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482 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
what is the biomechanical triad and what would make it quadrangular
|
Skeleton, muscle, joints. Nervous system would make it quadrangular
|
|
|
what is the most common joint type in the extremities
|
synovial joint
|
|
|
what are the 7 parts of a long bone
|
diaphysis, metaphysic (2), epiphyseal plate/line (2), epiphysis (2)
|
|
|
are epiphyseal plates in growing or adult bones
|
growing, epiphyseal lines are in adult bones
|
|
|
what is an apophysis and what is its function
|
an apophysis is a secondary growth center and it serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments
|
|
|
what is subchondral bone
|
end layer of bone deep to articular cartilage
|
|
|
what is articular cartilage
|
Slippery caps of adjacent bone ends made up of hyaline. Great shock absorbers
|
|
|
what is intra-articular cartilage
|
Discs or menisci made up of fibrocartilage. Adds more layers to the slippery surface
|
|
|
what produces synovial fluid
|
A or F cells in the epithelioid layer of the synovial membrane
|
|
|
what is the architecture of the synovial joint
|
subchondral bone, articular cartilage, intra-articular cartilage, fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, synovial cavity, periosteum
|
|
|
what is the transition zone
|
where cartilage meets the synovial cavity
|
|
|
how much synovial fluid is secreted
|
enough to form a thin layer
|
|
|
what are the functions of the synovial cavity and its fluid
|
shock absorption, lubrication, nutrient supply, waste product removal from cartilage
|
|
|
what are the 2 layers of the synovial membrane
|
epithelioid and CT
|
|
|
what is another name for the epithelioid layer
|
intima
|
|
|
what is another name for the CT layer of synovial membrane
|
subintima
|
|
|
what is more superficial to the skin subintima or intima
|
subintima
|
|
|
why is the subintima named subintima when it is above the intima
|
in relation to the synovial cavity the intima is more superficial
|
|
|
what are the two functions of the synovial membrane
|
produces and resorbs synovial fluid, provides immunity to joint cavity
|
|
|
what are the three types of subintima
|
fibrous (loose CT), elastic/areolar, adipose
|
|
|
what cell types will you find in the synovial membrane
|
macrophages, secretory, fibroblasts, and lipocytes
|
|
|
why are fenestrated capillaries in the synovial membrane significant
|
increase fluid exchange
|
|
|
which layer of the synovial membrane is vascularized and innervated
|
subintima
|
|
|
what is the function of the fibrous capsule of the synovial joint
|
support, guide, limit and absorb shock
|
|
|
what are the two types of support and which is made up of noncontractile tissue
|
Static and dynamic support. Static is noncontractile tissue
|
|
|
what ligaments can be seen, are stressed more and are part of the joint capsule
|
Capsular ligaments. Extracapsular ligaments are separate from the joint capsule
|
|
|
what are sharpey’s fibers
|
ligament fibers going into a bone
|
|
|
what is wolff’s law
|
bone formation, growth and remodeling are strongly influenced by external forces acting on bone
|
|
|
is the fibrous capsule of a synovial joint innervated or vascularized
|
highly innervated but not well vascularized
|
|
|
what are bursaes
|
synovial membrane lined extracapsular pockets
|
|
|
do bursaes communicate with the synovial cavity
|
some communicate thru passages in the capsule
|
|
|
what is the foramen of Weitbrecht
|
the opening in the articular capsule of the shoulder joint
|
|
|
what is the most common type of articular cartilage
|
hyaline
|
|
|
what joints are lined in fibrocartilage
|
AC, SC, TMJ, and the illium side of the SI joint
|
|
|
what are the main components of articular cartilage
|
Water (80% total weight), collagen (60-70% dry weight), GAGs (30-40% dry weight).
|
|
|
what is the function of collagen
|
keeps cartilage from swelling, resists shear forces by running parallel with the surface
|
|
|
why does cartilage need vitamin c
|
to produce collagen
|
|
|
how does articular cartilage get nutrition
|
From synovial fluid to superficial layers. Deep layers get nutrition from adjacent bone
|
|
|
what are the two important GAGs in the cartilage PG matrix
|
chondroitin sulfate, and glucosamine sulfate
|
|
|
what are the dietary sources for chondroitin and glucosamine sulfate
|
shellfish, CT, cartilage
|
|
|
what are the two types of lubrication in synovial joints
|
boundary and hydrostatic
|
|
|
what type of lubrication is used for large compressive loads
|
Hydrostatic. Boundary is for small compressive loads which are most activities
|
|
|
why are rapid oscillations bad
|
Decrease fluid exchange. Slow oscillations increase fluid exchange
|
|
|
what changes in the synovial joint occurs with DJD
|
Decreased cell numbers, GAGs, and lubrication. Increased calcification and serous fluid
|
|
|
is subchondral bone dense or cancellous
|
cancellous/spongy bone
|
|
|
what has more relative tensile strength bone or cartilage
|
cartilage
|
|
|
what has more relative compressive strength bone or cartilage
|
bone
|
|
|
what joint is a disc in childhood, menisci in adult and later disintegrates
|
AC. Disc until early 20s, menisci until 30 and then starts to disappear
|
|
|
what are the avascular parts of intra-articular cartilage
|
inner 2/3rds
|
|
|
what part of a long bone does a synovial joint extend from
|
metaphysis of one bone to metaphysis of another bone
|
|
|
what is synovial joint stability due to
|
Congruity of adjacent articular surfaces and surface tension, capsular and ligamentous support. Skeletal
|
|
|
where do synovial joints originate from
|
mesenchymal articular discs between primordial bones which then leads to cartilage
|
|
|
what is Meyer’s law
|
internal structure of fully developed bone is formed in response to lines of greatest stress
|
|
|
what is ollier’s law
|
when the growth of one of 2 parallel bones in the extremities is arrested the development of the other bone is disturbed
|
|
|
is the epithelioid layer epithelium
|
No. intimal cells are joined by intracellular matrix not cell junctions and there is no basal lamina present
|
|
|
what do the B or M cell do in the epithelioid layer
|
immune cells that remove debris and protect against infection
|
|
|
where will you find synovial villi
|
in the transition zone
|
|
|
what is the function of chondrocytes and where are they a main component
|
Maintenance and repair of cartilage matrix. Found in articular cartilage
|
|
|
what regenerates better cartilage or subchondral bone
|
subchondral bone
|
|
|
why is their deep aching in OA
|
venous congestion d/t thickening of subchondral bone
|
|
|
what is subchondral sclerosis or eburration
|
thickening of subchondral bone d/t degenerating articular cartilage which delivers more shock to the bone and a callus forms
|
|
|
does a disc have a free edge
|
no a disc is completely connected to the joint capsule
|
|
|
what meniscal edge is usually free
|
the inner edge
|
|
|
what are the functions of intra-articular cartilage
|
improve shock absorption and protection, better conformity of congruent surfaces, deeper socket for better stability, accommodate roll and slide especially when moving in opposition, permit conjoint rotation
|
|
|
what is the vascular plexus around a joint called
|
a rete
|
|
|
what joint areas are reached by arteries and veins
|
epiphysis, metaphysis, joint capsule, subintimal layer
|
|
|
is the orientation blood vessels perpendicular or parallel to collagen bundles
|
parallel with numerous cross anastamoses
|
|
|
do capillary beds enter the intima
|
No. they reach the surface but do not penetrate
|
|
|
what is Hilton’s law
|
the nerves that supply muscles that move a joint generally supplies the tissue of the joint
|
|
|
can the synovial membrane be a pain generator
|
Yes. There are numerous free nerve endings which are intertwined within sympathetic plexuses that parallel vessels in the subintimal layer
|
|
|
why is fracture of the subchondral bone better than cartilage tear
|
because subchondral bone can regenerate better and faster than cartilage
|
|
|
what is negative work
|
Active protection by joint motion and muscle contraction. Most important factor
|
|
|
what is 80% of idiopathic arthritis due to
|
defects producing joint incongruity and uneven or increased impact loading
|
|
|
why is immobilization bad
|
Oscillations provide nutrients and remove wastes which are lost with immobilization. Fibroblasts switch from a synthetic state to a degradative state. Lesions will fill with calcified tissue rather than cartilage.
