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266 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. A yellowing of the skin, sclera, and other tissues by excess circulating bilirubin is defined as:
a. hypobilirubinemia
b. jaundice
c. hepatic cyst
d. fatty LV
b. jaundice
2. Which of the following is sometimes absent in the case of metastatic carcinoma of the LV?
a. weight loss
b. anorexia
c. jaundice
d. fever
c. jaundice
3. Acute inflammation of the GB usually caused by cycstic duct obstruction by an impacted stone:
a. acute cholecystitis; Murphy's sign
b. primary LV cancer; RUQ mass
c. cholecystitis; palpable RLQ mass
d. acute choledocholithiasis, obstructive jaundice
a. acute cholecystitis; Murphy's sign
4. Ascites is defined as:
a. excessive accumulation of lipid in heptocytes
b. calculi in the bile ducts
c. funtional obstruction of blood flow in the portal system
d. accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity
d. accumulation of fluid in peritoneal cavity
5. Which of the following is not one of the rotator cuff muscles?
a. supraspinatus
b. teres minor
c. infraspinatus
d. supracapularis
d. supracapularis
6. Which of the following exercises should be avoided in a patient with lateral epicondylitis?
a. wrist extension
b. golfing
c. pronation of the wrist
d. squeezing of objects, such as a rubber ball
a. wrist extension
7. Which of the following diseases is NOT related to a disorder of ANTERIOR pituitary?
a. hyperprolactinemia
b. Cushing's
c. hyperpituitarism
d. TSH-secreting adenoma
b. Cushing's
8. Coarsening of facial features, deepening of the voice, ring tightening, and
oily skin are all features of what disease?
a. acromegaly
b. goiter
c. hypercortisolism
d. hyperthyroidism
a. acromegaly
9. Patient comes to you complaining of a severe steady ache in their
epigastrium, which seems to be related to meals since the pain comes an
hour or so after eating. Also, the patient says at times they experience a
radiating pain to their right scapula. What is the best diagnostic exam to
confirm your suspected diagnosis?
a. MRI
b. EKG
c. ultrasound
d. X-rayv
c. ultrasound (gallstones)
10. Reye’s syndrome is associated with:
a. pancreatic tumor
b. fatty liver
c. hepatitis
d. stomatitis
b. fatty liver
11. “Wry neck” is a term associated with:
a. torticollis
b. acute inflammation of the cervical spine
c. rhomboiditis
d. spasm of the paraspinal muscles
a. toricollis
12. Another name for stomatitis:
a. inflammation of the stomach
b. canker sores
c. tophi
d. oral cancer
a. inflammation of the ST

tophi = stone from gout
13. In monoarticular infectious arthritis, which of the following joints are
affected in most cases?
a. DIP
b. PIP
c. hip
d. wrist
c.hip
14. Heberden’s nodes are associated with what condition?
a. osteomylelitis
b. gout
c. osteoarthritis
d. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoarthritis
15. Tophi is associated with what condition?
a. gout
b. osteomyelitis
c. chondrosarcoma
d. bursitis
a. gout
16. Patient complains of pain on the lateral side of their right arm and the
medical aspect of their right scapula. You decide to perform muscle testing
on the deltoid and biceps muscles, and notice that the right arm has
decreased strength in relation to arm abduction and arm flexion in
comparison with the left. A sensory test on the lateral deltoid of the right
arm reveals decreased sensation in comparison to the left. What nerve root
do you suspect?
a. C5
b. C6
c. C7
d. C8
a. C5
17. The most common benign bone tumor is:
a. osteoid osteoma
b. chondroblastoma
c. osteochondroma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
c. osteochondroma (bone cartilidge tumor)
18. Which of the following is a hemopoietic bone tumor?
a. multiple myeloma
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. malignant fibrous histiocytoma
a. multiple myeloma
19. Which of the following has a predilection for metaphyses of long bones?
a. chondrosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. multiple myeloma
b. osteosarcoma
20. Paget’s disease of bone is best described as:
a. a malignant mesenchymal tumor where the cancerous cells produce bone matrix
b. progressive deterioration and loss of articular cartilage accompanied by
proliferation of new bone and soft tissues in and around the involved joint
c. reduction of bone mass causing bone weakness
d. chronic disorder of the adult skeleton with localized areas of hyperactive bone,
and replacement of the normal matrix with softened or enlarged bone
d. chronic disorder of the adult skeleton with localized areas of hyperactive bone,
and replacement of the normal matrix with softened or enlarged bone
21. Which of the following is NOT a common site for an osteoporosis-related
fracture?
a. shoulder
b. hip
c. vertebra
d. distal radius
a. shoulder
22. Patient has pain in the jaw and face, and reports that chewing aggravates
the symptoms. What muscles are involved?
a. internal and external pterygoids, temporalis, and masseter
b. internal pterygoids and masseter
c. external pterygoids and temporalis
d. internal pterygoids, masseter, and temporalis
a. internal and external pterygoids, temporalisis, and masseter
23. Which of the following types of infections are not a cause of stomatitis?
a. bacterial
b. parasitic
c. viral
d. fungal
b. parasitic
24. Systemic stomatitis will result in:
a. strawberry tongue
b. hypervitaminosis
c. risk of stomach rupture
d. increases desire for hot, spicy food
a. strawberry tongue
25. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is associated with herpes simplex type I.
After the virus runs its course and moves into the ganglion, what can cause
reactivation and formation of ulcers?
a. dehydration
b. anorexia
c. stress
d. exposure to heavy metals
c. stress
26. What condition is associated with multiple myeloma?
a. hyperkalemia (elevated potassium)
b. hypomagnesemia (decreased magnesium)
c. hypernatremia (elevated sodium)
d. hypercalcemia (elevated calcium)
d. hypercalcemia
27. A graft between identical twins is known as:
a. autograft
b. syngenic graft
c. allograft
d. senograft
b. syngenic graft
28. The most common cause of muscle or joint injury is:
a. overuse
b. underuse
c. strain or sprain
d. weak supporting muscles
a. overuse
29. Amenorrhea and galactorrhea in women, and hypogonadism in men, are
clinical features in what disease?
a. hypoprolactinemia
b. hyperpituitarism
c. acromegaly
d. hyperprolactinemia
d. hyperprolactinemia
30. A young female patient, mother of 2, comes into your office reporting
polyuria and polydipsia. She reports her medical doctor ordered a fluid
deprivation test to confirm a diagnosis. What condition does this patient
have?
a. Cushing’s disease
b. IDDM (insulin dependent diabetes mellitus)
c. DI (diabetes insipidus)
d. hypothyroidism
c. DI (diabetes insipidus)
31. A 73 year-old female comes in your office for help with pain after suffering
a fractured vertebral body in her lumbar spine a little over one year ago.
