
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Blocks conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery.
This is the additional MOA for what drug? |
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Thioamides have no effect on existing stores of T3/T4 which can cause what phenomenon?
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The action of thioamides can be delayed due to what?
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When can thioamides be used during pregnancy?
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Which thyroid drugs can be used during the 2nd trimester, but not the 3rd or when breastfeeding?
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Agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, aplastic anemia (types of hypersensitivity rxns) are adverse effects of what drugs?
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What are the adverse effects of thioamides that would cause you to monitor the WBC count closely?
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MOA
Potassium Iodide (Lugol's Iodine) |
High doses of iodide inhibit T4 and T3 synthesis and release.
This is the MOA of what drug? |
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Adverse effects of Potassium Iodide?
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Sore Throat/Mouth
Mucous Membrane Ulcers Rashes Metallic Taste in mouth These adverse effects are associated with what drug? |
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What is the first line of therapy for Graves Disease?
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Radioiodide (131 I) is the first line of therapy for what condition?
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MOA
Radioiodide (131 I) |
Destruction of thyroid follicles by B-particles.
This is the MOA for what drug? |
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Thioamides are often used as pre-treatment for what?
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What drugs can be used as pre-treatment for radio-iodide therapy?
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Radioiodide treatment will result in hypothyroidism. How will you treat it?
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T4 replacement is required after what therapy?
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What is the best treatment for exopthalmos?
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Radioiodide will cure most of this condition, while thioamides have little effect on it. What is it?
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Which drugs can cause drug-induced hypothyroidism?
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Lithium, Thiocyanates, Amiodarone are drugs that may induce what condition?
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What are the lab findings in a patient with Hashimoto's?
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Low T4 and High TSH with TRAb (TSH rcptr Ab), ATrAb (Thyroglobulin Ab), Thyroperoxidase (TPO)
These are the labs in a patient with what condition? |
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Label
Thyroid USP |
(Label)
Natural Thyroid Extract (Hypo) |
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Label
Levothyroxine Sodium T4 |
(Label)
Synthetic Thyroid Hormone (Hypo) |
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Label
Liothyronine Sodium T3 |
(Label)
Synthetic Thyroid Hormone (Hypo) |
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Label
Liotrix T3-T4 |
(Label)
Synthetic Thyroid Hormone |
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Name the goals of thyroid replacement therapy.
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Reverse signs/sx of hypothyroidism
Normalize BOTH TSH and thyroxine levels. These are the goals of what? |
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What is Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) and what does it represent?
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Glucose measurement after 8 hrs of fasting, reflecting hepatic glucose production from gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. What is it?
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What is Postprandial Plasma Glucose (PPG) and what does it represent?
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Glucose reading 1-2 hrs after a meal, reflecting glucose uptake after a meal. What is it?
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What is Casual Plasma Glucose (CPG) and what does it represent?
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Random glucose at any time throughout the day without regard to time since last meal. What is it?
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What is Hemoglobin A1c(HbA1c) and what does it represent?
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Glycosylated hemoglobin that indirectly measures glucose level over the preceeding 2-3 months. PPG is an important contributor to this level. What is it?
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Define Type II Diabetes.
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A disorder characterized by insulin resistance with inadequate compensation is also known as what?
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Why are most insulins given subcutaneously, and regular insulin can be given IV?
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Insulin is unstable when ingested. What impact does this have on route of administration?
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When can Type II patients be given insulin?
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Extremely high FPG
Ketonuria/Ketonemia Symptomatic Diabetes These are the indications for administration of what drug to which patients? |
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Rapid and short acting insulins mimic what? When are they taken?
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What medications are given to mimic postprandial insulin surges? They are given either 10 or 30 minutes before a meal.
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Intermediate and Long-Acting Insulins are given to mimic what?
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What medications are given to mimic basal insulin secretion, and are thus taken without regard to meal time?
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Regular insulin and NPH can be combined with what dosage regimen?
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Insulin coverage with 2 injections is common with what insulins?
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Which insulins are generally dosed in 4 injection combinations?
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Lispro and Glargine can be dosed in what combination?
