• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/176

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

176 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the most common symptom of CHD?

Angina

Characteristic symptoms of angina?

Heaviness/tightness in centre of chest




May spread to arm, neck, face, back

Why does angina occur?

arteries narrowed to the point that not enough oxygen reaches the heart during high demand

Briefly describe angioplasty

insert balloon via catheter




inflate to widen narrow/obstructed BVs

Briefly describe HDL cholesterol

fraction attached to proteins that remove cholesterol in the liver (from tissues)




low levels associated w high atherosclerosis risk

MI is caused by what?

blockage of a coronary artery leading to death of part of heart muscle

Briefly describe heart failure

syndrome where heart is unable to pump blood to meet body's demands (due to damage/overwork)

Briefly describe LDL cholesterol

fraction attached to proteins that carry cholesterol to tissues




high LDL associated with atherosclerotic developlment

Brief definition of stroke?

sudden and sustained loss of an aspect of brain function most commonly caused by interruption of cerebral blood flow

Factors influencing SA node heart control?

Activity of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves




Plasma epinephrine

Properties of arteries?

Endothelium, SM and CT




Muscular




Highly elastic

Properties of capillaries?

Endothelium




Thin walled




Highly permeable

Arterioles are responsible for what?

blood flow to organs




major sites of resistance

Severity of CHD can be influenced by what?

Location of atherosclerotic plaque

Which stages are central to both cancer and CHD (particularly atherosclerosis)?

Cell migration, adhesion, invasion




Proliferation/apoptosis




Angiogenesis

Atherosclerosis is a disease of which vessel type?

Arteries




May rarely be seen in grafted veins

Main difference between LDL and HDL components?

LDL has apoprotein B




HDL has apoproteins A-I

Potential causes of endothelial injury?

Circulating endotoxins, viruses




hypoxia




cigarette smoke products




hypertension/mechanical stress




specific endothelial toxins e.g. homocysteine

Atherosclerosis treatment options?

CA bypass




Angioplasty




Stents




Drugs

Possible drugs used in atherosclerotic treatments?

thrombolytic agents




statins




anticoagulants




anti-platelet drugs

Plasminogen activators are used therapeutically for what?

AMIs and PEs

How does warfarin work?

anticoagulant - prevents reduction of oxidised vitamin K




blocks gamma carboxylation by preventing recycling of vitamin k

How do statins work?

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (rate limiting step)




Synthesis inhibition causes upreg of LDL receptor synthesis




Greater LDL clearance from plasma to liver

Hypertension can be defined as?

sustained elevation of arterial bp

Why can hypertension be dangerous?

can be asymptomatic until late in course




increases risk of CHD, stroke and PVD




effects are at least significant if not fatal

Control of arterial BP depends on interaction of:

Cardiac output




peripheral resistance

cardiac output is determined by?

product of heart rate and stroke volume

Main effects of Angiotensin II?

elevates arterial BP by increasing PR and circulating blood volume

How does ATII increase PR?

Vasoconstriction - direct effect on vascular SM




Stimulation of vasomotor centres in brain




Promote catecholamine release from adrenal medulla - increase HR and contraction strength

How does ATII increase circulating BV?

Stimulates adrenal cortex>aldosterone release




Increases Na uptake from DCT




Draws water with it

Why is elevated diastolic BP considered critical?

represents increased peripheral resistance

What are the types of hypertension?

Primary/Essential - no specific underlying cause identified




Secondary - associated w specific underlying disease resulting in increased arterial BP

Which is the most common type of hypertension?

Primary

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

decreased renal blood flow




triggers RA mechanism, increasing BP

What are the two clinical courses of hypertension?

benign




malignant

pathological evidence of hypertension in the heart?

hypertrophy

pathological consequence of hypertension in the brain?

haemorrhage

pathological consequences of hypertension in the kidneys?

progressive ischaemia of the nephron




later destruction of glomeruli




consequential atrophy of renal tubules




progressive CRF

pathological consequences of hypertension in the eyes?

retinal haemorrhage or exudate which may lead to blindness

Types of angina?

Stable and Variant

Types of cardiomyopathy?

Dilated congestive




Hypertrophic




Restrictive

Adenohypophysis is found where?

anterior pituitary

neurohypophysis is found where?

posterior pituitary

the pineal gland is involved in regulating what?

sleep

what causes goiter formation?

lack of iodine - t3 and 4 still made but can't be released

what is the parathyroid gland involved in regulation of?

calcium

alpha and beta pancreatic cells produce what?

glucagon and insulin

delta and f pancreatic cells produce what?

delta - somatostatin




f - pancreatic polypeptide

Which cells secrete epinephrine/norepinephrine?

adrenal medulla chromaffin cells

zona reticularis cells secrete what?

androgens

zona fasciculata cells secrete what?

glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol

zona glomerulosa cells secrete what?

mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone

Common infections that may be seen with diabetes mellitus?

boils/carbuncles




pyelonephritis infections




vaginal candidiasis

Individuals with the SRY gene will develop as what? Why?

Males




SRY gene codes for the protein TDF

What provides tissue for gonads in embryos?

