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80 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
Which of the following have cells that are in direct contact with either the internal or external environments therefore requiring no need for a specialized circulatory system?
A. Protozoans

B. Cnidarians

C. Arthropods

D. Annelids

E. Humans
B: Cnidarians fit this description because they contain body wall only 2 cells thick
Which of the following cause infectious diseases?
A. Pneumoniaes

B. Bacteria

C. Pathogens

D. Metamorphasis of organisms

E. Only caused by ingestion
C: Pathogens are agents that cause diseases.
Which is not a characteristic found during the development of chordate animals?
A. Paired gills

B. Notochord

C. Rhizoids

D. Tails

E. Anus
C: A Rhizoid is a specialized absorbing tissue that is found in plants. It helps the roots absorb nutrients.
In humans the site of fertilization is
A. Ovary

B. Fallopian tube

C. Uterus

D. Cervix

E. Vagina
B: Eggs released by ovary they travel through the Fallopian tubes (where fertilization occurs) then into the Uterus (where implantation occurs)
Successful ovulation in a woman can be determined by
A. Estrogen levels

B. Prolactin levels

C. Luteinizing hormone surge

D. Testosterone levels

E. Follicle stimulating hormone surge
C: Ovulation is always accompanied by a large surge in the luteinizing hormone (LH). Follicle stimulating hormone will also surge, but not to the same degree and it is not characteristic of ovulation.
A patient with a tumor located only on the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans would?
A. Secrete excess amounts of glucagons

B. Secrete low levels of glucagons

C. Secrete low levels of insulin

D. Have high blood calcium levels

E. Have low blood calcium levels
C: It is imperative to know what the islets of Langerhans are. They are the endocrine portions of the pancreas. They are made up of alpha and beta cells. Beta cells control the amount of insulin that is secreted. The alpha cells control the amount of glucagons released. Tumors may cause either an excess or deficiency in the amount of insulin released.
Neuralation is induced by cells of the
A. Archenteron

B. Dorsal lip of blastopore

C. Endodermal layer

D. Neural ectoderm

E. Neural crest
B: Neuralation is the process of neural tube formation. The neural plate invaginates and forms a tube. This is induced from a chemical message sent from the notochord mesoderm cells, which develop from the dorsal lip of the blastopore.
What acts as a catalyst in the following reaction? CO2 + H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2
A. Light


C. CO2

D. Chlorophyll

E. None
A: Chlorophyll is a green pigment essential as an e- donor, and for light capture in photosynthesis. When photons of light strike chlorophyll molecules, those molecules transfer the energy of light to their e-. Energy functions to 1. ADP to ATP, 2. NADP to NADPH, 3. Split H2O into 2H+ and ½ O2.
An oncogene is a gene that
A. Is always the result of the fusion of two genes.

B. When activated can lead to cancer.

C. Inhibits cellular proliferation unless mutated.

D. Prevents cancer

E. Is responsible for cancers such as retinoblastoma and breast cancer.
B: An oncogene is a gene that contributes to the production of cancer that needs to be turned on. They are generally mutated forms of normal cellular genes.
Which of the following is characteristic of urea?
A. Metabolized in the liver

B. Filtered through the liver

C. Product of protein metabolism

D. None of the above

E. All of the above
C: Urea is a waste product of protein that is collected and eventually excreted through the kidneys. Urea is a waste product of protein that is collected and eventually excreted through the kidneys.
Lack of use of skeletal muscles may result in which of the following?
A. Hypertrophy

B. Dystrophy

C. Hyperplasia

D. Tetany

E. Atrophy
E: Atrophy is the shrinking in size of muscle tissue. It is often associated with lack of use. Both hypertrophy and hyperplasia will result in larger and stronger muscle tissue.
Which of the following best describes the ionic movement once a cell reaches threshold and begins to depolarize?
A. Voltage gated potasium channels open and allow a potasium to move down an electronegative gradiant

B. Sodium channels open and sodium rushes into the cell membrane

C. Potasium channels open and potasium rushes into the cell membrane

D. Sodium channels open and allow sodium to rush out of the cell membrane

E. Potasium levels remain the same outside the cell membrane
B: There is a higher concentration of Na ouside the cell membrane and a higher concentration of K inside the cell membrane. Once threshold is met, voltage gated ion channels open and allow Na to rush into the cell. When voltage gated K channels open, it allows K to move down its electrochemical gradient. This process is known as REPOLARIZATION.
The Krebs Cycle involves
A. Formation of NAD

B. Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid

C. Transamination

D. Breaking of peptide bonds

E. Glycogen formation
B: Because the Krebs cycle is a cycle it must recycle its starting material (Oxaloacetate). The Krebs cycle yeilds NADH not NAD. Transamination and breaking of peptide bonds occur as proteins are broken down for energy purposes. Glycogen synthesis occurs as glucose molecules bind together, and occurs in the liver.
Which is not essential for blood clotting?
A. Sodium

B. Calcium

C. Prothrombin

D. Vitamin K

E. Platelets
A: The clotting process is a large cascade that sodium plays no role in. Platelets release Thromboplastin which with help from calcium and vitamin K convert prothrombin (inactive) to thrombin(active). Thrombin then aides in the conversion of fibrin which leads to clot formation.
A vaccine mostly results in
A. Active immunity

B. Bacteria superantigens

C. Production of antibodies

D. Virulence factors

E. Both A and C
E: A vaccine provides active immunity by producing antibodies in the body. A good example of this is the influenza vaccine of the strains from the previous year to build the antibodies in the body to fight the virus.
Which of the following is the pathway taken by the sperm in the male reproductive system?
A. Vas deferens, epididymis, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct, Urethra, penis

B. Ejaculatory duct, epididymis, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, urethra, penis

C. Epididymis, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, urethra, penis

D. Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, penis

E. Epididymis, vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, ejaculatory duct, urethra, penis
D: Remember the Mnemonic SEVEN UP where "N" stands for "nothing". All of the rest of the letters stand for the first letter of each pathway in order. Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, "nothing", urethra, penis.
The number of autosomal chromosome pairs found in humans is?
A. 44

B. 23

C. 22

D. 46

E. 1
C: Humans have 23 total chromosomes. 22 of these pairs are autosomal and 1 pair is a sex chromosomes.
Which does not act as a digestive enzyme for proteins?
A. Pepsin

B. Trypsin

C. Carboxypeptidase

D. Chymotrypsin

E. Gastrin
E: Gastrin does not act like an enzyme. Its function is to stimulate the secretion of gastric juices when food enters the stomach.
DNA replication is considered to be
A. Conservative

B. Random

C. Semi conservative

D. Degenerative

E. Monocistronic
C: As DNA replicates, the parent (original double strand of DNA) splits into two and is copied. The new copy of the DNA (a daughter) will contain one original strand (parental) of DNA and one copy (daughter) strand. This is said to be semi conservative because the parental DNA is not destroyed.
A man and a woman have 3 boys and 1 girl. What are the odds of them having another boy?
A. 25%

B. 33%

C. 50%

D. 75%

E. 80%
C: Each time these parent have another child, there is a 50% chance of them having eithe a boy or a girl.
Which of the following is characteristic of calcitonin?
A. It is not a hormone

B. Increases serum calcium

C. Decreases serum calcium

D. Has no effect on serum calcium

E. It is made in the anterior pituitary gland
C: CalciTONIN decreases serum calcium because it "tones it down".
What type of tissue forms the linings, glands, and respiratory tract?
A. Endoderm

B. Mesoderm

C. Ectoderm

D. Extraembryonic mesoderm

E. Intraembryonic mesoderm
A: ECTODERM includes epidermis, hair, nervous system, etc. MESODERM includes skeleto-muscular system, blood and vessels, smooth muscle, connective tissue, etc. ENDODERM includes linings and glands of respiratory and digestive tracts and associated organs.
Which of these is not associated with nucleotides found in DNA
A. Ribose sugar

B. Phosphate

C. Purine

D. Pyrimidine

E. Base
A: The ribose sugar is found on RNA. A deoxyribose sugar is what is found on the DNA. Each nucleotide contains one phosphate group attached to the sugar, which also attaches to a base. The base then separates the DNA nucleotides into Purines (G or A groups) and Pyrimidines (C or T groups).
Which is not true of most prokaryotic cells?
A. Are mostly unicellular

B. Contain cell walls

C. Spherical or rod shaped

D. DNA is contained in cytoplasm

E. Contain distinct nucleus
E: It is critical to know the difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotes (plants and animals) contain membrane bound organelles (like a nucleus and mitochondria), prokaryotes do not. Eukaryotes also are more complex than simple prokaryotes (bacteria).
Where is the most common site of hemopoetic activity?
A. Spleen