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Label
Lispro |
(Label)
Rapid Acting Insulin |
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Label
Aspart |
(Label)
Rapid Acting Insulin |
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Label
Glulisine |
(Label)
Rapid Acting Insulin |
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Label
Regular Insulin |
(Label)
Short Acting Insulin |
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Label
NPH |
(Label)
Intermediate Acting Insulin |
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Label
Glargine |
(Label)
Long Acting Insulin |
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Label
Determir |
(Label)
Long Acting Insulin |
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Label
Acetohexamide |
(Label)
Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Chlorpropamide |
(Label)
Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Tolazamide |
(Label)
Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Tolbutamide |
(Label)
Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Glyburide |
(Label)
2nd Gen Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Glipizide |
(Label)
2nd Gen Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Label
Glimepiride |
(Label)
2nd Gen Sulfonylureas Insulin Secretagogue |
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Allergic reactions to sulfonamides are associated with which oral antidiabetic agents?
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Sulfonylureas have what adverse affect if given with sulfonamides?
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What are the first line oral medications for Type II Diabetes?
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Sulfonylureas are the first line oral agents for what condtion?
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MOA
Sulfonylureas |
Which medications bind the SUR on pancreatic B-cells to increase insulin secretion?
Close K channels Depolarize membrane Open Ca channels- influx Exocytosis of preformed insulin granules *Independent of Plasma Glucose level* |
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Label
Repaglinide |
(Label)
Rapid Acting Prandial Insulin Secretagogue Meglitinide (AKA non-SU secretagogue) |
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Label
Nateglinide |
(Label)
Rapid Acting Prandial Insulin Secretagogue Meglitinide (AKA non-SU secretagogue) |
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Which Meglitinide is excreted in the bile?
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How is Repaglinide eliminated?
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Which Meglitinide is excreted in the urine?
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How is Nateglinide eliminated?
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MOA
Non-SU secretagogues Meglitinide |
Which meds bind the site near sulfonureal receptor in pancreatic B-cells to increase insulin secretion?
*MOA dependent on plasma glucose level* |
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Which meds effectively lower PPG, but have little effect on FPG or A1C?
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Meglitinides have what effect on PPG, FPG, or A1C?
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Which meds can be used in combination with insulin sensitizers, but not SU's?
|
Meglitinides can be used in combination with what medications? Which medications can they not be combined with?
|
|
|
Label
Metformin |
(Label)
Biguanide Anti-Diabetic Agent |
|
|
MOA
Metformin (Biguanides) |
Which medication's predominant action is to decrease gluconeogenesis in the liver to increase liver insulin sensitivity?
Also Decrease Glycogenolysis Increase insulin sensitivity in muscles Increase glucose uptake/util Increase glycogen synth Decrease intestinal absorbtion of glucose *Requires the presence of insulin* |
|
|
What is the mode of metabolism and elimination of Metformin?
|
Which anti-diabetic agent is metabolized in the liver and eliminated via the kidneys?
|
|
|
Which medication primarily reduces FPG and reduces insulin requirements?
|
Metformin primarily affects which value?
|
|
|
What are the adverse effects of metformin?
|
Which anti-diabetic causes flatulence/diarrhea/abd pain, and, suprisingly, weight LOSS?
|
|
|
Metformin may cause lactic acidosis, and thus should be avoided in which patients?
|
Patients with heart failure, respiratory disease, liver disease, or alcoholics should not take metformin- why?
|
|
|
What are the kidney related contraindications for metformin?
|
Renal insufficiency or patiens undergoing radiocontrast studies should not take which anti-diabetic agent?
|
|
|
MOA
Thiazolidinediones |
Which medications stimulate the peroxisome proliferator activator receptor gamma (PPAR-g) on adipose and vascular cells?
Increase lipogenesis Decrease FFA Decrease Insulin resistance Increase glucose uptake on m & l Decrease gluconeogenesis *MOA requires presence of insulin* |
|
|
Label
Pioglitazone |
(Label)
Thiazolidinedione Anti-Diabetic |
|
|
Label
Rosiglitazone |
(Label)
Thiazolidinedione Anti-Diabetic |
|
|
Which Thiazolidinedione is excreted as active metabolite in the bile?
|
How is Piogliazone eliminated?
|
|
|
Which Thiazolidinedione is excreted as weakly active metabolite in the urine?
|
How is Rosiglitazone eliminated?
|
|
|
How are Thiazolidinediones metabolized?