Mesenephros

how do ovaries/testes develop in foetus?

SRY genes produce TF > acts on sertoli cells > testes develop




SRY genes absent - DAX-1 unopposed > genital ridge develops as ovary

What mutation causes an embryo to develop as intersex?

mutation in PG-21 receptor on Wolffian duct androgen receptors

Primary amenorrhea could be defined as?

lack of menstruation by 16 years old

Secondary amenorrhea can be defined as?

abscence of menstruation for at least 3 cycles

Key characteristics of PCOS?

anovulation




increased androgen levels




polycystic ovaries

Definitions for posture, stance and gait?

posture - position of body




stance - relation of feet to position of rest of body




gait - describes movement during locomotion

Movement disorders can be recognised by...

disruption of any combination of posture, stance or gait

2 classifications of movement in movement disorders?

hyperkinetic




hypokinetic

4 cardinal signs of parkinson's disease?

tremor




akinesia




rigidity




loss of postural reflex

tremor can be defined as?

contraction of agonist and antagonist muscles which can occur around any joint and may do so in a rhythmic manner

akinesia can be described as?

difficulty in initiating and carrying out purposeful movements

rigidity could be described as?

increased resistance to passive movement, fairly equal in flexors and extensors and present throughout the range of movement

Stage one of Parkinson's disease is characterised by?

unilateral disease

types of tremor?

postural




familial




intention

How could chorea be defined?

class of abnormal movements which are individual, brief, purposeless sudden jerks

What causes tardy dyskinesia?

chronic exposure to neuroleptic medication

spasmodic torticollis could be described as what? what is the most common manifestation?

partial/segmented dystonia




turning of neck

what is hemiballismus?

abnormal involuntary movements involving arm and leg on one side

what is athetosis?

inability to maintain normal hand posture

Components of the basal ganglia?

dorsal striatum




ventrolateral + ventral anterior thalamic nuclei




centromedian nucleus




Ext + int globus pallidus




Substantia nigra

Components of the dorsal striatum?

caudate nucleus and putamen

components of the substantia nigra?

pars reticulata - outer




pars compacta - inner

Motor loop consists of?

BG




Thalamus




motor cortex area 6 and 4

input stage of the basal ganglia?

striatum

outputs of basal ganglia?

internal globus pallidus




substantia nigra pars reticulata

regulation regarding basal ganglia and components?

substantia nigra pars compacta

which receptors predominate in the direct pathway?

d1

which receptors predominate in the indirect pathway?

d2

most neurons in the basal ganglia are...

inhibitory - use GABA as neurotransmitter

which neurons in the basal ganglia are not inhibitory?

STN neurons - use glutamate as NT

what links to the start of both the direct and indirect pathways?

substantia nigra pars compacta

how is dopamine delivered to treat parkinson's disease?

combination of l-dopa and carbidopa

ventricle disarrhthymias can be linked to what?

stress




circulating hormones

what are the phases of general adaptation syndrome?

alarm stage




resistance/adaptation




exhaustion

Selye defined what 3 components of physiological stress?

exo/endogenous stressor initiating the disturbance




chemical/physical disturbance produced by stressor




body's adaptational response

the limbic system is an extension of what?

the olfactory system

a real stressor causes the response to start in...

the limbic system or




specific sensory system

a perceived stressor causes the response to start in

the limbic system

Meningeal artery tear is generally caused by what?

temporal fracture

TBI can lead to cell death via which intracellular systems?

necrotic pathway




apoptotic pathway




autophaogcytosis

what is the function of atrial natiuretic peptide?

decrease bp by increasing salt excretion

thirst control via loop of which components?

kidney water reabsorption




blood volume/osmloarity




hypothalamic adh release

peripheral chemoreceptors are located where? what do they respond to?

carotid body




primarily pO2 changes

central chemoreceptors are located where? what do they respond to?

brainstem




primarily pCO2 changes

Define inspiratory reserve volume

max volume inhaled at end of quiet inspiration

define expiratory reserve volume

max vol expired at end of quiet expiration

define residual volume

air remaining in lung after max exp effort

which of the lung volumes can't be measured by spirometer? Why?

residual volume




only measures change in lung volumes

what is the total lung capacity?

sum of all 4 volumes

what is functional residual capacity?

air remaining after quiet expiration




erv+rv

what is inspiratory capacity?

max inspired volume after quiet expiration




irv+tv

what is vital capacity?

irv+tv+erv

what is fev1?

forced expiratory volume in 1 second

what does fev1 reflect?

airway narrowing




affected in disorders with increased airway resistance eg asthma

fev1 and fvc can be used to distinguish between what?

obstructive and restrictive patterns of disease

what does pefr measure?

existence and severity of airflow obstruction

When does frc increase? why?

in copd




increased rv

when does pefr decrease?

obstructive disease

airflow is determined by?

pressure gradient over airway resistance

what generates the pressure gradient in lungs?

difference between atmospheric and intralveolar pressure

copd describes what group of disorders?

chronic bronchitis




asthma




emphysema

3 main pathological features of asthma?

bronchospasm




mucus plugging




mucosal oedema

what forms CL crystals?

crystallised lysophospholipase




enzyme produced by eosinophils

what is compliance?

change in volume over change in pressure

synthetic renal functions include which substances?