What condition does this patient have?
a. type I osteoporosis
b. type II osteoporosis
c. type III osteoporosis
d. type IV osteoporosis
? just know osteoporosis
32. Shifting dullness, spider angioma, bulging flanks, and palmar erythema are
signs present in the evaluation of what?
a. fatty liver
b. ascites
c. esophageal varices
d. Korsakoff’s syndrome
b. ascites
33. Which site of the body is almost always affected in gouty arthritis?
a. thumb
b. big toe
c. elbow
d. wrist
b. big toe
34. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of hypopituitarism?
a. failure of lactation
b. reduced lean body mass
c. infertility in women
d. hypergonadism in men
d. hypergonadism in men (hypogonadism in men is a clinical feature)
35. The following are features of kidney transplant rejection EXCEPT:
a. hypotension
b. weight gain
c. fever
d. proteinuria
a. hypotension
36. B antibody deficiency, T cell deficiency, phagocytic disorders, and
complement disorders are all classifications of what?
a. secondary immunodeficiency
b. x-linked agammaglobinemia
c. hypersensitivity disorder
d. primary immunodeficiency
d. primary immunodeficiency
37. Congenital immunodeficiency characterized by absence or hypoplasia of the
thymus and parathyroid glands, with partial or complete T-cell
immunodeficiency but normal B-cell immunity, describes what disease?
a. x-linked agammaglobinemia
b. selective IgA deficiency
c. DiGeorge anomaly
d. type I hypersensitivity disorder
c. DiGeorge syndrome anomally
38. Please match the following with the following choices (next page):
a. type I hypersensitivity
b. type II hypersensitivity
c. type III hypersensitivity
d. type IV hypersensitivity
1. allergic rhinitis 7. urticaria
2. hemolytic anemias 8. acute glomeronephritis
3. SLE. 9. tuberculin test
4. RA 10. angioedema
5. conjunctivitis 11. food allergy
6. contact dermatitis
1. Allergic rhinitis type I
2. Hemolytic anemia type II
3. SLE type III
4. RA type III
5. Conjunctivitis type I
6. Contact dermatitis type IV
7. Urticaria type I
8. Acute glomeronephritis (strep) type III
9. Tuberculin test type IV
10. Angioedema type I
11. Food allergy type I
39. Myxedema coma is a complication of:
a. hypothyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism
c. aldosteronism
d. diabetes mellitus
a. hypothyroidism
40. Which type of cells are involved in graft-vs-host disease?
a. B cells
b. T cells
c. stem cells
d. nerve cells
a. B cells
41. Which of the following is NOT a cause of liver cirrhosis?
a. alcohol
b. viral hepatitis
c. hepatic encephalopathy
d. hemochromatosis
c. hepatic encephalopathy (liver failure)
42. Anaphylaxis is a systemic reaction mediated by which of the following:
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgG
a. IgA
43. What drug is the primary treatment for anaphylactic shock?
a. HBIG
b. metformin
c. carbimazole
d. epinephrine
d. epinephrine
44. A decrease in WBC count, RBC count, and platelets define which condition?
a. hyposplenism
b. hyperalbuminemia
c. pancytopenia
d. renal failure
c. pancytopenia (pan=all)
45. Nervousness, irritability, heat intolerance, xs sweating, palpitations, and
weight loss are seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
a. thyrotoxicosis
b. hypothyroidism
c. Graves disease
d. toxic goiter
b. hypothyroidism
46. Which hormone controls the production of RBC’s?
a. parathyroid
b. erythropoietin
c. calcitonin
d. angiotensin
b. erythropoietin (precursor in bone marrow)
47. Which of the following solutions has the highest osmotic pressure?
a. 100mg of NaCl in 100ml of water
b. 250mg of NaCl in 500ml of water
c. 300mg of NaCl in 3,000ml of water
d. 110mg of NaCl in 1,000ml of water
a. 100mg NaCl in 100mL of water (100%)
48. Which of the following cells has the longest life span?
a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. RBC
d. RBC
49. Where is renin secreted?
a. nephrons
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus
c. afferent arteriole
d. renal medulla
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus
50. A young female patient comes to your office reporting fatigue, headaches,
poor digestion, and stress. You ask her when her last meal was, and she
states she has not eaten since lunch yesterday. She is worried because she
has a big exam coming up, and cannot seem to concentrate. You tell her
that consistent intake of glucose is most important for which system?
a. nervous system
b. digestive system
c. reproductive system
d. hepatic system
a. nervous system
51. Why are “essential” amino acids named that way?
a. they are necessary for cell function
b. they are only found in foods we eat
c. they need other “essential” substances in order to work properly
d. they function as coenzymes for other cell functions
b. they are only found in the foods we eat
52. A young male patient that you have been treating for 2 weeks for stress
comes in looking obviously upset. He has not eaten or slept since his last
visit four days ago. His eyes are red, as if he has been crying, he seems
depressed, and talks of thoughts of planning for his death. What should you
do?
a. change your treatment plan for today, since it does not seem to be working for
him
b. needle the outer shu points since they are good for emotional problems
c. hold off on treating him and talk to him, then call a mental professional for a
referral
d. go into your office privately and call a relative immediately, since he could
endanger himself
c. hold off on treating him and talk to him, then call a mental professional for a referral
53. Which is the most common form of an inhaled poison?
a. nail polish remover
b. spray paint
c. carbon monoxide
d. pool cleaners
c. carbon monoxide
54. You suspect a patient has ingested a poisonous substance. For which of
the following types of patients should you NOT induce vomiting?
a. pregnant women
b. gag reflex present
c. children
d. vomiting should never be induced
a. pregnant women
55. Which of the following is a cause of hypoglycemia?
a. too much food
b. not eating meals on time
c. too little insulin
d. decreased physical activity
b. not eating meals on time
56. Kussmauls respirations is a sign of:
a. hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. pulmonary edema
d. myocardial infarction
a. hyperglycemia
57. Bronchospasm, swelling, and plugging of bronchi by thick mucous
secretions are all signs of:
a. impending myocardial infarction
b. ingestion of a poison
c. HTN
d. acute asthma attack
d. acute asthma attack
58. A patient comes into your office early in the morning, and reports having
experienced severe abdominal pain last night a few hours after dinner, and
it has lasted more than 6 hours. What do you suggest?
a. the patient should drink milk of magnesia
b. ask the patient if they had breakfast, to make sure these are not the side effects
of hunger
c. have the patient transported to the hospital
d. tell the patient they should make an appointment with their medical doctor
c. have the patient transported to the hospital
59. Bell’s palsy is more common in:
a. diabetics with low blood pressure
b. pregnant women in their first trimester
c. those with history with psoriasis
d. those with history of Lyme disease
d. those with history of Lyme disease
60. A 56 year-old female has been seeing you for 3 weeks. She lives alone,
does not have any children, and lost her husband 3 years ago. Every time
she comes in your office, she has a new complaint. Today, she says she
must have something wrong with her blood, because she cannot stop
bruising. You ask her where the bruises are, and she shows you her lower
legs, which are very bruised and discolored, as though she were in an
accident. She denies any trauma to the area. What condition do suspect?
a. hypochondriac
b. elder abuse
c. Munchausen syndrome
d. severe blood disorder
c. Munchausen syndrome
61. A blood pressure of 175/108 puts a person in what stage of HTN?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. high-normal range
b. stage 2
62. Cardiac output =
a. peripheral resistance / arterial blood volume
b. heart rate x blood pressure
c. RBC volume / blood volume
d. stroke volume x heart rate
d. stroke volume x heart rate
63. Which organ structure is NOT a target for damage due to HTN?
a. brain
b. heart
c. lung
d. retina
c. lung
64. A female patient comes to you worried because she has had several
fainting episodes. In taking the history, you discover that each episode
includes the fact that she went from a seated to standing position very
quickly. What is the probable cause of her fainting?