|
Rosioglitazone is metabolized via P450 2C8
Pioglitazone is metabolized via P450 3A4 What are these drugs? Where does this occur? |
|
|
What adverse effect of Troglitazone caused its withdrawal from the market, and the need for periodical LFT's in its' conterparts?
|
What anti-diabetic medications may cause hepatotoxicity and thus require what extra precautions?
|
|
|
Which anti-diabetics cause excess fluid retention?
|
Thiazolidinediones can cause what peripheral or pulmonary adverse effect?
|
|
|
Label
Acarbose |
(Label)
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor |
|
|
Label
Miglitol |
(Label)
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor |
|
|
MOA
Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor |
Inhibit enzymes of small intestinal brush border.
Effective only when taken with complex carbohydrates (delay breakdown, delay abs of glucose) Reduce PPG levels *No effect on insulin secretion or B-cells* This is the MOA for what drug? |
|
|
Which anti-diabetic agent is metabolized by intestinal bacteria?
|
How is Acarbose metabolized?
|
|
|
Which anti-diabetic agents only reduce PPG and not FPG?
|
What type of reductions are seen with Acarbose and Miglitol AGI's?
|
|
|
What are unreasonable combinations of anti-diabetic agents?
|
SU + RAPS
RAPS + AGI These combinations of anti-diabetic agents are _____. |
|
|
Label
Exenatide |
(Label)
Glucagon Like Peptide-1 (GLP-1) Agonists |
|
|
Label
Sitagliptin |
(Label)
Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 (DPP-4) Inhibitor |
|
|
Label
Pramlintide |
(Label)
Amylin Analog |
|
|
MOA
Exenatide |
Incretin GLP-1 stimulates glucose-dependent insulin secretion and insulin biosynthesis. Also promotes satiety.
This is the MOA of what drug? |
|
|
MOA
Sitagliptin |
DDP-4 inhibitor
Slows inactivation of incretin (GLP-1) This is the MOA of what drug? |
|
|
What degrades GLP-1?
|
What does Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) degrade?
|
|
|
What does Exendin-4 do? Where is it found?
|
GLP-1 agonist found in the saliva of the gila monster. What is it?
|
|
|
Exenatide is a derivative of ____ and is resistant to ____.
|
What medication is a derivitive of exendin-4 and is resistant to degredation by DPP-4?
|
|
|
Which anti-diabetic medication reduces A1C, FPG, and PPG?
|
Exenatide has what effects on diabetic blood testing?
|
|
|
MOA
Amylin Analog Sitagliptin |
Which medication is an analog of a peptide co-secreted with insulin from B-cells and helps suppress glucagon secretion as well as appetite?
|
|
|
Label
Desmopressin (DDVAP) |
(Label)
Synthetic Vasopressin Analogue |
|
|
Label
Arginine |
(Label)
Synthetic Vasopressin Analogue |
|
|
Label
Demeclocycline |
(Label)
Synthetic Vasopressin Analogue |
|
|
Label
Tolvaptan |
(Label)
Synthetic Vasopressin Analogue (Vaptan) |
|
|
Label
Conivaptan |
(Label)
Synthetic Vasopressin Analogue (Vaptan) |
|
|
What is the major physiologic function of oxytocin?
|
Milk ejection is the major physiologic function of which hormone?
|
|
|
Which hormone stimulates the contraction of myoepithelial cells of the breast?
|
What is the mechanism by which oxytocin performs its major physiologic function (milk letdown)?
|
|
|
Label
Pitocin |
(Label)
Injectible Oxytocin |
|
|
Label
Syntocin |
(Label)
Injectible Oxytocin |
|
|
Label
Nasal spray oxytocin (?) |
(Label)
Synthetic Oxytocin |
|
|
A slow IV infusion of what hormone can initiate labor, but won't cause contractions?
|
Oxytocin can be given as a slow IV infusion to have what effect?
|
|
|
What medication can be given after passage of the baby's head to help control post-partum bleeding?
|
Oxytocin can be given after passage of the baby's head to have what effect?
|
|
|
What form of oxytocin is used to stimulate milk ejection?
|
Nasal spray oxytocin can be used for what effect?
|
|
|
What is the major role of vasopressin (ADH)?
|
What hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating reabsorbtion of water by the collecting ducts of the kidney?