B. Bones

C. Colon

D. Liver

E. Small intestines
B: Long bones and flat bones are the major contributors of hemopoesis (the formation of blood cells). The spleen acts as a reservoir for blood, while the liver is a filter. The small intestines help with reabsorption of nutrients and the colon deals with absorption of water
The cells ability to form proteins from amino acids is known as?
A. Translation

B. Replication

C. Transcription

D. Adaptation

E. Polymerization
A: Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template. Replication is the formation of an identical molecule.
Which of the following animals lay leathery eggs?
A. Frog

B. Bat

C. Turtle

D. Opossum

E. Bird
C: Reptiles such as turtles will lay leathery eggs. Amphibians like frogs lay eggs in water with a jelly like substance surrounding them. Bats are placental mammals (carrying their young in a placenta). Opossums are marsupials who carry their young in pouches. Birds lay eggs but they have a hard outer shell.
Which of the following is true about the fate of pyruvate once it is formed during the glycolysis cycle?
A. Pyruvate is converted to Ethanol via the aerobic pathway

B. Pyruvate is converted to Lactate via the aerobic pathway

C. Pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA via the anaerobic pathway

D. Pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA via the aerobic pathway.

E. none of the above is correct
D: Once pyruvate is formed during glycolysis, it can proceed along 3 different pathways. 1) In the presence of Oxygen (aerobic), it will form acetyl CoA and move on for further oxidation. 2) When not in the presence of Oxygen (anaerobic), it can become lactate. 3) Also when not in the presence of Oxygen (anaerobic), it can become ethanol. But this ethanol pathway only occurs in bacteria and yeast.
In which of the following is where pollen grains of a flower develop?
A. Petal

B. Style

C. Stigma

D. Anther

E. Sepal
D: The PETALS, generally bright in color, are what attract the pollenators to the flower. The STYLE is the slender neck of the female part of the flower, the carpel. The STIGMA is at the tip of the carpel and is usually sticky in order to collect the pollen from the anther. The ANTHER contains the chamber where the pollen grains (male gametophytes) develop. The SEPALS enclose and protect the flower bud before it develops. So remember, the male part of the flower is the staMEN which is made up of the filaMENt and ANTHER. The CARPEL is the female part of the flower which contains the STIGMA, STYLE, and OVARY.
Which is not a disaccharide?
A. Sucrose

B. Maltose

C. Lactose

D. Galactose

E. All are disaccharides
D: A disaccharide is a sugar that is made by combining two monosaccharides. Sucrose is a combination of one fructose and one glucose. Maltose is made from combining two glucoses. Lactose is a combination of one glucose and one galactose.
Which of the following is NOT associated with a neuron?
A. No nucleus

B. Contains synaptic terminals

C. Has dendrites

D. Axon hillock

E. Nodes of Ranvier
A: Neurons have nuclei. Synaptic terminals are specialized endings which relays signals to other cells by releasing neurotransmitters. Dendrites-part of nerve that conveys signals from their tips to the rest of the neurons. Axon Hillock- the portion of the cell body where the axon originates. Nodes of Ranvier-spaces between the myelin sheaths where impulses "jump".
Which of the following animals posses a two chambered heart?
A. Fish

B. Frog

C. Robin

D. Rat

E. Turtle
A: All fish have two chambered hearts. Frogs, and turtles have three chambered hearts. Birds and rats have four chambered hearts.
think of evolution
Which of the following is an example of a phenotype?
A. The superoxide dismutase gene is located on chromosome 21.

B. A family lives near a toxic waste dump.

C. A boy is a carrier for sickle cell anemia.

D. The gene responsible for Huntington's disease is called Huntingtin.

E. A newborn has an extra finger.
E: A phenotype is the detectable outward appearance of a specific genotype. Genotype is the genetic makeup of an individual.
Which of the following cell organelles will contain hydrolytic enzymes?
A. Ribosome

B. Lysosome

C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

E. Nucleolus
B: Lysosomes will contain hydrolytic enzymes that act to help break down material in the cell. The function of a ribosome is to help in protein production. The endoplasmic reticulum's function is to transport material that will be secreted by the cell. The nucleolus is where rRNA is made.
The notochord is from which tissue type?
A. Endoderm

B. Mesoderm

C. Ectoderm

D. Yolk sac

E. Trophoblast
B: The notochord is form from mesodermal cells. The vertebral column forms around it and it induces theformation of vertebral bodies.
mesoderm forms skeletal and connective tissues.
Proteins that contain dimers are classified as?
A. Primary structure

B. Secondary structure

C. Tertiary structure

D. Quaternary structure

E. Quintanary structure
D: Dimers are simple forms of a quaternary structure. They consist of two identical sub units.
Which of the following converts N2 to NO3- in the nitrogen cycle?
A. Decay of dead tissue

B. Invading viruses

C. Insect feces

D. Algae

E. Lightning
E: There are only two things that allow the conversion: Nitrogen -fixing bacteria and lightning.
A person with this blood type can receive all types of blood during transfusion?