a. postural hypotension
b. vasovagal disturbance
c. carotid sinus hypersensitivity
d. hyperventilation syndrome
a. postural hypotension
65. Patient has lethargy, confusion, cold and moist hands and feet, a weak and
rapid pulse, and a systolic BP of <90mmHg. This patient’s condition?
a. anaphylaxis
b. cor pulmonale
c. shock
d. impending myocardial infarction
c. shock
66. What must you do in the case of hypovolemic shock?
a. replace the fluids depleted
b. increase the patient’s BP
c. administer digoxin
d. perform CPR
a. replace the fluids depleted
67. A condition in which the HT is unable to pump sufficient blood to tissues is
known as:
a. cardiac arrhythmia
b. congestive heart failure
c. mitral valve prolapse
d. cor pulmonale
b. congestive heart failure
68. Which condition is NOT related to the etiology of left ventricular (LV) heart
failure?
a. cor pulmonale
b. CAD
c. HTN
d. congenital heart disease
a. cor pulmonale
69. Please specify if each symptom is either LV (left ventricular) or RV (right
ventricular) failure.
a. fatigue on exertion
b. peripheral edema
c. pulmonary rales
d. jugular vein distention
e. dyspnea
f. intolerance to cold
g. hepatomegaly
a. LV fatigue on exertion
b. RV peripheral edema
c. LV pulmonary rales
d. RV jugular vein distention
e. LV dyspnea
f. LV intolerance to cold
g. RV hepatomegaly
70. A wide, bizarre QRS that is not preceded by a P wave is:
a. atrial fibrillation
b. pre-ventricular contraction
c. ventricular tachycardia
d. first degree AV block
b. pre-ventricular contraction
71. Sick sinus syndrome is:
a. sinus bradycardia
b. atrial fibrillation
c. ventricular tachycardia
d. premature atrial contraction
a. sinus bradycardia
72. Precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin is
characteristic of:
a. vertigo
b. orthostatic HTN
c. endocarditis
d. angina pectoris
a. vertigo
73. What is often an etiology of valvular heart disease?
a. strep A
b. rheumatic fever
c. meningococcus
d. mercury poisoning
b. rheumatic fever
74. Which side of the heart is usually involved in infective endocarditis?
a. the left
b. the right
c. either side equally
d. I have no idea
a. the left
75. Which type of aortic dissection is more severe?
a. ascending
b. descending
c. transluminal
d. peripheral
c. transluminal
76. Patient complains of severe, intermittent vertigo, ringing in their ears, and
hearing loss. What condition do they likely have?
a. BPH
b. brain abscess
c. aseptic meningitis
d. Meniere’s disease
d. Meniere's disease
77. Please specify if the symptom is either upper motor neuron (UMN)
dysfunction, or lower motor neuron (LMN) dysfunction.
a. reduced M. tone
b. M. atrophy
c. positive Babinski’s
d. diminished reflexes
e. spasticity of M.
a. reduced M. tone; LMN
b. M. atrophy; LMN
c. positive Babinski’s; UMN
d. diminished reflexes; LMN
e. spasticity of M.; UMN
78. Which test can aid in the diagnosis of meningitis?
a. lumbar puncture
b. Kernig’s sign
c. Brudzinski’s sign
d. all of the above
d. all
79. Multiple sclerosis involves:
a. destruction of the CNS myelin in the brain and spinal cord
b. PNS symptoms
c. plaques in the gray matter
d. loss of M. tone and hyporeflexia
a. destruction of the CNS myelin in the brain and spinal cord
80. Resting tremors, bradykinesia, and rigidity are signs in what disease?
a. radial nerve palsy
b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. thoracic outlet syndrome
c. Parkinson's disease
81. ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) involves:
a. sensory nerve abnormalities
b. motor neuron degeneration
c. loss of bowel and bladder control
d. disorientation
b. motor neuron degeneration
82. Which nerve is involved in CTS (carpal tunnel syndrome)?
a. radial
b. ulnar
c. brachial
d. median
d. median
83. An esophageal manometry measures the lower esophageal sphincter. This
is relevant in what disease?
a. peptic ulcer
b. gastroesophageal reflux disease
c. appendicitis
d. ulcerative colitis
b. gastroesophageal reflux disease GERD
84. What is a cause of dysmenorrhea?
a. oral contraceptives
b. danazol
c. prostaglandins
d. methotrexate
c. prostaglandins
85. Which is the most common type of skin CA?
a. basal cell carcinoma
b. squamous cell carcinoma
c. pustular psoriasis
d. atopic dermatitis
a. basal cell carcinoma
86. Passage of black, tarry stool is known as:
a. hematochezia
b. melena
c. hematemesis
d. occult stool
b. melena
87. Major blood loss is signified by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. a rise in pulse rate
b. a drop in systolic BP
c. warm, wet extremities
d. change in mental status
c. warm, wet extremities
88. Erosive gastritis is caused by the following EXCEPT:
a. H. pylori
b. Crohn’s disease
c. idiopathic
d. drugs
a. H. pylori
89. Elevated CA-125 serum levels is indicative of what disease?
a. trophoblastic disease
b. breast CA
c. cervical CA
d. ovarian CA
d. ovarian CA
90. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping, along with diplopia,
ptosis, and diminished light reflex are symptoms indicative of:
a. clostridium food poisoning
b. staphylococcal food poisoning
c. foodbourne botulism
d. malabsorptive diarrhea
c. foodbourne botulism
91. Signs and symptoms of malignant transformation of melanoma include all
of the following EXCEPT:
a. surrounding inflammation
b. no shape changes
c. ulceration
d. itching and pain
b. no shape changes
92. Thinning of the hair, or sudden hair loss, is known as:
a. alopecia
b. acne
c. psoriasis
d. moniliasis
a. alopecia
93. Undescended testes is known as:
a. polyps
b. cryptochidism
c. amyloidosis
d. nephritis
b. cryptochidism
94. About 75% of urinary calculi (stones) are composed of:
a. struvite
b. uric acid
c. cystine
d. calcium oxalate
d. calcium oxalate
95. A very important marker of this type of CA, CEA is also found high in about
70% of these types of patients:
a. adrenocarcinoma
b. renal cell carcinoma
c. colorectal CA
d. ovarian CA
c. colorectal CA
96. What does the word obstipation mean?
a. difficult bowel movement
b. abnormal bowel sounds
c. complete obstruction of bowel passage
d. an annoying person
c. complete obstruction of bowel passage
97. Which type of medication is useful in treating diarrhea?
a. kaolin
b. anthraquinone
c. emollient laxatives
d. mineral oil
a. kaolin
98. Which does NOT occur in pleuritis?
a. breathing sounds are increased
b. rapid and shallow respiration
c. stabbing pain
d. pain worse with coughing or breathing
a. breathing sounds are increased
99. In diagnosis of amenorrhea, which of the following is NOT tested?
a. progesterone challenge
b. anatomic defects
c. FSH levels
d. BRCA1
d. BRCA1 (breast cancer gene)
100. Patient has pain around the umbilicus, nausea and vomiting, rebound
tenderness at the RLQ, and a low grade fever. What do you suspect?