|
|
|
What part of the hypothalamus secretes vasopressin?
|
Supra optic nucleus of the hypothalamus secretes what hormone?
|
|
|
What part of the hypothalamus secretes oxytocin?
|
The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus secretes what hormone?
|
|
|
MOA
Oxytocin |
Which hormone acts on G-protein rcptrs to increase phospholipase C and open voltage gated Ca channels?
|
|
|
MOA
Vasopressin |
Which hormones v2 rcptrs activate Gs, then adenylyl cyclase, causing increase in cAMP dependent protein kinase and synthesis of PGE2?
|
|
|
When is ADH vasopressin secreted?
|
What hormone is released in a patient with hyperosmolar plasma or decreased volume?
|
|
|
MOA
Bisphosphanates |
What medications act as pyrophosphate analogs to inhibit osteoclast formation and resorbtion and proton pumps, and also stimulate apoptosis?
|
|
|
Label
Teriparatide |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Calcitonin |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Ergocalciferol |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Doxercalciferol |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Maxacalcitol |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Calcitrol |
(Label)
Agents affecting Ca Homeostasis |
|
|
Label
Etidronate Sodium |
(Label)
1st generation Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Alendronate |
(Label)
2nd generation Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Pamidronate |
(Label)
2nd generation Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Tiludronate |
(Label)
2nd generation Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Ibandronate |
(Label)
Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Zoldronic Acid |
(Label)
Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Risedronate |
(Label)
3rd generation Bisphosphanate |
|
|
Label
Cinacalcet |
(Label)
Calcimimetic |
|
|
Which drugs used to treat Paget's disease often cause GI distress?
|
Bisphosphanates are used to treat Paget's disease, but unfortunately, they often cause what adverse effects?
|
|
|
Which one of the following agents used to treat osteoporosis is likely to cause esophageal erosions?
|
Alendronate is used to treat what disease and has what adverse effect?
|
|
|
Which one of the following agents is likely to significantly affect the absorption of calcium supplements in the treatment of hypocalcemia?
|
Omeprazole is used to treat what condition, and may also affect the absorbtion of what?
|
|
|
Of the vasopressin/vasopressin analogue family available for clinical use, the agent having excellent antidiuretic effects but minimal pressor effects is?
|
Desmopressin has excellent ____, but minimal ____ effects.
|
|
|
What stimulates vasopressin secretion?
|
Thirst stimulates the secretion of what hormone?
|
|
|
Which anti-diabetic agent is specifically contraindicated in Class III CHF patients?
|
Metformin is contraindicated in patients with what heart condition?
|
|
|
Agranulocytosis and thrombocytopenia are associated with what thyroid medication?
|
Propylthiouracil has what severe adverse reactions?
|
|
|
What is the first line of therapy for treatment of Graves Disease?
|
Radioiodide is the first line of therapy for what condition?
|
|
|
The risk of which side effect is the greatest when initiating thyroid hormone replacement therapy in the elderly?
|
The risk of cardiotoxicity is greatest in which patient population initiating thyroid hormone replacement therapy?
|
|
|
A single bolus injection of what medication is used to test the responsiveness/function of pituitary gonadotrophs?
|
Gonadorelin hydrochloride has what major use?
|
|
|
A pulse treatment with what medication will increase fertility in males/females while maintaining rcptr sensitivity?
|
Gonadorelin acetate has what major use?
|
|
|
A pulse release of what hormone will stimulate release of LH and FSH, while continuous release of the same hormone suppresses the release of gonadotropins?
|
What is the difference between a pulse dose and continuous administration of GnRH?
|
|
|
What type of therapy (continuous/pulse) is used as a treatment for prostate cancer?
|
Continuous GnRH therapy is sometimes used to treat what type of cancer?
|
|
|
Label
Ganirelix |
(Label)
GnRH Antagonist |
|
|
Label
Cetrorelix |
(Label)
GnRH Antagonist |
|
|
Label
Abarelix |
(Label)
GnRH Antagonist |
|
|
What is the MOA for LH in stimulating Leydig Cells in testes to secrete testosterone?
|
What hormone binds the GPCR, stimulates adenylate cyclase, which then stimulates synthesis of enzymes for testosterone production?
|
|
|
What is the MOA for FSH in stimulating Sertoli Cells to produce testosterone?