|
|
|
if the environment is rich in oxygen and blood capillaries what will undifferentiated osteogenic cells become
|
Osteoblasts. In avascular and ischemic conditions osteogenic cells will become chondroblasts
|
|
|
what type of joints are most extremity synovial joints
|
diarthroidal
|
|
|
what are the three joint classifications according to number of articular surfaces
|
simple 2, compound more than 2, complex more than 2 with disc and menisci
|
|
|
what are some examples of a compound joint
|
subtalar, knee
|
|
|
what are some examples of a complex joint
|
AC, knee, radiocarpal
|
|
|
what is a joint complex
|
several joints that act together as a group
|
|
|
what are the anatomical characteristics of joints
|
spheroid (ball and socket), ellipsoid (condyloid), arthroid (gliding), sellar (saddle), ginglymus (hinge), trochoid (pivot)
|
|
|
what is another name for a spheroid joint
|
enarthrosis
|
|
|
what is another name for an arthroid joint
|
planar
|
|
|
what are the 4 joint motion classifications
|
angular, translational, circumduction, rotational
|
|
|
what type of joints are nonaxial
|
gliding
|
|
|
what is osteokinematics based on
|
axis of rotation
|
|
|
what are the 2 types of osteokinematic motion
|
swing and spin
|
|
|
in spin or swing is the mechanical axis stationary
|
spin
|
|
|
in spin where is the mechanical axis
|
instantaneous
|
|
|
when will spin lead to rotation
|
when the long axis (rotation) is equal to the mechanical axis (spin)
|
|
|
how often does pure spin occur
|
rarely
|
|
|
what usually accompanies spin
|
swing
|
|
|
can spin lead to angular movement
|
No. angular movement leads to rotation and spin leads to swing
|
|
|
what are the three types of swing
|
straight line, chord, and arc
|
|
|
what is a good example of conjoint rotation
|
screw home mechanism of the knee
|
|
|
what is the screw home mechanism of the knee
|
occurs at terminal extension of the knee the popliteus muscle externally rotates the knee screwing it home
|
|
|
what is accessory rotation
|
conjoint/conjunct rotation
|
|
|
which direction does roll occur
|
in the direction of movement
|
|
|
what 3 problems does pure roll create
|
compression, distraction, and dislocation
|
|
|
is slide or roll produced by an adjustment
|
slide
|
|
|
is slide opposite or in the same direction as roll on a convex surface
|
Opposite. When dealing with a concavity it is in the same direction
|
|
|
what are 3 problems caused by pure slide
|
shear, impingement, and muscle tear
|
|
|
what is the convex rule
|
slide is opposite angular movement and roll
|
|
|
what is the concave rule
|
slide is the same as angular movement and roll
|
|
|
when dealing with joints the motion is occurring in the proximal or distal segment
|
distal
|
|
|
what is conjunct/conjoint rotation
|
swing and spin combined
|
|
|
what is a closed or tight packed position
|
end of ROM, degree of greatest stability
|
|
|
what is open or loose packed position
|
laxity, some play, position where movement occurs
|
|
|
what is resting position
|
Position where there is the least amount of tension on the joint capsule. Where the joint is at its loosest state
|
|
|
what is neutral position
|
Can be in loose or tight packed position. 0 degrees
|
|
|
what is the difference between end play and joint play
|
End play is motion beyond what the muscle can do. Joint play is what the muscle can’t do
|
|
|
what forces apply to the closed kinetic chain
|
ground reaction forces
|
|
|
what forces apply to the open kinetic chain
|
inertial forces
|
|
|
what is the difference between open and closed kinetic chain
|
Open equals fixed to the trunk. Closed equals fixed to ground
|
|
|
what is the function of muscle
|
movement, shock absorption, dynamic joint stabilization, heat production, venous circulation
|
|
|
does concentric contraction cause acceleration or deceleration
|
Acceleration. Eccentric contraction leads to deceleration
|
|
|
what is the difference between isokinetic and isotonic
|
Isokinetic is an isotonic contraction where the velocity stays the same. Contraction that is reached with a cybexs machine
|
|
|
what is the line of progression in the gait cycle
|
best fit line of walking
|
|
|
what is a stride in the gait cycle
|
example would be midstance to midstance
|
|
|
what is 1 gait cycle
|
both limbs complete one stride
|
|
|
what is stride width
|
distance from inside heel to line of progression
|
|
|
what is the normal degree of foot flare during walking
|
5-7 degrees
|
|
|
if you increase cadence what happens to foot flare
|
decreases
|
|
|
What are the two phases of the gait cycle
|
Stance and swing
|
|
|
What percentage is stance and swing while walking and running
|
Running: 40% stance, 60% swing. Walking: 60% stance and 40% swing.