a. appendicitis
b. peritonitis
c. pancreatitis
d. paralytic ileus
a. appendicitis
101. Aspiration of oral anaerobes resulting in a localized cavity with pus and
necrosis of LU tissue is characteristic of:
a. pneumoconiosis
b. LU abscess
c. pleural effusion
d. LU tumor
b. LU abscess
102. Which substance is not released by the pancreas?
a. lipase
b. amylase
c. tryptophan
d. glucagon
c. tryptophan (amino acid)
103. Skip areas of inflammation are seen in which disease?
a. ulcerative colitis
b. IBS
c. diverticular disease
d. Crohn’s disease
d. Chron's disease
104. Patient presents with sudden onset of frequent, urgent, and burning of
urination, with no chills or fever, and no pelvic discomfort. What is this
patient’s probable diagnosis?
a. bacterial prostatitis
b. bacteriuria
c. cystitis
d. urethritis
c. cystitis (B1 infection. BL inflammation)
105. The detrusser M. of the bladder is innervated by:
a. the PNS
b. sympathetic nerves
c. somatic nervous system
d. thoracic outlet
a. the PNS
106. For diverticular disease, pain is recurrent in which quadrant of the abd?
a. LLQ
b. LUQ
c. RLQ
d. RUQ
a. LLQ
*out pockets of the colon due to weakness
107. Gardner’s syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, familial, hyperplastic,
juvenile, and inflammatory, are all types of:
a. CA
b. polyps
c. blood diseases
d. auto-immune diseases
b. polyps (precancerous)
108. ‘Increase in the serum creatinine concentration’ is the definition for:
a. tubulointerstitial disease
b. UTI
c. interstitial nephritis
d. renal failure
d. renal failure
109. Where is the abdominal aorta artery divided?
a. L2
b. L3
c. L4
d. L5
c. L4
110. Symptoms of uremic syndrome (weight loss, HTN, M. wasting,
confusion…) will develop with the serum creatinine level is greater than:
a. 0.5-2mg/dl
b. 2-4mg/dl
c. 4-6mg/dl
d. 6-8mg/dl
d. 6-8 mg/dl
111. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of chronic renal failure?
a. hyperkalemia
b. edema
c. hyperalbuminemia
d. proteinuria
c. hyperalbuminemia (severe dehydration)
112. Kegel exercises are useful in treating:
a. urinary incontinence
b. asthma
c. dysmenorrhea
d. hernia
a. urinary incontinence
113. Priapism is:
a. inflammation of the glans penis
b. a soft mass of a collection of veins in the scrotum
c. inflammation of the epididymis or testes
d. painful, persistent, abnormal erection
d. painful, persistent, abnormal erection
114. Pneumonia, aspiration of water or toxic irritants, and near-drowning can
lead to:
a. bronchitis
b. adult respiratory distress syndrome
c. asthma
d. bronchiectasis
b. adult respiratory distress syndrome
115. Episodic, reversible bronchial obstruction, and increase in the
responsiveness of the lower airways, describes:
a. bronchitis
b. adult respiratory distress syndrome
c. asthma
d. bronchiectasis
c. asthma
116. Tumor of the LU is more than 80% classified as:
a. small cell
b. large cell
c. squamous (epidermoid)
d. adenocarcinoma
c. squamous (epidermoid)
117. Black lung disease is known as:
a. bronchitis
b. pneumoconiosis
c. bronchogenic carcinoma
d. bronchiectasis
b. pneumoconiosis
118. Which is most severe:
a. open pneumothroax
b. closed pneumothorax
c. spontaneous pneumothorax
d. tension pneumothorax
d. tension pneumothorax
119. FEV1 = forced expiratory volume in the first second. When this is
decreased, what can it signal?
a. acute bronchitis
b. pulmonary embolism
c. COPD
d. bronchiectasis
c. COPD
120. Patient has chronic cough, sputum, and has brought in a chest x-ray from
his MD that shows bronchovascular markings such as “tram lines”. What
disease does this patient have?
a. bronchitis
b. adult respiratory distress syndrome
c. asthma
d. bronchiectasis
d. bronchiectasis (abnormal dilation)
121. Which of the following is NOT related to menopause?
a. reduction in estrogen and progesterone
b. reduction in FSH
c. chemotherapy
d. premature ovarian failure
b. reduction in FSH
122. Ovarian CA is the deadliest gynecological malignancy. Which is not a risk
in this disease?
a. family history
b. infertility
c. multiple births
d. colon CA
c. multiple births
123. Regarding the structure of the LU, which is correct?
a. there are three lobes on the left side
b. there are two lobes on the right side
c. there are three lobes on the right side
d. there are two lobes on both sides
c. there are three lobes on right side
124. Cough with productive, purulent, or rusty colored sputum is indicative of:
a. pneumococcal pneumonia
b. chronic bronchitis
c. pulmonary embolism
d. tumor of the LU
a. pneumococcal pneumonia
125. Previous thromboembolic disorders, LV disease, breast CA, or CAD are
absolutely CI for the use of what drug type?
a. antihistamines
b. oral contraceptives
c. beta blockers
d. calcium channel blockers
b. oral contraceptives
126. Mittelschmerz is another name for:
a. cyclic pelvic pain
b. non-cyclic pelvic pain
c. vulvovaginitis
d. complication of ovarian CA
a. cyclic pelvic pain
127. Fungal vaginitis is due to what organism?
a. trichomonas
b. gardnerella
c. candida albicans
d. HPV (human papilloma virus)
c. candida albicans
128. Cyclic pelvic pain, infertility, and dyspareumia can signify:
a. gynecomastia
b. endometriosis
c. ovarian CA
d. trophoblastic disease
b. endometriosis
129. Breast CA is hormone-dependent. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is the
most common precursor to invasive CA. What type of medicine can be used?
a. tamoxifen
b. estrogen
c. cisplatin
d. fluxetine
a. tamoxifen - antagonist of estrogen receptor
130. Greater than 80% of cervical CA is:
a. small cell
b. large cell
c. squamous cell
d. adenocarcinoma
c. squamous cell
131. A high BUN is indicative of:
a. protein deficiency
b. KD failure
c. LV cirrhosis
d. palpitations
b. KD failure
132. Which range demonstrates the normal range for blood sugar?
a. 55-70mg/100ml
b. 70-110mg/100ml
c. 115-220mg/100ml
d. 220-250mg/100ml
b. 70-110mg/100ml
133. Which of the following represents the normal time for blood to clot?
a. 1 1/2 - 2 minutes
b. 2 - 5 minutes
c. 5 - 10 minutes
d. 10 -12 minutes
c. 5-10 minutes
134. Serum bilirubin, serum albumin, ascites, encephalopathy, and nutritional
status will help classify the prognosis for what disease?