|
What hormone stimulates adenylate cyclase to increase the synthisis of androgen binding protein, p450 aromatase, then growth factors, and inhibins?
|
|
|
What is the function of 5-alpha reductase?
|
What hormone converts testosterone to its more potent Dihydrotestosterone form and 17-B estradiol?
|
|
|
What are the metabolic effects of testosterone?
|
Increased VLDL, LDL
Decreased HDL These are the metabolic effects of what hormone? |
|
|
Modified testosterone is inactivated by what?
|
1st pass metabolism in the liver causes inactivation of what hormone?
|
|
|
Label
Cyclopentylproprionate |
(Label)
Modified Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Enanthate |
(Label)
Modified Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Undecanoate |
(Label)
Modified Testosterone |
|
|
How does Undecanoate avoid first pass metabolism by the liver?
|
Which orally administered hormone is absorbed through the lymphatics to avoid first pass metabolism by the liver?
|
|
|
Label
Androderm |
(Label)
Modified Testosterone |
|
|
How is Androderm administered?
|
Which hormone is available in a transdermal patch for men?
|
|
|
Label
Androgel |
(Label)
Modified Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Testosterone Proprionate |
(Label)
SA IM Esterified Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Testosterone Cypionate |
(Label)
LA IM Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Testosterone Enanthate |
(Label)
LA IM Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Methylestosterone |
(Label)
SA Oral Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Fluoxymesterone |
(Label)
SA Oral Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Danazol |
(Label)
SA Oral Testosterone |
|
|
Label
Nandrolone* |
(Label)
LA IM Testosterone (19-Nortestosterone Decanoate) *Anabolic activity |
|
|
How would testosterone help to treat anemia?
|
What medication can stimulate erythropoetin activity from the kidneys and stimulate bone marrow cells to treat anemia?
|
|
|
What type of breast cancer patient might benefit from testosterone treatment?
|
Pre-menopausal women with extensive metabolism, especially to bone, might benefit from treatment with what medication?
|
|
|
Label
Cyproterone Acetate |
(Label)
Anti-Androgen |
|
|
MOA
Cyproterone Acetate |
Which medication is a progestin that competetively inhibits other androgens from binding androgen receptors?
|
|
|
What medication is used palliatively for advanced prostate cancer, as well as to treat hirsutism and acne in women?
|
Cyproterone acetate can be used palliatively to treat what condition in men, or as what other conditions in women?
|
|
|
Label
Flutamide |
(Label)
Anti-Androgens |
|
|
Label
Bicalutamide |
(Label)
Anti-Androgen |
|
|
Label
Nilutamide |
(Label)
Anti-Androgen |
|
|
MOA
Flutamide Bicalutamide Nilutamide |
Which medications prevent androgen uptake by inhibiting binding of androgens to rcptrs?
|
|
|
Which medications must be administered with a GnRH Analog to effectively block androgen action?
|
Flutamide
Bicalutamide Nilutamide These medications must be administered with what other meds? Why? |
|
|
Label
Finesteride |
(Label)
5-Alpha reductase Inhibitor |
|
|
Label
Dutasteride |
(Label)
5-Alpha reductase Inhibitor |
|
|
MOA
5-Alpha reductase Inhibitor |
Which medications inhibit the conversion of testosterone to DHT?
|
|
|
What is the best treatment for BPH?
|
5-alpha reducatase inhibitors are generally used to treat what condition?
|
|
|
Low dose Finesteride (Propecia) is used to treat what condition?
|
Male Pattern Baldness is treated with what medication?
|
|
|
MOA
Spironolactone |
Which medication decreases the concentration of p450 enzymes to decrease testosterone?
|
|
|
Label
Spironolactone |
(Label)
Aldosterone Antagonist |
|
|
Which antibiotic can interfere with p450 to decrease testosterone?
|
Ketokoazole is what type of medication, and how does it decrease testosterone?
|
|
|
Which histamine rcptr antagonist can also decrease testosterone?
|
Cimetidine is what type of medication that can have what additional effects besides those it was meant for?
|
|
|
What is the adverse effect associated with a large dose of Cimetidine?
|
Gynecomastia is associated with a large dose of what medication, and sometimes happens to patients being treated for Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?
|
|
|
What causes emesis?
|
What is caused by the stimulation of Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) and the vomitting center?