|
|
|
What is gait cadence
|
Number of cycles that occur in a period of time
|
|
|
What in the gait cycle is increased when there is an increase in cadence
|
Compression forces, distraction, torsion, shear and inertia forces
|
|
|
When does the stance phase start and stop
|
From foot strike to toe off
|
|
|
Is toe off the same as take off
|
No toe off is at the end of take off and transitions to the beginning of swing
|
|
|
When does swing start and stop
|
From toe off to foot strike
|
|
|
When does double support occur
|
Walking only. Can be 25-40% of walking
|
|
|
What is double support
|
One foot is in contact while the other foot is in take off
|
|
|
When does float occur and what is it
|
Float occurs only during running and both limbs are in swing
|
|
|
What are the three subdivisions of the stance phase for walking
|
Foot strike 25 %, midstance 50%, take off 25%
|
|
|
In the contact phase where is the COG in relation to the foot
|
Foot lands ahead of COG
|
|
|
What are the important functions of the contact phase
|
Absorbs shock and for adaptation
|
|
|
what is the biomechanical triad and what would make it quadrangular
|
Skeleton, muscle, joints. Nervous system would make it quadrangular
|
|
|
what is the most common joint type in the extremities
|
synovial joint
|
|
|
what are the 7 parts of a long bone
|
diaphysis, metaphysic (2), epiphyseal plate/line (2), epiphysis (2)
|
|
|
are epiphyseal plates in growing or adult bones
|
growing, epiphyseal lines are in adult bones
|
|
|
what is an apophysis and what is its function
|
an apophysis is a secondary growth center and it serves as an attachment site for muscles and ligaments
|
|
|
what is subchondral bone
|
end layer of bone deep to articular cartilage
|
|
|
what is articular cartilage
|
Slippery caps of adjacent bone ends made up of hyaline. Great shock absorbers
|
|
|
what is intra-articular cartilage
|
Discs or menisci made up of fibrocartilage. Adds more layers to the slippery surface
|
|
|
what produces synovial fluid
|
A or F cells in the epithelioid layer of the synovial membrane
|
|
|
what is the architecture of the synovial joint
|
subchondral bone, articular cartilage, intra-articular cartilage, fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, synovial cavity, periosteum
|
|
|
what is the transition zone
|
where cartilage meets the synovial cavity
|
|
|
how much synovial fluid is secreted
|
enough to form a thin layer
|
|
|
what are the functions of the synovial cavity and its fluid
|
shock absorption, lubrication, nutrient supply, waste product removal from cartilage
|
|
|
what are the 2 layers of the synovial membrane
|
epithelioid and CT
|
|
|
what is another name for the epithelioid layer
|
intima
|
|
|
what is another name for the CT layer of synovial membrane
|
subintima
|
|
|
what is more superficial to the skin subintima or intima
|
subintima
|
|
|
why is the subintima named subintima when it is above the intima
|
in relation to the synovial cavity the intima is more superficial
|
|
|
what are the two functions of the synovial membrane
|
produces and resorbs synovial fluid, provides immunity to joint cavity
|
|
|
what are the three types of subintima
|
fibrous (loose CT), elastic/areolar, adipose
|
|
|
what cell types will you find in the synovial membrane
|
macrophages, secretory, fibroblasts, and lipocytes
|
|
|
why are fenestrated capillaries in the synovial membrane significant
|
increase fluid exchange
|
|
|
which layer of the synovial membrane is vascularized and innervated
|
subintima
|
|
|
what is the function of the fibrous capsule of the synovial joint
|
support, guide, limit and absorb shock
|
|
|
what are the two types of support and which is made up of noncontractile tissue
|
Static and dynamic support. Static is noncontractile tissue
|
|
|
what ligaments can be seen, are stressed more and are part of the joint capsule
|
Capsular ligaments. Extracapsular ligaments are separate from the joint capsule
|
|
|
what are sharpey’s fibers
|
ligament fibers going into a bone
|
|
|
what is wolff’s law
|
bone formation, growth and remodeling are strongly influenced by external forces acting on bone
|
|
|
is the fibrous capsule of a synovial joint innervated or vascularized
|
highly innervated but not well vascularized
|
|
|
what are bursaes
|
synovial membrane lined extracapsular pockets
|
|
|
do bursaes communicate with the synovial cavity
|
some communicate thru passages in the capsule
|
|
|
what is the foramen of Weitbrecht
|
the opening in the articular capsule of the shoulder joint
|
|
|
what is the most common type of articular cartilage
|
hyaline
|
|
|
what joints are lined in fibrocartilage
|
AC, SC, TMJ, and the illium side of the SI joint
|
|
|
what are the main components of articular cartilage
|
Water (80% total weight), collagen (60-70% dry weight), GAGs (30-40% dry weight).
|
|
|
what is the function of collagen
|
keeps cartilage from swelling, resists shear forces by running parallel with the surface
|
|
|
why does cartilage need vitamin c
|
to produce collagen
|
|
|
how does articular cartilage get nutrition
|
From synovial fluid to superficial layers. Deep layers get nutrition from adjacent bone
|
|
|
what are the two important GAGs in the cartilage PG matrix
|
chondroitin sulfate, and glucosamine sulfate
|
|
|
what are the dietary sources for chondroitin and glucosamine sulfate
|
shellfish, CT, cartilage
|
|
|
what are the two types of lubrication in synovial joints
|
boundary and hydrostatic
|
|
|
what type of lubrication is used for large compressive loads
|
Hydrostatic. Boundary is for small compressive loads which are most activities
|
|
|
why are rapid oscillations bad
|
Decrease fluid exchange. Slow oscillations increase fluid exchange
|
|
|
what changes in the synovial joint occurs with DJD
|
Decreased cell numbers, GAGs, and lubrication. Increased calcification and serous fluid
|
|
|
is subchondral bone dense or cancellous
|
cancellous/spongy bone
|
|
|
what has more relative tensile strength bone or cartilage
|
cartilage
|
|
|
what has more relative compressive strength bone or cartilage
|
bone
|
|
|
what joint is a disc in childhood, menisci in adult and later disintegrates
|
AC. Disc until early 20s, menisci until 30 and then starts to disappear
|
|
|
what are the avascular parts of intra-articular cartilage
|
inner 2/3rds
|
|
|
what part of a long bone does a synovial joint extend from
|
metaphysis of one bone to metaphysis of another bone
|
|
|
what is synovial joint stability due to
|
Congruity of adjacent articular surfaces and surface tension, capsular and ligamentous support. Skeletal
|
|
|
where do synovial joints originate from
|
mesenchymal articular discs between primordial bones which then leads to cartilage
|
|
|
what is Meyer’s law
|
internal structure of fully developed bone is formed in response to lines of greatest stress
|
|
|
what is ollier’s law
|
when the growth of one of 2 parallel bones in the extremities is arrested the development of the other bone is disturbed
|
|
|
is the epithelioid layer epithelium
|
No. intimal cells are joined by intracellular matrix not cell junctions and there is no basal lamina present
|
|
|
what do the B or M cell do in the epithelioid layer
|
immune cells that remove debris and protect against infection
|
|
|
where will you find synovial villi
|
in the transition zone
|
|
|
what is the function of chondrocytes and where are they a main component
|
Maintenance and repair of cartilage matrix. Found in articular cartilage
|
|
|
what regenerates better cartilage or subchondral bone
|
subchondral bone
|
|
|
why is their deep aching in OA
|
venous congestion d/t thickening of subchondral bone
|
|
|
what is subchondral sclerosis or eburration
|
thickening of subchondral bone d/t degenerating articular cartilage which delivers more shock to the bone and a callus forms
|
|
|
does a disc have a free edge
|
no a disc is completely connected to the joint capsule
|
|
|
what meniscal edge is usually free
|
the inner edge
|
|
|
what are the functions of intra-articular cartilage
|
improve shock absorption and protection, better conformity of congruent surfaces, deeper socket for better stability, accommodate roll and slide especially when moving in opposition, permit conjoint rotation
|
|
|
what is the vascular plexus around a joint called
|
a rete
|
|
|
what joint areas are reached by arteries and veins
|
epiphysis, metaphysis, joint capsule, subintimal layer
|
|
|
is the orientation blood vessels perpendicular or parallel to collagen bundles
|
parallel with numerous cross anastamoses
|
|
|
do capillary beds enter the intima
|
No. they reach the surface but do not penetrate
|
|
|
what is Hilton’s law
|
the nerves that supply muscles that move a joint generally supplies the tissue of the joint
|
|
|
can the synovial membrane be a pain generator
|
Yes. There are numerous free nerve endings which are intertwined within sympathetic plexuses that parallel vessels in the subintimal layer
|
|
|
why is fracture of the subchondral bone better than cartilage tear
|
because subchondral bone can regenerate better and faster than cartilage
|
|
|
what is negative work
|
Active protection by joint motion and muscle contraction. Most important factor
|
|
|
what is 80% of idiopathic arthritis due to
|
defects producing joint incongruity and uneven or increased impact loading
|
|
|
why is immobilization bad
|
Oscillations provide nutrients and remove wastes which are lost with immobilization. Fibroblasts switch from a synthetic state to a degradative state. Lesions will fill with calcified tissue rather than cartilage.