a. CA
b. emphysema
c. cirrhosis
d. renal failure
c. cirrhosis
135. Which is true regarding malaria?
a. there are three possible parasites that can result in malaria
b. cerebral malaria is a complication of plasmodium ovale
c. as the illness progresses, splenomegaly occurs
d. plasmodium malariae is a common parasite to cause malaria
c. as the illness progresses, splenomegaly occurs
136. What is the most deadly parasite that causes malaria?
a. plasmodium falciparum
b. plasmodium vivax
c. plasmodium malariae
d. plasmodium ovale
a. plasmodium falciparum
137. What is the most common parasite that causes malaria?
a. plasmodium falciparum
b. plasmodium vivax
c. plasmodium malariae
d. plasmodium ovale
b. plasmodium vivax
138. Which parasites involved with malaria do not persist in the LV?
a. plasmodium falciparum and plasmodium vivax
b. plasmodium vivax and plasmodium ovale
c. plasmodium malariae and plasmodium falciparum
d. plasmodium ovale and plasmodium vivax
c. plasmodium malariae and plasmodium falciparum
139. Which statement is NOT true regarding sunstroke?
a. classic heat stroke patients are often elderly
b. the body transfers heat in only 3 ways: radiation, evaporation, and conduction
c. some medications may cause high body temperatures
d. exertional heat stroke is a type of heat stroke
b. the body transfers heat in only 3 ways: radiation, evaporation, and conduction
140. Septic shock usually occurs most often in:
a. infants
b. people over 50
c. those with a compromised immune system
d. all of the above
d. all
141. Anaphylactic or type I reaction, as seen in allergic asthma, is produced by
what type of antibodies?
a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgA
a. IgE (emergent)
142. Which of the following tests is NOT helpful in the diagnosis of asthma?
a. FEV
b. peak-flow charts (PERF)
c. test for gardneralla pathogen
d. x-ray
c. test for gardneralla pathogen (cause vaginitis)
143. For the following sentences, please state whether each one is true or
false. Regarding the differential diagnosis between asthma, chronic bronchitis,
and emphysema:
a. asthma attacks are worse at night
b. constant dyspnea is associated with both chronic bronchitis and emphysema
c. asthma is the only one of the three that is associated with eczema
d. emphysema is neither worse at night nor in the AM, but it is all the time
e. bouts of dyspnea with chest infections is characteristic of emphysema
f. productive cough with profuse sputum is seen in chronic bronchitis
g. emphysema is characterized by narrowing of the bronchi by mucous
h. bronchospasm is what occurs with asthma
a. T asthma attacks are worse at night
b. F constant dyspnea (air hunger) is associated with both chronic bronchitis and emphysema
c. T asthma is the only one of the three that is associated with eczema
d. T emphysema is neither worse at night nor in the AM, but it is all the time
e. F bouts of dyspnea with chest infections is characteristic of emphysema
f. T productive cough with profuse sputum is seen in chronic bronchitis
g. F emphysema is characterized by narrowing of the bronchi by mucous
h. T bronchospasm is what occurs with asthma
144. Which of the following is not a deformity associated with rheumatoid
arthritis?
a. flexion contracture deformities
b. Boutonniere deformity
c. Dupuytren’s contracture
d. Swan-neck deformity
c. Dupuytren's contracture
145. Which of the following secretes histamine and heparin?
a. monocytes
b. neutrophils
c. basophils
d. eosinophils
c. basophils
146. Which of the following is a constituent of plasma and is involved in blood
osmotic pressure?
a. platelets
b. albumin
c. fibrinogen
d. sodium hydrochloride
b. albumin
147. Which of the following releases anti-inflammatory substances during an
allergic reaction?
a. eosinophils
b. neutrophils
c. basophils
d. monocytes
a. eosinophils
148. Patient presents with pain and weight loss, and the pain is often relieved
by bending forward. What do you suspect?
a. pancreatic cancer
b. carcinoid tumor of the small bowel
c. hepatocellular carcinoma
d. colonic polyps
a. pancreatic cancer
149. Hypertension is defined as:
a. BP > 150/80
b. BP > 140/90
c. BP > 160/80
d. BP > 140/80
b. BP > 140/90
150. Patient comes to you with diagnosis from a western doctor as having
bipolar disorder. What medication do you suspect she is likely on?
a. paxil
b. trazodone
c. lithium
d. effexor
c. lithium

paxil and trazodone = depression
effexor = muscle relaxor
151. A woman brings her child to your office to be treated. She says she
noticed he was suffering from abdominal pain this morning, and now has
lethargy, will not eat, and his speech seems slurred. They are in the middle of
renovating their house. What is your next action?
a. ask the mother if the child has started a new medication, suspecting he may be
allergic
b. have the child tested for lead poisoning
c. have a lumbar puncture performed to rule out bacterial meningitis
d. find out when the child had his last complete physical examination
b. have child tested for lead poisoning
152. Please pick the best definition of an FUO (fever of unknown origin):
a. >100 degrees F, developing on one specific occasion, suddenly, and lasting for
several hours
b. >101 degrees F, lasting sporadically over a period of 1 week
c. >100 degrees F, occurring after a period of travel to a foreign country
d. >101 degrees F, developing on several occasions over the course of more than 3
weeks
d. >101degrees F, developing on several occasions over the course of more than 3 weeks
153. Which of the following criteria is NOT considered in a diagnosis of
malnutrition?
a. intentional weight loss of >12% of usual body weight
b. body weight <90% of ideal height
c. a body mass index (BMI) of <18.5
d. unintentional weight loss of >10% of usual body weight
a. intentional weight loss of >12% of usual body weight
154. TMN staging system is used for what type of disease?
a. emphysema
b. cancer
c. sickle cell anemia
d. infective endocarditis
b. cancer
155. A female patient’s lab test shows the pH of her blood to be 7.39. This is
considered:
a. normal only for a child
b. acidic
c. basic
d. within the reference range
d. within reference range
(7.35-7.45)
156. Which of the following is NOT a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus?
a. congestive heart failure
b. end-stage renal disease
c. diarrhea and constipation
d. pulmonary edema
d. pulmonary edema
157. Under the diagnosis criteria for multiple sclerosis, which of the following
is NOT involved?
a. Posterior columns
b. pyramidal pathways
c. optic nerve
d. medial longitudinal fasciculus
a. posterior columns
158. A 45 year-old male patient presents in your office with tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia, and obvious abnormalities of gait and posture. He does not know
what brought on these symptoms, but is embarrassed to say that he sometimes
finds himself drooling at work. What disease do you suspect?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. cerebellar ataxia
c. Parkinson's
159. Patient has lost taste over anterior two-thirds of tongue. What cranial
nerve is involved?
a. VII
b. VI
c. X
d. VIII
a. VII

(posterior = CNIX)
160. What is the etiology for myasthenia gravis?
a. nerve entrapment
b. autoantibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions
c. inflammatory reaction on myelin sheaths
d. tumor of the spinal cord
b. autoantibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions
161. Which of the following disorders affects males almost exclusively?
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. vascular dementia
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. Duchenne dystrophy
d. Duchenne dystrophy
162. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Murphy’s sign?
a. this can be a sign of a GB problem
b. the exam involves pressure in the area of the right upper quadrant of the
abdomen
c. pain increases on expiration
d. there may be pain radiation to the right shoulder
b. the exam involves pressure in the area of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
163. A patient you have been seeing presents in your office. Upon performing
an abdominal palpation, you notice the patient grimaces and places their hands
over the abdominal area in a protective manner. You notice the abdomen feels
more rigid than you recall on past examinations. The patient informs you they
had surgery last week, and would like you to give them some herbs to ease the
pain they are now experiencing. What do you do?