|
|
|
Which receptors are activated prior to vomitting?
|
Dopamine and Serotonin receptors are activated prior to what action?
|
|
|
Chemical stimuli and afferent input from the vestibular system can cause what?
|
Vomitting is caused by what type of input and stimuli?
|
|
|
Label
Prochlorperazine |
(Label)
Phenothiazine Antiemetic |
|
|
MOA
Prochlorperazine |
Which antiemetic acts by blocking the dopamine receptors?
|
|
|
MOA
5-HT3 Inhibitors |
Which medications block receptors located in the vomitting center and CTZ?
|
|
|
Label
Ondansetron |
(Label)
5-HT3 Inhibitor |
|
|
Label
Granisetron |
(Label)
5-HT3 Inhibitor |
|
|
Label
Dolasetron |
(Label)
5-HT3 Inhibitor |
|
|
Which medications are highly effective in preventing chemotherapy emesis if given before treatment?
|
5-HT3 Inhibitors are highly effectacious in what treatment?
|
|
|
Label
Metoclopramide |
(Label)
Antiemetic |
|
|
MOA
Metoclopramide |
Which medication is a central dopamine antagonist that elevates the CTZ threshold?
|
|
|
What medication could you use to prevent vomitting due to slow gastric emptying?
|
Metoclopramide can be used to prevent chemotherapy induced emesis, as well as what other type?
|
|
|
Label
Diphenhydramine |
(Label)
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic |
|
|
Label
Meclizine |
(Label)
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic |
|
|
Label
Hyoscine |
(Label)
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic |
|
|
Which antiemetics are used to prevent motion sickness?
|
H1 Antihistamines are often used to prevent what condition?
|
|
|
Sedation and dry mouth are the major adverse effects of what medications?
|
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic have what most common adverse effects?
|
|
|
Label
Dronabinol |
(Label)
Cannabinoid Antiemetic |
|
|
MOA
Cannabinoid Antiemetic |
Which antiemetic inhibits the vomitting control mechanism?
|
|
|
Label
Hyoscine |
(Label)
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic |
|
|
Which antiemetics are used to prevent motion sickness?
|
H1 Antihistamines are often used to prevent what condition?
|
|
|
Sedation and dry mouth are the major adverse effects of what medications?
|
H1 Antihistamine Antiemetic have what most common adverse effects?
|
|
|
Label
Dronabinol |
(Label)
Cannabinoid Antiemetic |
|
|
MOA
Cannabinoid Antiemetic |
Which antiemetic inhibits the vomitting control mechanism?
|
|
|
Which antiemetic is usually administered with phenothiazines to create a synergistic effect?
|
Cannabinoids are often combined with what medications to create a synergistic effect?
|
|
|
Label
Psyllium |
(Label)
Bulk forming Laxative |
|
|
MOA
Bulk-forming Laxatives |
Which laxatives work on the small and large intestine to increase bulk and moisture content in order to stimulate peristalsis?
|
|
|
Label
Lactulose |
(Label)
Osmotic Laxative |
|
|
Label
Magnesium Citrate |
(Label)
Osmotic Laxative |
|
|
Label
Senna |
(Label)
Stimulant Laxative |
|
|
Label
Docusate |
(Label)
Stool Softening Laxative (Stool Surfactant Agent) |
|
|
MOA
Lactulose |
Which laxative acts on the colon , retaining ammonia to create an osmotic effect?
|
|
|
MOA
Saline Cathartic (Magnesium Citrate) |
Which laxative promotes peristalsis in the small intestine and creates an osmotic effect by inducing cholecystokinin release from duodenum?
|
|
|
MOA
Senna |
Which laxative acts directly on colon smooth muscle to increase peristalsis?
|
|
|
MOA
Docusate |
Which laxative works on the small and large intestine to facilitate penetration of fat and water into stool by lowering surface tension?
|
|
|
Electrolyte disturbances can be seen with which laxative?
|
Magnesium citrate has what adverse effect?
|
|
|
Urine discoloration with fluid/electrolyte depletion can be seen with which laxative?
|
Senna can have what adverse effects?
|
|
|
What are the most effective anti-diarrheal agents?
|
Opiods make the most effective ________.