|
|
|
if the environment is rich in oxygen and blood capillaries what will undifferentiated osteogenic cells become
|
Osteoblasts. In avascular and ischemic conditions osteogenic cells will become chondroblasts
|
|
|
what type of joints are most extremity synovial joints
|
diarthroidal
|
|
|
what are the three joint classifications according to number of articular surfaces
|
simple 2, compound more than 2, complex more than 2 with disc and menisci
|
|
|
what are some examples of a compound joint
|
subtalar, knee
|
|
|
what are some examples of a complex joint
|
AC, knee, radiocarpal
|
|
|
what is a joint complex
|
several joints that act together as a group
|
|
|
what are the anatomical characteristics of joints
|
spheroid (ball and socket), ellipsoid (condyloid), arthroid (gliding), sellar (saddle), ginglymus (hinge), trochoid (pivot)
|
|
|
what is another name for a spheroid joint
|
enarthrosis
|
|
|
what is another name for an arthroid joint
|
planar
|
|
|
what are the 4 joint motion classifications
|
angular, translational, circumduction, rotational
|
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|
what type of joints are nonaxial
|
gliding
|
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|
what is osteokinematics based on
|
axis of rotation
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|
what are the 2 types of osteokinematic motion
|
swing and spin
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|
in spin or swing is the mechanical axis stationary
|
spin
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|
in spin where is the mechanical axis
|
instantaneous
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when will spin lead to rotation
|
when the long axis (rotation) is equal to the mechanical axis (spin)
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|
how often does pure spin occur
|
rarely
|
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|
what usually accompanies spin
|
swing
|
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|
can spin lead to angular movement
|
No. angular movement leads to rotation and spin leads to swing
|
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|
what are the three types of swing
|
straight line, chord, and arc
|
|
|
what is a good example of conjoint rotation
|
screw home mechanism of the knee
|
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|
what is the screw home mechanism of the knee
|
occurs at terminal extension of the knee the popliteus muscle externally rotates the knee screwing it home
|
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what is accessory rotation
|
conjoint/conjunct rotation
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which direction does roll occur
|
in the direction of movement
|
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|
what 3 problems does pure roll create
|
compression, distraction, and dislocation
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|
is slide or roll produced by an adjustment
|
slide
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|
is slide opposite or in the same direction as roll on a convex surface
|
Opposite. When dealing with a concavity it is in the same direction
|
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|
what are 3 problems caused by pure slide
|
shear, impingement, and muscle tear
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|
what is the convex rule
|
slide is opposite angular movement and roll
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what is the concave rule
|
slide is the same as angular movement and roll
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|
when dealing with joints the motion is occurring in the proximal or distal segment
|
distal
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what is conjunct/conjoint rotation
|
swing and spin combined
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what is a closed or tight packed position
|
end of ROM, degree of greatest stability
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|
what is open or loose packed position
|
laxity, some play, position where movement occurs
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|
what is resting position
|
Position where there is the least amount of tension on the joint capsule. Where the joint is at its loosest state
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|
what is neutral position
|
Can be in loose or tight packed position. 0 degrees
|
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|
what is the difference between end play and joint play
|
End play is motion beyond what the muscle can do. Joint play is what the muscle can’t do
|
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|
what forces apply to the closed kinetic chain
|
ground reaction forces
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|
what forces apply to the open kinetic chain
|
inertial forces
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|
what is the difference between open and closed kinetic chain
|
Open equals fixed to the trunk. Closed equals fixed to ground
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|
what is the function of muscle
|
movement, shock absorption, dynamic joint stabilization, heat production, venous circulation
|
|
|
does concentric contraction cause acceleration or deceleration
|
Acceleration. Eccentric contraction leads to deceleration
|
|
|
what is the difference between isokinetic and isotonic
|
Isokinetic is an isotonic contraction where the velocity stays the same. Contraction that is reached with a cybexs machine
|
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|
what is the line of progression in the gait cycle
|
best fit line of walking
|
|
|
what is a stride in the gait cycle
|
example would be midstance to midstance
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|
what is 1 gait cycle
|
both limbs complete one stride
|
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|
what is stride width
|
distance from inside heel to line of progression
|
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|
what is the normal degree of foot flare during walking
|
5-7 degrees
|
|
|
if you increase cadence what happens to foot flare
|
decreases
|
|
|
What are the two phases of the gait cycle
|
Stance and swing
|
|
|
What percentage is stance and swing while walking and running
|
Running: 40% stance, 60% swing. Walking: 60% stance and 40% swing.