B. A

C. B

D. O

E. All of the above
A: AB is the universal recipient, O is the universal donor.
What is it called when the net movement of dissolved particles moves against their concentration gradiant usually with the help of proteins?
A. Simple diffusion

B. Intracellular circulation

C. Osmosis

D. Facilitated diffusion

E. Active transport
E: These are definitions that you need to know. Simple diffusion requires no energy at all because it is driven by the concentration gradiant. Osmosis is a type of simple diffusion. Facilitated diffusion is movement down the concentration gradient "facilitated" by channels that requires no energy.
Lymph moves towards veins due to
A. Capillary action

B. Muscle action

C. Blood pressure

D. Gravity

E. Pressure on lymph nodes
B: Lymph that is filtered in lymph nodes travel in surrounding tissue back to the venous system. It is moved by muscle action and if it does not move back into the blood supply, edema occurs.
Which of the following substances probably would not cross a membrane by simple diffusion?
A. Hemoglobin

B. Glucose

C. Water

D. Ethanol

E. Chloride ion
B: Glucose is such a large molecule that it needs to be transported actively across a membrane.
Which of the following is not true of dark reactions in photosynthesis?
A. Only occurs at night

B. Uses ATP that is formed in light reactions

C. Reduces CO2 to carbohydrates

D. Acts as the main carbon source of the Calvin cycle

E. Also know as carbon fixation reactions
A: Although they carry the name dark reactions, these reactions take place mostly in the day (they may however occur with out light). The reason for this is stated in answer B. Dark reactions require the ATP that is formed in light reaction (which requires light to create ATP).
All of the following are infections except
A. Typhoid fever

B. Botulism

C. Mononucleosis

D. Common flu

E. Strep throat
B: Botulism is a potentially fatal food poisoning caused by bacteria that grow in improperly canned foods.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about DNA?
A. DNA is found principally in the nucleus of the cell

B. DNA replication would produce two identical molecules of the original DNA

C. The base pairings for DNA are adenine to cytosine and guanine to thymine

D. The DNA molecule may be described as a double helix of two anti-parallel chains

E. A DNA-like polynucleotide primer is necessary for production of RNA-like polynucleotides by RNA polymerase
C: The base pairings for DNA are adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine. For RNA, uricil is substituted for thymine.
Which of the following are NOT arthropods?
A. Lobsters

B. Centipedes

C. Shrimp

D. Spiders

E. Snails
E: Snails are in phylum Mollusca.
What holds the DNA double helix shape together?
A. Covalent bonds

B. Van derWalls forces

C. Electrostatic forces

D. Electromagnetic forces

E. Hydrogen bonds
E: The specific bases of DNA will bind together with hydrogen bonds. This allows for the helical shape of DNA as well as the ability to separate for replication.
The notochord…
A. Is part of the primitive streak.

B. induces nearby ectoderm to form the neural plate.

C. Induces nearby mesoderm to form the primitive streak.

D. Is an endodermal structure.

E. Induces gastrulation.
B: Neurulation (formation of neural tube) starts in the 3rd week. Cells in the notochord secrete inducing factors which cause the overlying ectoderm to thicken into a neural plate.
An example of a parasitic relationship is?
A. A mosquito and man

B. A barnacle and a whale

C. Protozoa and termites

D. Tapeworm and man

E. Annelids and cats
D: A parasite is will always benefit in some way from the host. The key is that while the parasite benefits, the host is harmed. The only situation in these answer choices in which both occurs is D. B is an example of commensalisms ( one benefits and the other is not effected). C is an example of mutualism (where both parties benefit)
Which of the following is regulated when there is secretion of Parathyroid Hormone?
A. Calcium