|
|
|
Label
Diphenoxylate |
(Label)
Antidiarrheal Agent (Opioid?) |
|
|
Label
Loperamide |
(Label)
Antidiarrheal Agent (Opioid?) |
|
|
MOA
Diphenoxylate Loperamide...sorta |
Which antidiarrheal agent inhibits mucosal peristaltic reflex to decrease GI motility?
|
|
|
Which anti-diarrheal agent is metabolized to active metabolite Difenoxin?
|
What is the active metabolite of Diphenoxylate?
|
|
|
Which anti-diarrheal agent is usually formulated with an antimuscarinic alkaloid (atropine)?
|
Diphenoxylate is usually formulated with what other agent?
|
|
|
Label
Bismuth Subsalicylate |
(Label)
Anti-diarrheal Antisecretory Agent |
|
|
MOA
Bismuth Subsalicylate |
Which Antidiarrheal agent inhibits prostaglandin synthesis to reduce hypermotility and inflammation?
|
|
|
Which antidiarrheal is hydrolized in the gut to salicylate, giving it antisecretory, antiinflammatory, AND antibacterial effects?
|
Bismuth Subsalicylate is hydrolized to what byproduct, which has what effects?
|
|
|
What 4 things can you do to treat GERD?
|
Lifestyle Changes
Antacids H2 Antagonists Proton Pump Inhibitors These are 4 things you can use to treat what condition? |
|
|
Label
Sulfasalazine |
(Label)
Aminosalicylate for IBD |
|
|
Label
Olsalazine |
(Label)
Aminosalicylate for IBD |
|
|
Label
Balsalzide |
(Label)
Aminosalicylate for IBD |
|
|
MOA
Aminosalicylate for IBD |
What treatment for IBD releases 5-aminosalicylic acid in large intestine to inhibit the synthesis of PGs and LTs?
|
|
|
Label
Pentasa (TR) Asacol |
(Label)
Meselamine compound for IBD |
|
|
Label
Rowasa |
(Label)
Meselamine compound for IBD |
|
|
Label
Canasa |
(Label)
Meselamine compound for IBD |
|
|
MOA
Mesalamine Compounds for IBD |
Which IBD treatment modulates LT's, scavanges free radicals, and inhibits TNF?
|
|
|
What are the corticosteroids that can be used for IBD?
|
Prednisone
Prednisolone Methylrednisolone Hydrocortisone These medications can be given orally or rectally to treat what condition? |
|
|
Label
Azathioprine |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD |
|
|
Label
6-Mercaptopurine |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD |
|
|
Label
Methotrexate |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD |
|
|
Label
Cyclosporine |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD |
|
|
Label
Infliximab (Remicade) |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD (Biological Response Modifier) |
|
|
MOA
IBD Immunosuppressants |
Which IBD treatment inhibits purine synthesis and reduce the need for long term corticosteroid use?
|
|
|
What is the main use for Infliximab and its MOA?
|
Which TNF-alpha antagonist inhibits the induction of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6) in the treatment of severe Chrohn's disease?
|
|
|
Label
Dicyclomine |
(Label)
Antispasmodic Agent for IBS |
|
|
Label
Cyclosporine |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD |
|
|
Label
Infliximab (Remicade) |
(Label)
Immunosuppressant for IBD (Biological Response Modifier) |
|
|
MOA
IBD Immunosuppressants |
Which IBD treatment inhibits purine synthesis and reduce the need for long term corticosteroid use?
|
|
|
What is the main use for Infliximab and its MOA?
|
Which TNF-alpha antagonist inhibits the induction of proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6) in the treatment of severe Chrohn's disease?
|
|
|
Label
Dicyclomine |
(Label)
Antispasmodic Agent for IBS |
|
|
Label
Scopolamine |
(Label)
Antispasmodic Agent for IBS |
|
|
Label
Amitriptyline |
(Label)
TC Antidepressant for IBS |
|
|
Label
Doxepin |
(Label)
TC Antidepressant for IBS |
|
|
MOA
TC Antidepressants for IBS |
Which treatment for IBS modulates pain symptoms by affecting neurotransmitter uptake?
|
|
|
Label
Paroxetine |
(Label)
SSRI for IBS |
|
|
Label
Fluoxetine |
(Label)
SSRI for IBS |
|
|
Label
Sertraline |
(Label)
SSRI for IBS |
|
|
MOA
SSRI's for IBS |
Which medications work on 5HT1 and 5HT2 receptors to reduce visceral sensitivity?