|
|
|
What is gait cadence
|
Number of cycles that occur in a period of time
|
|
|
What in the gait cycle is increased when there is an increase in cadence
|
Compression forces, distraction, torsion, shear and inertia forces
|
|
|
When does the stance phase start and stop
|
From foot strike to toe off
|
|
|
Is toe off the same as take off
|
No toe off is at the end of take off and transitions to the beginning of swing
|
|
|
When does swing start and stop
|
From toe off to foot strike
|
|
|
When does double support occur
|
Walking only. Can be 25-40% of walking
|
|
|
What is double support
|
One foot is in contact while the other foot is in take off
|
|
|
When does float occur and what is it
|
Float occurs only during running and both limbs are in swing
|
|
|
What are the three subdivisions of the stance phase for walking
|
Foot strike 25 %, midstance 50%, take off 25%
|
|
|
In the contact phase where is the COG in relation to the foot
|
Foot lands ahead of COG
|
|
|
What are the important functions of the contact phase
|
Absorbs shock and for adaptation
|
|
|
What type of movement occurs with contact
|
Pronation, medial rotation of foot and arches collapse
|
|
|
What are the important joints of contact
|
Subtalar and midtarsal
|
|
|
What is the movement of the calcaneus and the foot during contact
|
Eversion and abduction, dorsiflexion
|
|
|
What is the movement of the talus during contact
|
Adduction and plantar flexion
|
|
|
How many degrees does the foot land supinated in walking
|
2 degrees
|
|
|
What is the ideal degree of pronation during walking contact
|
6-10 degrees. Clinical normal ranges from 5-15
|
|
|
What is the action of the tibia and the femur during contact
|
Internally rotate which decreases torque
|
|
|
What two types of stress are most detrimental to CT
|
Torsion and shear stresses
|
|
|
Does the calcaneus move with the foot or with the leg
|
With the foot while the talus moves with the leg
|
|
|
What muscle weakness leads to anterior shin splints and foot drop
|
Tibialis anterior
|
|
|
When does rearfoot striking occur
|
Walking, jogging. The foot plantar flexes after heel initially strikes the ground
|
|
|
What is the function of the tibialis anterior during rearfoot striking
|
Eccentrically controls plantar flexion and pronation, pulls leg forward helping the quads
|
|
|
Are you more likely to see anterior or posterior shin splints in walkers
|
Anterior
|
|
|
What activity leads to forefoot striking
|
Fast running
|
|
|
Describe the motion of forefoot striking
|
Foot dorsiflexes after metatarsal heads first strike, heel moves toward ground
|
|
|
For forefoot striking how many degrees of supination is there initially
|
2-4 degrees
|
|
|
What controls pronation in forefoot striking
|
Tibialis anterior and posterior
|
|
|
What controls dorsiflexion in fore foot striking
|
Gastroc soleus
|
|
|
During foot flat to heel off where is cog
|
Over stance limb
|
|
|
When does pronation end
|
After contact. At midstance you begin to supinate from a pronated position
|
|
|
What joint allows for supination and pronation
|
Subtalar joint
|
|
|
What is the movement of the foot form foot flat to heel off
|
Foot supinates, ankle dorsiflexes as COG moves forward
|
|
|
During midstance what is the other limb doing
|
Swing
|
|
|
When will heel lift off occur
|
After swing limb passes stance limb
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
If heel lift occurs before the swing limb passes the stance limb what is a probable cause for this
|
Tight gastroc soleus
|
|
|
From heel off to toe off where is COG
|
Anterior to stance foot
|
|
|
What muscles lift the heel
|
Gastroc soleus
|
|
|
What muscle completes rearfoot supination
|
Tibialis posterior
|
|
|
What is forefoot rocker
|
Toes extend as ground reaction forces increase. Toe flexors are eccentrically controlling the foot as a shock absorber
|
|
|
what is metatarsal break
|
The oblique angles of the metatarsal heads
|
|
|
Why is slight pronation important at the end of take off
|
Increases the load bearing on the 1st and 2nd metatarsals which are the last to leave the ground
|
|
|
What is toe off equal to
|
End of take off, end of stance phase and the beginning of swing phase
|
|
|
What 5 muscles are important in 1st ray stabilization and control of pronation prior to toe off
|
Peroneus longus, flexor hallucis longus and brevis, Adductor and abductor hallucis
|
|
|
What motion occurs in the tibia and femur during take off
|
External rotation
|
|
|
What is the action of the peroneus longus during take off
|
Lifts cuboid and lateral foot, depresses and plantar flexes 1st ray
|
|
|
Does a supinated foot increase or decrease peroneus longus leverage
|
Increase
|
|
|
What are the 3 rocker mechanisms of the foot and when do they occur
|
Heel rocker- contact. Ankle rocker- foot flat to take off. Forefoot rocker- heel off to toe off
|
|
|
How long does swing phase last
|
From toe off to foot strike
|
|
|
What are the 3 subdivisions of swing phase
|
Initial swing or follow thru, mid swing or anterior swing, and terminal swing
|
|
|
What is the motion of the tibia during initial swing
|
Flexes and internally rotates
|
|
|
What is the motion of the hip during initial swing
|
Extension and external rotation
|
|
|
Where is the opposite limb during initial swing for walking and running
|
Walking – end of foot strike. Running - terminal swing
|
|
|
What muscles produce the early effects of mid swing
|
hip flexors
|
|
|
What muscles produce the late effects of mid swing
|
Gluts and hammies
|
|
|
During mid swing what factors internally rotate the hip
|
Adductors, hip joint design and capsule.