B. Glucagon

C. Renin

D. Aldosterone

E. Sodium
A: PTH raises the calcium concentration in the blood by increasing bone resorption and decreasing calcium excretion in the kidneys.
calcitonin (produced in thyroid gland) lowers serum calcium
PTH raises serum calcium
What is a key feature of endocrine glands?
A. Contain ducts that deliver product directly to the tissue

B. Are ductless and deliver products to the circulatory system

C. Contain ducts that deliver product to the circulatory system

D. Are ductless and deliver products directly to the tissue

E. Effect are limited to a very narrow range of tissues
B: This is the definition of endocrine. Answer A is the definition of exocrine. Example of each would include: ENDOCRINE - pituitary gland, thyroid, and the alpha and beta cells of the pancreas. EXOCRINE - sweat glands, gallbladder, and part of pancreas.
Which one of the following is an example of a genotype?
A. Jill has at least one normal CFTR gene.

B. The gene responsible for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia is called bcr-abl.

C. A male has one X and one Y chromosome.

D. Joe has two abnormal alleles in the gene relevant to Huntington's disease.

E. A persone with a birthmark.
D: A genotype is a specific ALLELIC composition of a cell.
The genetic variation of two distinct antelope populations living in the same are is due to?
A. Genetic drift

B. Natural selection

C. Mutation

D. Adaptation

E. Gene flow
E: Gene flow is due to the migration between populations living close to one another. Genetic drift is due to random chance happenings. Natural selection is when only the favorable genes survive. Mutation is due to a change in the alleles. Adaptation is a way to develop new species.
Which of the following is the transfer of genetic material between two bacteria that are temporarily joined?
A. Transduction

B. Translation

C. Transformation

D. Conjugation

E. Recombination
D: Conjugation is described as "sexual mating". This is where genetic material can be transferred.
Process that cannot take place in haploid cells is
A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis

C. Cell division

D. Growth

E. Digestion
B: There are some organisms that are haploid and can undergo mitosis, divide, grow and digest but not undergo meiosis.
Which one of the following are mRNA termination codons?




D: The 3 termination codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA
Which of the following will not increase the speed at which an impulse travels down a nerve?
A. Saltatory conduction

B. Diameter of nerve

C. Myelin sheath

D. Ph of surrounding tissue

E. Length of the nerve
D: Saltatory conduction is the jumping of impulses along the nerve at the nodes of Ranvier created by myelin sheaths. The size of the nerve correlates with which the speed of the impulse travels. The Ph of the surrounding doesn't have anything to do with the speed of a nerve impulse.
Which of the following is correct?
A. Disaccharides are composed by joining one sugar to two sugars.

B. Polysaccharides are polymers of repeating monosaccharide subunits.

C. Glucose and glycogen store energy in plants.

D. Starch stores energy in animals.

E. Polysaccharides are formed by removing water which is called hydrolysis.
B: You need to know your basic definitions. Disaccharides are a formed by adding two monosaccharides. Glucose and glycogen store energy in animals while starch stores energy in plants. Polysaccharides are formed by removing water but it is called dehydration.
The Krebs Cycle involves
A. Formation of NAD

B. Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid (4-C)

C. Transamination

D. Breaking of peptide bonds

E. Glycogen formation
B: Knowing the Krebs cycle is a must. It might be helpful to skim your biology book for this one. The Krebs cyle must recycle its starting material, oxaloacetate, which is a 4-Carbon substance. The Krebs cycle kicks out 2 CO2 molecules, forms 4 NADH molecules, 1 FADH2, and 1 ATP.
Which of the following produce myelin in the central nervous system?
A. Schwann cells

B. Dendritic cells

C. Synaptic cells

D. Oligodendrocytic cells

E. Nodes of Ranvier
D: Oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the central nervous system and Schwann cells produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system.
Maintaining a cell's resting membrane potential is dependent on all but which of the following?
A. Distribution of intracellular and extra cellular ions

B. Permeability of cell membrane

C. Active transport of ions

D. Electrochemical gradients

E. Threshold of membrane
E: The threshold of a cell membrane is the level at which an action potential will occur. This level will usually be above the resting membrane potential, and has nothing to do with its maintenance. The key to maintaining the membrane potential is the Na+/K+ pump. It is an active transport pump that helps to maintain location of ions (answers A) and the gradient surrounding the cell (answer D). The cell has a selective permeability to help maintain the membrane potential.
Which one of the following occurs during "metaphase"?
A. This is where a cell spends 90% of its life.

