Biology Exam 8,9,10

Front 1

the creation of offspring carrying genetic information from a single parent is called

Back 1

asexual reproduction

Front 2

Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true?

Back 2

Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.

Front 3

Strictly speaking, the phrase "like begets like" refers to

Back 3

asexual reproduction only.

Front 4

Asexual reproduction requires

Back 4

1 individual .

Front 5

Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?

Back 5

Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

Front 6

Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is false?

Back 6

Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.

Front 7

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they:

Back 7

are haused in a membrane-enclosed nucleous.

Front 8

Which of the following helps maintain the structure of the chromosomes and control the activity of genes?

Back 8

Proteins.

Front 9

Sister chromatids are:

Back 9

tightly linked together at a centromere.

Front 10

Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called:

Back 10

sister chromatids.

Front 11

Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?

Back 11

Interphase.

Front 12

Which of the following occurs during Interphase?

Back 12

Cell grows and duplication of the chromosomes.

Front 13

The genetic material is duplicated during what phase in Interphase?

Back 13

S phase.

Front 14

If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would:

Back 14

Have half of the genetic material found in the parent cell.

Front 15

The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells called:

Back 15

Cytokinesis.

Front 16

The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called the:

Back 16

Prophase/Prometaphase

Front 17

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles?

Back 17

Methaphase.

Front 18

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form and the nucleoli reappear?

Back 18

Telophase.

Front 19

Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division?

Back 19

Formation of a cell plate.

Front 20

When Animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of:

Back 20

Density-dependent inhibition.

Front 21

As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of:

Back 21

Density-dependent inhibition.

Front 22

Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition?

Back 22

Physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent cells.

Front 23

Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells

Back 23

Are permanently in a state of non-division.

Front 24

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-cycle control system is false?

Back 24

The cell-cycle control system operates independently on the growth factors.

Front 25

A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor

Back 25

does not metastasize.

Front 26

Two chromosomes in a nucleous that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of:

Back 26

Homologous chromosomes.

Front 27

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

Back 27

Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Front 28

Which of the following statements is false?

Back 28

Gametes are made by mitosis.

Hint 28

About gametes.

Front 29

During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur?

Back 29

Prophase 1.

Front 30

Which of the following options correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase 1 of meiosis?

Back 30

It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.

Front 31

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false?

Back 31

Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.

Front 32

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

Back 32

Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction. (False because Meiosis is sexual reproduction).

Front 33

Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false?

Back 33

Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.

Front 34

Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by what phase?

Back 34

Interphase.

Front 35

Which of the following statements regarding genetic diversity is false?

Back 35

Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis and somatic cells.

Front 36

Karyotyping

Back 36

Can reveal alterations in chromosome number.

Front 37

Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false?

Back 37

Women with Down Syndrome cannot reproduce.

Front 38

Nondisjunction occurs when:

Back 38

Members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.

Front 39

Which of the following statements about nondisfunction is false?

Back 39

In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.

Front 40

If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n=4, what best describes what just occurred?

Back 40

Meiosis with nondisjunction in meiosis II

Front 41

Which of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by Hippocrates?

Back 41

Particles called pangenes, which originate in each part of an organism's body, collect in the sperm or eggs and are passed on to the next generation.

Front 42

Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false?

Back 42

The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father.

Front 43

Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on:

Back 43

Peas.

Front 44

Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to as:

Back 44

True-breeding.

Front 45

Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false?

Back 45

The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.

Front 46

A monohybrid cross is:

Back 46

A breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character.

Front 47

Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?

Back 47

An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive.

Front 48

Research since Mendel's time has established that the law of segregation genes during gamete formation:

Back 48

Applies to all sexually reproducing organisms.

Front 49

All of the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. This means that the allele for black eyes is________the allele for orange eyes.

Back 49

Dominant.

Front 50

All of the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed mendelien and an orange-eyed mendelien have black eyes. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between two orange-eyed mendeliens?

Back 50

0 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed.

Front 51

The alleles of a gene are found at ____________chromosomes.

Back 51

The same locus on homologous.

Front 52

The phenotypic ratio resulting from a dihybrid cross showing independent assortment is expected to be

Back 52

9:3:3:1

Front 53

If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the cross: AaBb x AaBb?

Back 53

9:3:3:1

Front 54

Mendel's law of independent assortment states that:

Back 54

Each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.

Front 55

A testcross is:

Back 55

A mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest.

Front 56

Using a six-sided die, hat is the probability of rolling either a 5 or a 6?

Back 56

1/6+1/6=2/6...= 1/3

Front 57

Assuming that the probability of having a female child is 50% and the probability of having a make child is also 50%, what is the probability that a couple's first-born child will be female and that their second-born child will be male?

Back 57

25%

Front 58

A carried of a genetic disorder who doe snot show any symptoms is most likely to be_______to transmit it to offspring.

Back 58

Heterozygous for the trait and be able.

Front 59

Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr.Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes?

Back 59

Dd and Dd.