|
|
|
What is determined by swing phase
|
Foot flare, rear foot eversion, and how much pronation occurs
|
|
|
What part swing is the hamstrings at greatest tension
|
Terminal swing
|
|
|
How many bones, joints and muscles make up the foot and ankle complex
|
28 bones, 35 joints, and 18 foot and 11 leg muscles
|
|
|
What are the 6 important joints of the foot and ankle complex
|
Subtalar, talocrural, chopart’s, lisfrancs, 1st tarsometatarsal and 1st MTP joint
|
|
|
What is another name for the subtalar joint
|
Talocalcaneal
|
|
|
What is another name for the talocrural joint
|
Ankle joint
|
|
|
What are other names for chopart’s joints
|
Midtarsal, transverse tarsal which is made up of calcaneocuboid and calcaneonavicular
|
|
|
What is another name for the lisfranc joints
|
1-5 tarsal metatarsal joint complexes. Between midfoot and forefoot
|
|
|
Where is the midline of the foot
|
2nd metatarsal
|
|
|
What are the three arches of the foot
|
Medial, lateral and transverse
|
|
|
What is the biggest arch of the foot
|
Medial
|
|
|
What is the keystone of the medial arch
|
Talus
|
|
|
What is the keystone of the lateral arch
|
Cuboid
|
|
|
What is the keystone of the transverse arch
|
2nd cuneiform
|
|
|
What is a ray
|
The metatarsal and the phalanx together
|
|
|
When standing how is the weight distributed
|
60% on heel, 26% on metatarsals with half of that being on the 1st and 2nd metatarsals
|
|
|
With an inverted heel or rearfoot varum where is the weight shifted
|
Laterally
|
|
|
With an everted heel or rearfoot valgum where is the weight shifted
|
Medially
|
|
|
Where is the weight shifted with tight gastrocs
|
Forefoot
|
|
|
What happens when the 1st ray is dorsiflexed
|
Makes a flat foot
|
|
|
What happens when the 1st ray is plantarflexed
|
Makes a higher arch putting more weight on the heel
|
|
|
What happens when the 1st MP is in a fixed position
|
Big toe cannot extend so more roll occurs shifting weight to the outside
|
|
|
What is morton’s foot
|
A long 2nd ray
|
|
|
Where is the weight shifted with a long 2nd ray
|
All the weight that the 1st ray holds now is shifted to the 2nd ray
|
|
|
What are the 4 important ligaments for arch support
|
Spring, short and long plantar ligaments, transverse metatarsal ligaments
|
|
|
What are the tie beams for arch support
|
Foot intrinsics, peroneus longus, plantar fascia, tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus
|
|
|
What tie beams are static arch support
|
Plantar fascia
|
|
|
What are the 4 suspensors for arch support
|
Tibialis anterior and posterior, peroneus longus and brevis
|
|
|
Is a static supinated foot pes planus or pes cavus
|
Pes cavus
|
|
|
What joint is the torque converter between the leg and the foot
|
Subtalar
|
|
|
What conditions can cause excessive pronation of the foot
|
Rearfoot varus, forefoot varus, forefoot valgum, leg length inequality and muscle imbalance
|
|
|
What can a rearfoot varum be caused by
|
Knee, tibia, calcaneus, talocrural and subtalar deformity
|
|
|
What type of end feel does the ankle joint have
|
Firm capsular end feel
|
|
|
What is the closed packed position for the ankle joint
|
Full dorsiflexion and slight medial rotation of the tibia
|
|
|
In what direction will the subtalar end feel be bony
|
Eversion. Only when the calcaneus meets the floor of the sinus tarsi.
|
|
|
What is the closed packed position for the subtalar joint
|
Eversion
|
|
|
What is the closed packed position for the midtarsal joint
|
Supination of the forefoot relative to the calcaneus
|
|
|
What muscles invert and dorsiflex the foot
|
Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
|
|
|
What muscles evert and dorsiflex the foot
|
Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius
|
|
|
What innervates the dorsiflexors of the foot
|
Deep peroneal nerve
|
|
|
What muscles plantar flex and invert the foot
|
Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus
|
|
|
What muscles perform pure plantar flexion
|
Triceps surae
|
|
|
What muscle everts and plantarflexes the foot
|
Peroneus longus and brevis
|
|
|
What innervates the pure and inverting plantar flexors
|
Tibial nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the everting plantar flexors
|
Superficial peroneal nerve
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the peroneus brevis
|
O: distal 2/3 of the lat. Surface of the fibula. I: passes behind lat. Malleolus and inserts on lat aspect of the 5th MT tuberosity. A: plantar flex and eversion. N: superficial peroneal nerve L4-S1 but mainly S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the peroneus brevis
|
Assist PL with eversion. Counter balance Tib Ant
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the peroneus longus
|
O: head and prox 2/3 lat shaft of fib. I: base of 1st MT, med aspect of plantar 1st cuneiform. A: plantar pronation. N: superficial peroneal nerve L4-S1 but mainly S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the peroneus longus
|
Dynamic stability of plantar arches, supports calcaneocuboid joint
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the peroneus tertius
|
O:Dist 1/3 of the ant surface of the fib and interosseous membrane. I: dorsal surface at the base of the 5th MT. A: dorsiflexion and eversion. N: deep peroneal nerve L4-S1 mainly S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the peroneus tertius
|
Assist with eversion
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the tibialis anterior
|
O: lat condyle of tib, prox 2/3 of anterolat tib shaft and interosseous membrane. I: med surface of the 1st cuneiform and 1st MT base. A: dorsi and sup. N: deep peroneal nerve L4-S1 mainly S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the tibialis anterior
|
Supports med longitudinal arch, eccentric contraction controls pronation during gait. Dorsi during swing phase
|
|
|
What is the main function of the extensor hallucis longus
|
Assist with dorsi and inversion. Helped by the extensor hallucis brevis in big toe extension
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the extensor hallucis longus
|
O: middle part of the ant surface of fib and interosseous membrane. I: dorsal surface of the distal phalanx of the hallux. A: ext at the IP and MTP joints. N: deep peroneal nerve L4-S1 mainly S1
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the extensor digitorum longus
|
O: lat condyle of the tib and prox tibfib joint capsule, prox 2/3 of anteromed surface of fib and interosseous membrane. I: divides into 4 extensor hoods onto middle and distal phalanges of 2nd-5th toes. Extensor brevis joints on the 2nd-4th toes. A: ext of MTP and IP joints of the 2nd-5th toes. N: deep peroneal nerve L4-S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the extensor digitorum longus
|
Assist with dorsi and eversion; extend toes during swing
|
|
|
What is the pathway of the peroneus longus tendon
|
From the fibula the tendon passes behind the lat malleolus and obliquely antero-inf along the calcaneus within a groove on the cuboid.