a. suggest the patient go to bed for two days until their next treatment, and give
them a tonic formula to help recover from surgery
b. request that the patient see their physician right away for a follow-up from the
surgery
c. give the patient tao he cheng qi tang to aid their bowel movement, since
anesthesia can cause constipation, and thus pain
d. perform an examination to test for appendicitis
b. request that the patient see their physician right away for a follow up from the surgery
164. Pancreatitis is associated with increased levels of what?
a. sodium
b. intracellular protein
c. serum amylase
d. glucose
c. serum amylase
165. Which of the following would trigger release of renin?
a. decreased sodium concentration in the afferent arteriole
b. increased sodium concentration in the efferent arteriole
c. increased blood flow to the renal medulla
d. the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
a. decreased sodium concentration in the afferent arteriole
166. 1 gram of glucose =
a. 4 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 9 calories
d. 12 calories
a. 4 calories
167. 1 gram of protein =
a. 4 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 9 calories
d. 12 calories
a. 4 calories
168. 1 gram of fat =
a. 4 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 9 calories
d. 12 calories
c. 9 calories
169. Treponema pallidum is the causative agent in what disease?
a. tuberculosis
b. gonorrhea
c. yeast infections
d. syphilis
d. syphilis
170. Spreading of bacteria or toxins via the blood stream is known as:
a. toxemia
b. bacteriocosis
c. septicemia
d. pyrogenesis
c. septicemia
171. Which substance is needed when changing thrombin to prothrombin
during blood clotting?
a. sodium
b. potassium
c. calcium
d. phosphorus
c. calcium
172. ‘A common condition, either acute or chronic, characterized by pruritic,
edematous, pink to erythematous plaques with a whitish halo around the
margin of individual lesions.’ This is a definition of what skin disorder?
a. vasculitis
b. urticaria
c. warts
d. herpes zoster
b. urticaria
173. On what area of the body does impetigo lesions usually occur?
a. head
b. knees
c. elbows
d. face
b. knees
174. ‘Eruption of grouped vesicles on an erythematous base usually limited to a
single dermatome’ is characteristic of:
a. shingles
b. candidiasis
c. acne rosacea
d. herpes simplex
a. shingles
175. Local wheals and erythema in the superficial dermis is characteristic of:
a. urticaria
b. angioedema
c. eczema
d. telangiectasia
a. urticaria
176. What is a cause of psoriasis?
a. immune-mediated
b. nerve cell reaction
c. wind-damp-cold
d. burns to the skin
a. immune-mediated
177. For which of the following lesion descriptions would you expect
melanoma?
a. <6mm in diameter, asymmetric, irregular surface or border, with variation in color
b. <6mm in diameter, asymmetric, regular surface or border, no variation in color
c. >6mm in diameter, symmetric, regular surface or border, with variation in color
d. >6mm in diameter, asymmetric, irregular surface or border, with variation in color
d. >6mm in diameter, asymmetric, irregular surface or border, with variation in color
178. Here are the following choices to answer the definitions below:
macule papule patch pustule cyst
bulla vesicle plaque nodule wheal
a. transient elevated lesion due to accumulation of fluid in the upper dermis
b. a flat circumscribed lesion less than 2cm that is a different color than surrounding
tissue
c. vesicular lesion with fluid greater than 1cm in diameter
d. flat circumscribed lesion (like a macule) that is greater than 2cm in diameter
e. well-marginated focal accumulation of inflammatory cells within the skin
f. elevated flat-topped lesion greater than 1cm in diameter
g. raised, circumscribed lesion less than 1cm in diameter
h. raised, palpable lesion greater than 1cm in diameter
i. lesion consisting of fluid or a semisolid material contained in the wall of the lesion
j. sharply marginated raised lesion that is filled with clear fluid less than 1cm in
diameter
b. macule - a flat circumscribed lesion less than 2cm that is a different color than surrounding
tissue
g. papule - raised, circumscribed lesion less than 1cm in diameter
d. patch - flat circumscribed lesion (like a macule) that is greater than 2cm in diameter
e. postule - well-marginated focal accumulation of inflammatory cells within the skin
i. cyst - lesion consisting of fluid or a semisolid material contained in the wall of the lesion
c. bulla - vesicular lesion with fluid greater than 1cm in diameter
j. vesicle - sharply marginated raised lesion that is filled with clear fluid less than 1cm in
f. plaque - elevated flat-topped lesion greater than 1cm in diameter
h. nodule - raised, palpable lesion greater than 1cm in diameter
a. wheal - transient elevated lesion due to accumulation of fluid in the upper dermis
179. Treatments for psoriasis includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. exposure to sunlight
b. topical corticosteroids
c. antibiotics
d. immunosuppressive drugs
c. antibiotics
180. In which season can acne symptoms be worse?
a. spring
b. summer
c. winter
d. fall
c. winter
181. Verruca, or warts, are caused by which organism?
a. trichomonas
b. gardnerella
c. candida albicans
d. HPV (human papilloma virus)
d. HPV (human papilloma virus)
182. Which of the following is NOT a good treatment for dermatitis/eczema?
a. bathing in hot water
b. corticosteroid cream
c. antihistamines
d. avoid soap in affected areas
d. avoid soap in affected areas
183. The occurrence of fulminant hepatitis in 10-20% of women is seen in
which type of hepatitis?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. E
a. A
184. Which of the following laboratory tests are NOT used to diagnose
hepatitis?
a. IgE anti-HBc
b. HBsAg
c. HBeAg
d. HBV DNA
a. IgE (allergy) anti-HBc
185. What does each of the following indicate when seen on a lab test:
a. Ag(-) Ab(+)
b. Ag(+) Ab(-)
c. Ag(-) Ab(-)
d. ABsAg(-) HBsAb(+) HBcAb(-)
a. Ag(-) Ab(+); no infection, exposed to virus
b. Ag(+) Ab(-); acute illness
c. Ag(-) Ab(-); never exposed, not immune
d. ABsAg(-) HBsAb(+) HBcAb(-); vaccine
186. Which hepatitis has about a 20% mortality rate in pregnant women?
a. Hep A
b. Hep C
c. Hep D
d. Hep E
d. Hep E
187. Hep D is a defective virus, and needs what other virus in order to
replicate?
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep E
b. Hep B
188. Children with HBV (hepB) will show what kind of signs?
a. signs of jaundice
b. hacking cough
c. fever, lethargy
d. asymptomatic
d. asymptomatic
189. Which virus is blood bourne and presents a risk of infection to those
working in a clinical setting?