|
|
|
Label
Alosetron |
(Label)
5HT3 Antagonist for IBS |
|
|
MOA
5HT3 Antagonist for IBS |
Which treatment for IBS modulates visceral afferent activity to reduce hypersensitivity and hyperreactivity of large intestine?
|
|
|
Label
Tegeserod |
(Label)
Partial 5HT4 Agonist for IBS |
|
|
MOA
Partial 5HT4 Agonist for IBS |
Which treatment for IBS increases intestinal secretions and peristalsis while reducing sensitivity from bowel distension?
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Label
Aluminum Hydroxide + Magnesium Hydroxide |
(Label)
Antacid for PUD (Maalox) |
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Label
Aluminum Hydroxide + Magnesium Hydroxide + Simethicone |
(Label)
Antacid for PUD (Mylanta) |
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Label
Aluminum Hydroxide + Magnesium Carbonate |
(Label)
Antacid for PUD (Gaviscon) |
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Label
Calcium Carbonate |
(Label)
Antacid for PUD (Tums, Rolaids) |
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Label
Sodium Bicarbonate |
(Label)
Antacid for PUD |
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Magnesium should be avoided in patients with significant _____. When treating patients with PUD, try what alternative?
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Patients with significant renal impairment should avoid _____. When treating PUD, use Calcium Carbonate or Sodium Bicarbonate.
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When using Antacids, drug bioavailability of which drugs is significantly reduced?
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The bioavailability of Tetracyclines and Ciprofloxacillin can be drastically reduced when using what other drugs?
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Antacids may interfere with the absorbtion of what other drugs?
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Digoxin, Ketoconazole, and Isoniazid may not be absorbed if they are taken with what other medication?
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Name the H2 antagonists used in treatment of PUD?
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Cimetadine
Ranitidine Nizatidine Famotidine These are what type of meds? |
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MOA
H2 Receptor Antagonists for PUD |
Which treatment of PUD is highly selective for and competetively inhibits H2 Receptors on parietal cells?
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Which H2 antagonist inhibits the secretion of gastric acid at night?
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Why can Nizatidine be used effectively in the treatment of PUD?
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MOA
Proton Pump Inhibitor |
Which medications cause irreversible inhibition of H/K/ATPase?
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PPI's work more effectively than _____.
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H2 Antagonists work less effectively than _____.
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Which is the most potent H2 Antagonist?
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Famotidine is the ____ potent of the H2 Antagonists.
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Label
Omeprazole |
(Label)
Proton Pump Inhibitor for PUD |
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Label
Lansoprazole |
(Label)
Proton Pump Inhibitor for PUD |
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Label
Esomeprazole |
(Label)
Proton Pump Inhibitor for PUD |
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Label
Pantoprazole |
(Label)
Proton Pump Inhibitor for PUD |
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Label
Rabeprazole |
(Label)
Proton Pump Inhibitor for PUD |
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Which medications are converted to active form in parietal cell canaliculi?
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Omeprazole and Lansoprazole are converted where?
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Which medications are converted to active form in the secretory surface of gastric parietal cells?
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Esomeprazole is converted where?
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Decreased elimination of what medications is caused by Omeprazole or Exomeprazole selective inhibition of p450-2C19?
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Phenytoin, Diazepam, or Warfarin can have ______ elimination due to the effect of what medications on the p450 enzymes?
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Which medications for PUD have no interaction with the p450 enzymes?
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Rabeprazole and Pantoprazole have what in common?
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Label
Bismuth Subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) |
(Label)
Cytoprotective Agent for PUD |
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What is the first line triple therapy for PUD?
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PPI
+ Clarithromycin + Amoxacillin/Metronidazole What is this? |
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What is the bismuth based 4 drug regimen?
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PPI
+ Bismuth Subsalicylate + Metronidazole + Tetracycline/Amoxacillin/Clarithromycin What is this? |
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Use what medications in people who get ulcers from NSAIDS?
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Use Cox-2 Inhibitors as an alternative to what meds in patients with PUD?
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What is the drug of choice for Zollinger Ellison?
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PPI's are the drug of choice in what Syndrome?
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