|
|
|
What holds the peroneus longus tendon down along the lateral ankle
|
Peroneal retinaculae
|
|
|
What is the main function of the flexor hallucis longus
|
Assist with plantar and inversion, eccentric control of big toe during toe off
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the flexor hallucis longus
|
O: dist 2/3 fo the post fib and interosseous membrane. I: base of dist phalanx of the big toe. A: flex the IP and MTP hallux joint. N: tibial nerve L5-S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the flexor digitorum longus
|
Assist with plantar flexion of the foot. Eccentrically controls toe ext during toe off
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the flexor digitorum longus
|
O: middle 1/3 of the post tib and fascia of tibialis post. I: plantar aspect of dist phalanx of the 2nd-5th toes. A: Assist with plantarflexion of the distal 2nd-5th IP joints. N: tibial nerve L5-S1
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the tibialis posterior
|
O: prox 2/3 of the posteromed surface of the fib, posterolat tib and interosseous membrane. I: tuberosity of the navicular, plantar aspect of all cuneiforms, cuboid and 2nd-4th MT. A: plantarflex, ADD, and inversion of foot. N: tibial nerve L5-S1
|
|
|
What is the main function of the tibialis posterior
|
Support med arch; pulls forefoot into rearfoot during propulsive gait; supinates the calcaneus at the heel rise and locks the calcaneus
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the gastrocnemius
|
O: med head: from the med condyle of the femur. Lat head: lat condyle of the femur. I: tuberosity of the calcaneus. A: plantarflex, flex at knee, ext of knee at last 15 degrees. N: tibial nerve S1-2
|
|
|
What is the main function of the gastroc
|
Together with soleus contributes to 80% of plantarflexion and propulsion. Eccentrically slows body down
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the Soleus
|
O: post surface of the head and the prox 1/3 of fib; popliteal line and middle 1/3 of the med border of the tibia. I: unites with gastroc forming Achilles tendon attaching to calcaneal tuberosity. A: plantarflex. N: tibial nerve S1-2
|
|
|
What is the main function of the soleus
|
Prime plantarflexor when the knee is fully flexed
|
|
|
What is a secondary action of the flexor hallucis longus tendon
|
Tendon hooks under the talus and sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus and supports the subtalar joint
|
|
|
What is a secondary action of the tibialis posterior tendon
|
Hooks under the med edge of the sustentaculum tali and supports the subtalar joint
|
|
|
What is the end feel for flexion of the knee
|
Soft tissue end feel
|
|
|
What is the end feel for extension of the knee
|
Firm capsular end feel
|
|
|
What is the closed packed position of the knee
|
Full extension
|
|
|
What muscles flex the knee and externally rotate it
|
Biceps femoris short and long head, TFL
|
|
|
What muscles flex the knee and internally rotate it
|
Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartorius, gracilis
|
|
|
What is the innervation for the biceps femoris
|
Short head is Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and the long head is the tibial division of the sciatic nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the semitendinosus and semimembranosus
|
Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the TFL
|
Sup gluteal nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the sartorius
|
Femoral nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the gracilis
|
Obturator nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the popliteus
|
Tibial nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the VMO, VLO, rectus femoris, articularis genus, and vastus intermedius
|
Femoral nerve
|
|
|
What muscles extend and externally rotate the knee
|
VLO
|
|
|
What muscles extend and internally rotate the knee
|
rectus femoris, articularis genus, and vastus intermedius
|
|
|
What muscles resist anterior tibial translation
|
Hamstrings and IT band
|
|
|
What muscles resist posterior tibial translation
|
Quads, retinaculae, patella and patellar ligament
|
|
|
What muscles resist anterior femoral translation
|
Popliteus and gastroc
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the semitendinosus
|
O: med surface of the upper portion of the ischial tuberosity interwoven with biceps femoris and semimembranosus. I: pes anserine. A: flex leg, internally rotate tib, extend hip, int. rotation of lower leg when knee flexed. N: tibial division of sciatic nerve L4-S2 mainly L5-S1
|
|
|
What is the key function of the semitendinosus, semimembranosus and biceps femoris
|
Decelerate leg during swing phase, resist ant sliding of tib during extension, reinforces ACL, and controls ER of the knee. The biceps femoris also acts in posture
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the semimembranosus
|
O: superolat. Surface of isch tub interwoven with other hammies. I: posteromed. Aspect of med. Tibial condyle of the femur. Also blends with post. Knee joint capsule and oblique popliteal lig. A: flex at knee joint, ext. at hip, IR the lower extremity when knee is slightly flexed. N: tibial division of sciatic nerve L4-S2 mainly L5-S1
|
|
|
What is the key function of the popliteus
|
Screw home, unlocking of knee joint via IR of the tibia beginning at flexion.
|
|
|
What is the O, I, A, N of the biceps femoris
|
O: Short head: lat. Lip of linea aspera, supracondylar line of femur and adjacent lateral intermuscular septum. Long Head- inferomed. Isch tub and adjacent sacrotuberous lig interwoven with semitendinosus. I: head of fibula. LCL and lat. Condyle of tibia. A: flex leg, ER leg, extend hip, ER of lower leg when knee slightly flexed. N: peroneal to short head and tibial division of the sciatic nerve to the long head
|
|
|
What is the key function of
|
|
|
|
What is the end feel for flexion of the knee
|
Soft tissue end feel
|
|
|
What is the end feel for extension of the knee
|
Firm capsular end feel
|
|
|
What is the closed packed position of the knee
|
Full extension
|
|
|
What muscles flex the knee and externally rotate it
|
Biceps femoris short and long head, TFL
|
|
|
What muscles flex the knee and internally rotate it
|
Semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartorius, gracilis
|
|
|
What is the innervation for the biceps femoris
|
Short head is Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and the long head is the tibial division of the sciatic nerve
|
|
|
What innervates the semitendinosus and semimembranosus
|
Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
|
|
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What innervates the TFL
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Sup gluteal nerve
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What innervates the sartorius
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Femoral nerve
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What innervates the gracilis
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Obturator nerve
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What innervates the popliteus
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Tibial nerve
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What innervates the VMO, VLO, rectus femoris, articularis genus, and vastus intermedius
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Femoral nerve
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What muscles extend and externally rotate the knee
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VLO
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What muscles extend and internally rotate the knee
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rectus femoris, articularis genus, and vastus intermedius
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What muscles resist anterior tibial translation
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Hamstrings and IT band
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What muscles resist posterior tibial translation
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Quads, retinaculae, patella and patellar ligament
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What muscles resist anterior femoral translation
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Popliteus and gastroc
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What is the O, I, A, N of the semitendinosus
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O: med surface of the upper portion of the ischial tuberosity interwoven with biceps femoris and semimembranosus. I: pes anserine. A: flex leg, internally rotate tib, extend hip, int. rotation of lower leg when knee flexed. N: tibial division of sciatic nerve L4-S2 mainly L5-S1
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What is the key function of the semitendinosus, semimembranosus and biceps femoris
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Decelerate leg during swing phase, resist ant sliding of tib during extension, reinforces ACL, and controls ER of the knee. The biceps femoris also acts in posture
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What is the O, I, A, N of the semimembranosus
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O: superolat. Surface of isch tub interwoven with other hammies. I: posteromed. Aspect of med. Tibial condyle of the femur. Also blends with post. Knee joint capsule and oblique popliteal lig. A: flex at knee joint, ext. at hip, IR the lower extremity when knee is slightly flexed. N: tibial division of sciatic nerve L4-S2 mainly L5-S1
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What is the key function of the popliteus
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Screw home, unlocking of knee joint via IR of the tibia beginning at flexion.