Front 60

Most genetic disorders of humans are caused by:

Back 60

recessive alleles.

Front 61

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance in humans?

Back 61

Hypercholesterolemia.

Front 62

For the most sexually reproducing organisms, Mendel's law:

Back 62

Explain the reasons why certain genes are dominant.

Front 63

Which of the following statements is false?

Back 63

Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis.

Front 64

All of the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This means that the allele for red flowers is_______to the allele for white flowers.

Back 64

Incompletely dominant.

Front 65

Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You make a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of:

Back 65

Incomplete dominance.

Front 66

A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of:

Back 66

Codominance.

Front 67

Which of the following statements regarding sickle-cell disease is false?

Back 67

Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle-shaped.

Front 68

Sickle-cell disease is an example of:

Back 68

codominance and pleiotropy.

Front 69

Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes?

Back 69

Polygenic inheritance.

Front 70

Which of the following is essentially the opposite of pleiotropy?

Back 70

Polygenic inheritance.

Front 71

The individual features of all organisms are the result of:

Back 71

genetics and the environment.

Front 72

What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male/female?

Back 72

Male: One X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
Female: One X chromosome and one Y chromosome.

Front 73

Which plants in this figure must all be heterozygous?

Back 73

purple-flowered plants in the F1 generation.

Front 74

Which of the following statements regarding viruses is false?

Back 74

A virus is generally considered to be alive because it is cellular and can reproduce on its own.

Front 75

The scientists who conducted the experiments that demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophages?

Back 75

Hershey and Chase.

Front 76

One type of virus that infects bacteria is called a:

Back 76

Phage.

Front 77

When a T2 bacteriophage infects an Escherichia coli cell, which part of the phage enters the bacterial cytoplasm?

Back 77

Only the DNA .

Front 78

The monomers of DNA and RNA are:

Back 78

nucleotides.

Front 79

Which of the following statements regarding RNA is false? (sugar).

Back 79

RNA uses the sugar dextrose.

Front 80

Which of the following statements regarding the structure of DNA is false?

Back 80

The sequence of nucleotides along the length of a DNA strand is restricted by the base-pairing rules.

Front 81

The shape of a DNA molecule is most like:

Back 81

A twisted ladder (double helix).

Front 82

Which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is always true?

Back 82

The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

Front 83

DNA replication:

Back 83

Uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.

Front 84

When one DNA molecule is copied to make two DNA molecules, the new DNA contains: (what %)

Back 84

50% of the parent DNA.

Front 85

Multiple origins of replication on the DNA molecules of eukaryotic cells serve to: (what to the time?)

Back 85

Shorten the time necessary for DNA replication.

Front 86

The name of the enzymes which catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?

Back 86

DNA polymerase.

Front 87

Why does a DNA strand grow only in the 5' to 3' direction?

Back 87

Because DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing molecule.

Front 88

Which of the following options best depicts the flow of information when a gene directs the synthesis of a cellular component?

Back 88

DNA -> RNA -> protein.

Front 89

The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called:

Back 89

Transcription.

Front 90

The "one gene-one polypeptide" theory states that:

Back 90

The function of an individual gene is to dictate the production of a specific polypeptide.

Front 91

Experiments have demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are:

Back 91

Three-nucleotide sequences.

Front 92

The directions for each amino acid in a polypeptide are indicated by a codon that consists of________nucleotide(s) in an RNA molecule.

Back 92

3.

Front 93

We would expect that a 15-nucleotide sequence will direct the production of a polypeptide that consists of:

Back 93

4-amino acids.

Front 94

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the linking together of RNA nucleotides to form RNA?

Back 94

RNA polymerase.

Front 95

Where do transcription and translation occur in prokaryotic cells?

Back 95

In the cytoplasm.

Front 96

Which of the following takes place during translation?

Back 96

The conversion of genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins.

Front 97

Which of the following is NOT needed in order for translation to occur?

Back 97

DNA template.

Front 98

Which of the following statements is false?

Back 98

An mRNA molecule transcribed from DNA is shorter than the genetic message it carries.

Front 99

Which of the following statements regarding the flow of genetic information is false?

Back 99

Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

Front 100

A protein shell enclosing a viral genome is known as a:

Back 100

Capsid.

Front 101

Viral DNA incorporated into host cell DNA is known as a:

Back 101

Prophage.

Front 102

Which of the following statements regarding viral diseases is false?

Back 102

Very few new human diseases have originated in other animals because the genetic differences are too great.

Front 103

What kind of virus is HIV?

Back 103

A retrovirus.

Front 104

HIV does the greatest damage to _______blood cells.

Back 104

White.

Front 105

Which of the following statements about the treatment or prevention for a prion infection is true?

Back 105

There is no known treatment or cure for prion infections.

Front 106

Transduction:

Back 106

Occurs when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another.

Front 107

Conjugation, transformation, and transduction are all ways that bacteria:

Back 107

Increase their genetic diversity.