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep D
d. Hep E
b. Hep B
190. Which virus is mild, and without risk of chronic carrier states?
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep D
d. Hep E
a. Hep A
191. Hepatitis A is from what type of virus?
a. picornavirus
b. flavivirus
c. hepadnavirus
d. calicivirus
a. picornavirus
192. Patient comes into your office with fever that has lasted a couple of days,
trouble in walking for the past few days, and a severe HA that wakes the
patient up during the night. What advice should you give your patient?
a. ask the patient how stressed they are, and offer ideas on how to lessen their
stress
b. advise the patient to visit their MD
c. give the patient xue fu zhu yu tang for relief of their HA
d. have the patient abstain from alcohol, chocolate, and cheese, since these could be
triggering factors for their HA
b. advise the patient to visit their MD
193. Which type of HA recurs at the same time each night, and can occur over
several weeks, and is located on one side of the head, usually behind the eye?
a. migraine
b. tension
c. cluster
d. post-concussion
c. cluster
194. Attacks triggered by contraceptives, stress, exercise, or travel is
characteristic of:
a. classic migraine
b. common migraine
c. post-trauma headache
d. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. post-trauma headache
195. Alcohol provokes attacks in 70% of what kind of headache?
a. common headache
b. tension headache
c. cluster headache
d. neuralgic headache
c. cluster headache
196. HA that is recent, severe, constant, and is over the entire head, travels
down the neck and causing the patient difficulty in bending the neck forward,
accompanied by fever and vomiting, is caused by:
a. meningitis
b. brain tumor
c. impending stroke
d. brain hemorrhage
a. meningitis
197. What is the meaning of hematochezia?
a. coughing up blood
b. vomiting blood
c. blood in the urine
d. blood in the stool
e. blood in the tissues
d. blood in the stool
198. Which if the following is NOT an example of a cross infection?
a. influenza
b. peritonitis
c. TB
d. common cold
b. peritonitis
199. Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock?
a. pallor
b. bradycardia
c. delayed capillary refill
d. altered mental state
b. bradycardia
200. A grade II concussion is defined as:
a. transient confusion, no loss of consciousness, mental abnormalities, for a duration
of less than 15 minutes
b. loss of consciousness only
c. transient confusion, loss of consciousness, mental abnormalities, for a duration of
more than one hour
d. transient confusion, no loss of consciousness, mental abnormalities, for a duration
of greater than 15 minutes
d. transient confusion, no loss of consciousness, mental abnormalities, for a duration
of greater than 15 minutes
201. How many pairs of cranial nerves do we have?
a. 25
b. 30
c. 12
d. 8
c. 12
202. Which of the following sets of symptoms can signal the LV may have been
punctured?
a. pain around the waist, blood in the urine
b. local pain extending to the back, constriction of the abdominal muscles
c. red face, sweating, vertical HA
d. incontinence of bowel and bladder, hypochondriac pain
b. local pain extending to the back, constriction of the abdominal muscles
203. Which lab test can be used to diagnose leukopenia?
a. hematocrit
b. PSA
c. CBC
d. urinary analysis
c. CBC (complete blood count)
204. What is the most common symptom in ankylosing spondylitis?
a. HA
b. back pain
c. small joint inflammation
d. HTN
b. back pain
205. Which of the following is NOT part of the process of a grand mal seizure?
a. aura
b. tonic/clonic
c. sudden loss of consciousness
d. preictal state
d. preictal state
206. Which type of seizure does not involve motor activity, but rather, a
transient change in the level of consciousness?
a. subcortical
b. status epilepticus
c. grand mal
d. temporal lobe
a. subcortical
207. A patient of yours starts going into a seizure. What is the first thing you
should do?
a. protect the patient to ensure they don’t hurt themselves
b. leave the room to dial 911 immediately
c. look to see if there is anti-epileptic medication in their bag that you can give them
d. sit them in a chair so they don’t hit their head on the floor
a. protect the patient to ensure they don’t hurt themselves
208. A mother complains that her young child keeps getting into trouble at
school, that he stares at the walls and does not always respond when the
teacher is talking to him. What kind of seizure could this be?
a. myoclonic
b. tonic-clonic
c. febrile
d. absence
d. absence
209. Which BP reading is the most cause for concern?
a. 124/94
b. 130/68
c. 110/96
d. 148/80
c. 110/96
210. Patient has a history of upper respiratory infections. He now presents
with chills and fever, chest pain, labored breathing, cough, and bloody sputum.
What condition does this patient likely have?
a. pneumothorax
b. pneumonia
c. bronchitis
d. infectious bronchitis
b. pneumonia
211. Patient has a history of upper respiratory infections. He now presents with chills and fever, chest pain, labored breathing, cough, and bloody sputum.
What western treatment is best for the above patient?
a. acyclovir
b. antibiotics
c. corticosteroids
d. erythromycin
b. antibiotics
212. Papilledema is the swelling of what nerve, and occurs in brain tumors,
encephalitis, and meningitis?
a. arterial nerve
b. cephalic nerve
c. subarachnoid nerve
d. optic nerve
d. optic nerve
213. What is the normal hematocrit value for a male?
a. 37-48%
b. 42-52%
c. 58-63%
d. 23-31%
b. 42-52% male

a. female; c. too high; d. too low
214. Normal pH value of blood is:
a. 7.35-7.45
b. 7.15-7.25
c. 7.10-7.20
d. 6.90-7.15
a. 7.35-7.45
215. The normal hemoglobin value for a woman is:
a. 18-24g/100ml
b. 7-15g/100ml
c. 14-20g/100ml
d. 12-16g/100ml
d. 12-16g/100ml
216. Which of the following is NOT a disease where you would see a high total
cholesterol level?
a. KD disease
b. diabetes
c. acute hepatitis
d. hypothyroidism
c. acute hepatitis
217. The normal total blood cholesterol:
a. should be less than 60mg/100ml
b. ranges from 120-220mg/100ml
c. should be greater than 240mg/100ml
d. ranges 170-240mg/100ml
b. ranges from 120-220mg/100ml
218. What is the desired total blood LDL level?
a. >40mg/100ml
b. 10-25mg/100ml
c. 120-210mg/100ml
d. <180mg/100ml
d. <180mg/100ml
219. What is the desired total blood HDL level?
a. >40mg/100ml
b. 25-35mg/100ml
c. 100-110mg/100ml
d. >250mg/100ml
a. >40mg/100ml
220. Which of the following is LEAST seen in infective endocarditis?
a. anemia
b. elevated SED rate (erythrocyte sedimentation)
c. Osler’s nodes
d. fever
c. Osler’s nodes
221. What is NOT a characteristic of RA?
a. inflammation at the PIP joints
b. positive RA factor
c. difficulty in certain hand movements
d. asymmetrical in the location of the pain and inflammation
d. asymmetrical in the location of the pain and inflammation
222. Please match the following types of cells with the percentage they
contribute to the blood cell count:
a. neutrophils e. 0.5-1%
b. lymphocytes f. 60-70%
c. basophils g. 2-4%
d. eosinophils h. 20-25%
neutrophils 60-70%
lymphocytes 20-25%
eosinophils 2-4%
basophils 0.5-1%

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas
223. A multisystem disorder characterized by inflammatory, vascular, and
fibrotic changes of skin and various internal organ systems, such as the GI, HT,
KD, and LU, is the definition of:
a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. progressive systemic sclerosis
c. psoriatic arthritis
d. ankylosing spondylitis
b. progressive systemic sclerosis
224. Clinical manifestations of back pain and stiffness that is not relieved by
lying down, is worse in the morning, and is improved with activity, along with
hip and chest pain, and radiographic evidence of sacroilitis, is indicative of:
a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. progressive systemic sclerosis
c. psoriatic arthritis
d. ankylosing spondylitis
d. ankylosing spondylitis
225. A chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder of unknown cause,
characterized by dryness of the mouth, eyes, and other mucous membranes,
and sharing features similar to the autoimmune diseases of RA and SLE is the
definition of:
a. Reiter’s syndrome
b. Addison’s disease
c. psoriatic arthritis
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
226. What type of anemia is very often seen in chronic cases of rheumatoid
arthritis?