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What is the O, I, A, N of the biceps femoris
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O: Short head: lat. Lip of linea aspera, supracondylar line of femur and adjacent lateral intermuscular septum. Long Head- inferomed. Isch tub and adjacent sacrotuberous lig interwoven with semitendinosus. I: head of fibula. LCL and lat. Condyle of tibia. A: flex leg, ER leg, extend hip, ER of lower leg when knee slightly flexed. N: peroneal to short head and tibial division of the sciatic nerve to the long head
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What is the key function of
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What is the O, I, A, N of the popliteus
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O: Anterolat. Condyle fo the femur and adjacent popliteal lig., capsule, and lat. Meniscus. I: med. 2/3 of the soleal line and above on the post. Surface of the tibia. A: rotates tibia internally when non wt. bearing, rotates femur when wt. bearing. N: tibial n. L5-S1
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What is the key function of the sartorius
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Anteromed stability of the knee
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What is the O, I, A, N of the sartorius
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O: ant. sup. Iliac spine and adjacent notch. I: pes anserine. A: FABER. N: femoral n. L2-3
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What is the key function of the rectus femoris
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Only ms. That can extend leg and flex the thigh
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What is the O, I, A, N of the rectus femoris
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O: straight tendond- AIIS; reflected tendon: upper brim of acetabulum and fibrous capsule of the hip joint. I: tib tuberosity. A: extend leg at knee and flex hip. N: femoral n. L2-4
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What is the key function of the
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What is the O, I, A, N of the vastus intermedius
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O: ant. And lat. Surface of the upper 2/3 of femoral shaft, distal ½ of linea aspera and adjacent intermuscular septum. I: tibial tuberosity. A: extend leg at knee. N: femoral L3-4
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What is the key function of the vastus lateralis
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When tight may lead to lat. Patellar tracking dysfunction
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What is the key function of the gluteus minimus
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Assists gluteus medius as a lateral stabilizer of the trunk
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What is the key function of the vastus medialis
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Draws the patella medially during the terminal phases of extension at the knee joint
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What is the O, I, A, N of the vastus lateralis
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O: upper portion of the inter-trochanteric line. Ant. And inf. Surface of the greater trochanter. Lat lip of glut tuberosity. Upper ½ of the lat lip of the linea aspera. I: tibial tuberosity and support to the patella and lat. Knee jt. A: extends leg at knee jt. N: femoral L2-4
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What is the OIAN of the vastus medialis
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O: lower portion of the inter-trochanteric line of the femur; spiral line of the femur;medial lip of the linea aspera; upper medial surface of the supra-condylar ridge of the femur; adjacent tendons of the ADD longus and intermuscular septum. I: tib tuberosity. A: extend leg at knee. N: femoral L3-4
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What end feels of the hip are firm capsular
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Extension, ABD, ADD. Flexion is a soft tissue end feel
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What is the hips closed packed position
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IR with extension and ABD of the femur
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What is the component motion of the hip that causes flexion
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Post and inf glide of the femur in the acetabulum
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What is the component motion of the hip that causes extension
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Ant and sup glide of the femur in the acetabulum
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What is the component motion of the hip that causes ADD
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Sup Glide of the femur in the acetabulum
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What is the component motion of the hip that causes ER
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Ant glide of femoral head
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What is the component motion of the hip that causes IR
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Post glide of femoral head
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What are the primary flexors at the hip joint
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Psoas major and minor and iliacus
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What innervates the psoas major and minor
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Ventral primary rami L1-3
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What are the secondary flexors at the hip joint
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TFL, pectineus, ADD longus, gracilis, sartorius, Glut med and minimus and rectus femoris
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What are the primary extensors with ER of the hip
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Glut max and long head of biceps femoris
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What are the primary extensors with IR of the hip
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Semimembranosus and semitendinosus
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What are the secondary extensors of the hip joint
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ADD magnus, glut med
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What are the primary ADD at the hip with IR
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ADD longus and brevis, gracilis. ADD magnus
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What are the primary ADD at the hip with ER
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Pectineus
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What are the primary ABD at the hip joint
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Glut med and TFL
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What are the secondary ABD of the hip joint
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Piriformis and glut minimus and max
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What are the primary IR at the hip
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Glut min and TFL
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What are the secondary IR at the hip joint
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Gracilis, ADD magnus, longus and brevis, semimembranosus and semitendinosus
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What are the primary ER at the hip
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Quadratus femoris, piriformis, sup and inf gemellus, obturator externus and internus, and glut max
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What are the secondary ER at the hip
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Psoas major, iliacus, pectineus, ADD longus and brevis, long head of biceps femoris, and post fibers of glut med.
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What is the OIAN of the psoas major
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O: ant and lat surface of T12-L5 bodies and discs. Ant and inf surface of l1-5 tps. I: lesser trochanter of the femur with fibers of the iliacus forming the illiopsoas. A: flexion and weak ER of the hip. N: fermoral nerve L2-3 and some from L1-4 directly from lumbar plexus
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What is the main function of the pectineus
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Assists the iliopsoas and ADD
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What is the main function of the psoas major
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Stabilization of the trunk, and posture
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What is the OIAN of the iliacus
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O: upper 2/3 of the iliac fossa; inner lip of iliac crest; anterolat aspect of sacral base and adjacent iliosumbar and SI ligs. I: lat aspect of the psoas major tendon and attaches just below the lesser trochanter. A: flex and weak ER. N: femoral L2-3 and some L1-2 from lumbar plexus
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What is the main function of the iliacus
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Posture
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What is the OIAN of the pectineus
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O: pecten pubis. I: pectineal line of the femur and may bet attached to the capsule of the hip joint. A: ADD some flexion. N: 90% of pop. Only femoral nerve in the rest it gets some help from obturator nerve
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What is the main function of the TFL
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Postural ABD of the hip, lateral support of knee joint, counteracts lat rotation of the iliopsoas
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What is the OIAN of the TFL
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O: From the ASIS and ant iliac crest. I: ITB to gerdy’s tubercle. A: ABDm Flex. And IR. N: sup gluteal L4-S1
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What is the main function of the Gluteus Medius
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Primary lat stabilizer of the trunk
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What is the OIAN of the Gluteus minimus
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O: external illium between ant and inf gluteal lines; the margin of the greater sciatic notch of the illium. I: ant surface of the greater trochanter of the femur and the capsule of the hip joint. A: ABD, IR and flexion. N: sup gluteal L4-S1
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What is the main function of the gluteus maximus
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Stabilizes trunk when knee is extended
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What is the OIAN of the gluteus medius
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O: external surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and post gluteal line; along ant gluteal line of the ilium and adjacent gluteal aponeurosis. I: oblique ridge on the lat surface of the great trochanter of the femur. A: ABD; post fibers ER and extension; ant fibers flex and IR. N: sup gluteal L4-S1
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What is the OIAN of the Gluteus Maximus
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O: external ilium; TL fascia; dorsal and lat surfaces of the sacrum and coccyx; sacrotuberous lig; adjacent gluteal aponeurosis. I: greater trochanter of femur and IT; deep fibers to gluteal tuberosity. A: extend and ER with trunk stable; some ABD. N: inf gluteal L5-S2
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What is the OIAN of the piriformis
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O: ant and lat surface of sacrum between 1st-4th sacral foramina; gluteal surface fo the ilium adjacent to the PIIS; capsule of SI jt.; upper portion of sacrotuberous lig. I: thru greater sciatic foramen to the superior border of the greater trochanter. A: ER when hip extended; ABD when hip flexed. N: nerve to piriformis S1-2
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