EPO




Renin




vitamin d3

3 elements of the renal filtration barrier?

endothelium




basement membrane




podocytes

GFR is equal to what?

product of net ultrafiltration pressure and ultrafiltration coefficient

GFR is proportional to what?

body surface area

filtration fraction equals..?

gfr over rpf

Methods for autoregulation of RPF and GFR?

Myogenic Mechanism




Tubulo-Glomerular Feedback

What interconnects the layers of the GIT?

Plexuses

What are the three submucosal layers?

Epithelium




lamina propria




muscularis mucosae

What are the three intrinsic nerve plexuses?

submucosal




myenteric




subserous

Pepsinogen is secreted by which cells?

chief cells/peptic cells

Peptic ulcer causes include

acid secretion




NSAIDs,




Pepsin activity




H pylori infection

H pylori adherence is mediated by what?

specific glycolipid receptors in antral region

What are the two gastric forms of adenocarcinoma?

diffuse




intestinal

Atherosclerosis risk factors with a genetic component?

Family history




Male




Obesity




Metabolic syndrome




Hypertension

Atherosclerosis risk factors with an environmental component?

Smoking




Diet/alcohol/obesity




Infection




Stress




Physical inactivity

Common components of LDL and HDL?

cholesterol, ester of cholesterol




phospholipid




triglyceride

Which heart pathological indicator is a poor prognostic factor in hypertension?

left ventricular hypertrophy

Why are cerebral and retinal vessels susceptible to haemorrhage in hypertension?

lack structural support compared to those of other tissues

Evidence of PVD?

delayed or absent peripheral pulse

How is acute coronary syndrome diagnosed?

ECG




inflam markers - C-reactive and amyloid-A proteins

What may be used to stabilise clots prior to angioplasty?

Platelet glycoproteins IIIA and IIB

Cardiomyopathies can be defined as?

progressive disorders impairing function of muscular walls of ventricles

A viral cause of cardiomyopathy?

Cosackie Virus B

Akinesia is commonly seen in which movements during PD?

Walking




masking of faces




reptilian stare

Rigidity is commonly demonstrated in which manner during PD?

cog wheel rigidity in the arms

Which reflexes may be lost in PD?

threats to postural reflex




glabellar

Tests that may be used to distinguish between types of tremor?

finger to nose




archimedes screw

causes of intention tremor?

cerebellar disease




MS

Factors affecting insp/exp reserve volumes?

Current volume




Lung compliance




Muscle strength




Comfort, posture, flexibility

Factors affecting airflow through lung?

pressure gradient




airway resistance

Relation of airflow to pressure gradient and airway resistance?

Directly proportional to pressure gradient




Inversely proportional to airway resistance

Maintenance of airway size during quiet respiration?

parasympathetic nervous system maintains muscle tone




acetycholine main neurotransmitter

Why is airflow reduced during COPD?

asthma + CB narrow airways - increased resistance




emphysema causes loss of elastic recoil - reduced outflow pressure

Types of asthma?

Extrinsic - type 1 hypersensitivity reaction




Instrinsic - non-immune triggers

Physiological changes during the alarm phase of stress response?

upreg of energy use, mobilise glycogen




decrease digestion+urine prod, redistribute blood




increased resp rate




sweating




adr/na release

Physiological changes in the resistance phase of stress response?

Hypothalamus stimulates AP




causes release of GH and ACTH




results in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid secretion

Where are endorphins released from?

AP in response to CRH from hypothalamus

Aetiology of PD?

Cerebral mitochondrial dysfunction




Genes




Toxic collection of heavy metals

Other motor disorders of the BG?

Drung-induced parkinsonism




Vascular parkinsonism




Post encephalitic parkinsonism

Location of extradural haematoma?

between dura and skull

what are the layers of the dura mater?

periosteal




meningeal

location of subdural haematoma?

between arachnoid and dura mater

location of intracerebral haematoma?

in brain matter itself

Pathological indicators of DAI?

Retraction balls




Gliosis




increased number of supporting cells

Factors that can affect blood pressure drop?

CO




PR




Blood viscosity




Blood volume

Where is prolactin produced?

anterior pituitary

Where is oxytocin produced?

poster pituitary

Example of a drug that may be used in a drug eluting stent?

Sirolimus - previously used to prevent rejection post transplant

Electrical charge on albumin at physiological ph?

negative

GFR is equal to?

net ultrafiltration pressure x ultrafiltration coefficient

Why is there no direct ways to measure GFR?

actual value is the sum of all individual nephrons

Transmission of H pylori?

faeco oral

Omeprazole may be used to treat H pylori - what is its function?

proton pump inhibitor

Methods of hormone release?

Circulating




local - autocrine and paracrine

Types of hormones?

water soluble




lipid soluble

Mechanisms of action of lipid soluble hormones?

bind to surface receptor - rapid response




bind to cytoplasmic receptor - transcription




enter nucleus, bind receptor - transcription

Mechanism of action for water soluble hormones?

2 messenger/cascade system