a. hypochromic, hypocytic
b. normochromic, hemolytic
c. pernicious
d. normochromic, normocytic
d. normochromic, normocytic
227. Which gland is enlarged in the condition called goiter?
a. parotid
b. adrenal
c. thyroid
d. pancreas
c. thyroid
228. What is generally the most common pharmacologic cause of insomnia?
a. alcohol
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. withdrawal from hypnotics
c. caffeine
229. Which of the following drugs are unlikely to cause a seizure?
a. psychotrophics
b. cyclosporine
c. valproic acid
d. analgesics
c. valproic acid (used to treat epilepsy and bipolar)
230. Which of the following will treat a virus?
a. antistaphylcoccal antibiotics
b. ampicillin
c. cefoxitin
d. acyclovir
d. acyclovir
231. What drug can counteract atropine (used with treatment of bradycardia) toxicity?
a. neostigmine
b. acetylcholine
c. phenylephrine
d. amphetamine
a. neostigmine
232. Antibiotic drugs are synthesized by which of the following:
a. streptococcus
b. staphylococcus
c. actinomycetes
d. clostridium
c. actinomycetes
233. Please match the drug with its action.
a. verapamil
b. captopril
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. propranolol

beta blocker
calcium blocker
diuretic
ACE inhibiter
verapamil - calcium blocker
captopril - ACE inhibitor
hydrochlorothiazide - diuretic
propranolol - beta blocker
234. Which of the following is NOT an effect of acetaminophen?
a. analgesic
b. antipyretic
c. anti-inflammation
d. fever reduction
c. anti-inflammation

*anti-pyretics reduce fever
235. Which of the following substances is NOT involved in severe menstrual
pain (due to uterine contractions)?
a. oxytocin
b. neostigmine
c. PGF-2
d. PGF-2a
b. neostigmine (treats muscle tone in myasthenia gravis)
236. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the sympathetic nervous
system?
a. pupillary constriction
b. increased heart rate
c. piloerection
d. bronchial dilation
a. pupillary constriction
237. Which drug is used for myasthenia gravis?
a. ACE inhibitors
b. acetylcholine
c. physostigmine
d. pyridostigmine
d. pyridostigmine
238. Which route of drug administration provides the maximal degree of dose
control?
a. oral
b. intramuscular
c. intravascular
d. parenteral
c. intravascular
239. Which is true of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a. only lipid-soluble drugs can penetrate into the CNS
b. there are many tight junctions
c. ionized drugs can readily pass
d. polar drugs can readily pass
a. only lipid-soluble drugs can penetrate into the CNS
240. Which muscarinic receptors are found in the myocardium and smooth
muscle?
a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4
b. M2
241. What condition does thiazide NOT treat?
a. HTN
b. CHF
c. motion sickness
d. renal failure
c. motion sickness
242. A high percentage (90-95%) of HTN is:
a. essential
b. secondary
c. found in caucasians
d. related to renal disease
a. essential
243. Which is NOT a side effect of captopril (ACE inhibitor)?
a. dry cough
b. hypotension
c. proteinuria
d. increased sense of taste
d. increased sense of taste
244. Patient has a severe migraine HA 3-4 times per month, so severe that the
patient must stay in the house for the entire day. Which of the following drugs
would be chosen in a western setting?
a. propranolol
b. thiazide
c. loratadine
d. celebrex
a. propranolol
245. Morphine has what effect?
a. increases the release of substance
b. decreases the release of substance
c. has no effect on substance
d. will increase coughing
b. decreases the release of substance
246. Diazepam (Valium) has all of the following therapeutic uses EXCEPT:
a. grand mal epilepsy
b. alcohol withdrawal
c. preventing heart attacks
d. muscle spasticity
c. preventing heart attacks
247. Buspirone (Buspar) is used in treating:
a. insomnia
b. convulsive disorders
c. muscle spasticity
d. generalized anxiety
d. generalized anxiety
248. Which is NOT true about nicotine?
a. it is highly lipid soluble
b. it can cause irritability and tremors
c. tolerance to the toxic effects develop slowly
d. it increases heart rate and BP
c. tolerance to the toxic effects develop slowly
249. Which of the following does NOT apply to amphetamine?
a. increases appetite
b. decreases fatigue
c. increases awareness
d. may be used for narcolepsy
a. increases appetite
250. Which anti-epileptical drug is useful in treating trigeminal neuralgia?
a. phenytoin
b. carbamazepine
c. valproic acid
d. diazepam
b. carbamazepine
251. Prozac (fluoxetine) is what kind of drug?
a. SSRI
b. MAOI
c. TCA
d. lithium salt
a. SSRI
252. Which receptors are NOT blocked in the action of neuroleptic drugs?
a. dopamine
b. serotonin
c. monoamine
d. cholinergic
c. monoamine (sympathetic)
253. Which of the following is an extrapyramidal effect that occurs with the use
of neuroleptic drugs?
a. confusion
b. constipation
c. tardive dyskinesia
d. severe vomiting
c. tardive dyskinesia (difficulty not moving)
254. The therapeutic index of lithium salts is:
a. very high
b. very low
c. dependent on the person
d. determined by the dosage
b. very low
255. Where is the major source of epinephrine found?
a. gut wall
b. hepatocytes
c. adrenal medulla
d. myocardium
c. adrenal medulla
256. Which is NOT a therapeutic use of epinephrine?
a. treats bronchospasm
b. glaucoma
c. anaphylactic shock
d. pulmonary edema
d. pulmonary edema
257. Which type of drug is NOT used to treat HTN?
a. ephedrine
b. diuretics
c. beta blockers
d. calcium channel blockers
a. ephedrine
258. Propranolol is a:
a. calcium channel blocker
b. beta blocker
c. adrenergic agonist
d. bronchodilator
b. beta blocker
259. Which of the following is NOT associated with cocaine dependence:
a. increased desire to sleep
b. mydriasis
c. muscle twitching
d. HTN
a. increased desire to sleep
260. Elevated, euphoric, or irritable mood, followed by loss of appetite or
pleasure, change in weight, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt are
symptoms of:
a. opioid dependence
b. agoraphobia
c. bipolar disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
c. bipolar disorder
261. Clonidine is used for withdrawal symptoms associated with dependence
of:
a. opioids
b. amphetamines
c. SSRI’s
d. alcohol
a. opioids
262. Which of the following drugs is useful in treating gout, since it decreases
uric acid synthesis?
a. colchicine
b. rolaxafin
c. allopurinol
d. tramadol
c. allopurinol
263. Which of the following is NOT an immunosuppressive drug:
a. prednisone
b. cyclophosphamide
c. disulfiram
d. azathioprine
c. disulfiram
264. Continued high doses of amphetamine produce all BUT which of the
following:
a. anxiety reaction
b. psychosis
c. exhaustion syndrome
d. seizures
d. seizures
265. Following a head injury, which of the following medications may possibly
be used?
a. aspirin
b. acetaminophen
c. ibuprofen
d. sedatives
b. acetaminophen
266. Which of the following is NOT considered an anti-hypertensive drug?
a. beta blockers
b. dopamine
c. diuretics
d. calcium antagonists
b. dopamine