B. The centriole pairs are at opposite poles of the cell while the spindle fibers are attached to each chromatid at the centromeres.

C. The spindle apparatus has dissappeared and a nuclear membrane has formed around newly formed chromasomes.

D. The cell splits into 2 daughter cells

E. The chromosomes condense.
B: Learn this acronym PMAT. Prophase is when chromosomes condense and spindles form. METAPHASE is when chromosomes align. ANAPHASE is when sister chromatids separate. TELOPHASE is when a new nuclear membrane forms.
Which phase of the menstrual cycle do low progesterone levels characterize?
A. Luteal phase

B. Follicular phase

C. Secretory phase

D. Ovulatory phase

E. Active phase
B: Progesterone levels remain low through the majority of the follicular phase. It major rise come in the ovulatory phase, and it will reach its peak in the luteal phase (also known as the secretory phase).
The membrane that functions in respiration in the embryo is the
A. Amnion

B. Allantois

C. Chorion

D. Umbilical cord

E. Yolk sac
B: The allantois is found in eggs of birds and reptiles and is used as a receptacle for nitrogenous wastes. It lies close enough to the surface of the shell to enable exchange of gas, or respiration. Amnion is the innermost fluid-filled membrane. Chorion is the outermost extra-embryonic membrane (separates embryo from albumin). Umbilical cord is used as a means of delivery of nutrients. Yolk sac contains food for embryo
Which of the following is the female part of the flower that collects the pollen?
A. Receptacle

B. Anther

C. Stamen

D. Petal

E. Stigma
E: The stamen is the male reproductive unit of the flower. It has a sac near its end that will develop into pollen. This is called the anther. The petal of a flower is to attract insects, who will help to transfer pollen. The stigma is the female reproductive unit of the flower. It is has a sticky substance on its top that is responsible for pollen collection.
During which process is pyruvate converted into lactic acid?
A. Anaerobic respiration

B. Oxidative phosphorylation

C. Aerobic respiration

D. Excretion

E. Autotrophy
A: When oxygen is not present fermentation occurs. This is when pyruvate is converted to either ethanol (alcohol fermentation) or to lactic acid (lactic acid fermentation). In an aerobic enviroment, pyruvate is oxidized in the mitochondria.
Mosses belong to this division of the plant kingdom whose characteristics include: flagellated sperm and lack of xylem.
A. Tracheophyta

B. Bryophyta

C. Coniferophyta

D. Angiosperm

E. Gymnosperm
B: Moss are members of the division Bryophyta which is simple plants. They lack the water-conducting woody material called xylem. The tracheophyta division conatin xylem and phloem and are anchored by deep roots. Coniferophyta are naked seeding plants associated with having cones (pines and firs). Gymnosperms are a group of Coniferophytas. Angiosperm are part of the anthophyta division and include plants with covered seeds.
Which is not a function of blood?
A. Maintain body temperature

B. Regulate blood pressure

C. Provide oxygen to necessary tissue

D. House immunologic defenses

E. Act as a buffering system
B: Blood helps to maintain body temperature by acting as a cooling system. This is the reason that we sweat. Oxygen is carried in the blood on hemoglobin and delivered to needy tissue. The majority of our immune system is housed in the blood. Blood is the first line of defense that our body has to an increase in acidity. It will buffer the acid to a more manageable pH
How many kilocalories are produced in the breakdown of fat?
A. 5

B. 9

C. 7

D. 12

E. 4
B: During metabolism, the breakdown of each FAT molecule produces 9 kcals. PROTIEN and CARBOHYDRATES produce 4 kcals. ALCOHOL produces 7 kcals.
the total is 20.
What type of blood does a universal blood donor have?
A. B

B. Answer B

C. O


E. All of the above
C: Type O blood is able to be donated to anyone. This is because type O blood carries ZERO antigens.
The source of O2 given off in photosynthesis is
A. Water

B. CO2

C. Glucose

D. Starch

E. Chlorophyll
A: First major part or step in a light reaction is when light splits H2O into excited electrons, H+ and O2.
Which part of the brain controls respiration?
A. Pons

B. Cerebellum

C. Occipital lobe

D. Medulla oblongata

E. Cerebral cortex
D: The medulla senses changes in CO2 and controls ventilation. The Pons acts as a relay center between the cerebellum and the cerebra cortex. The cerebellum is involved in fine movements and hand eye coordination. The occipital lobe functions in vision. The cerebral cortex is involved in memory and thought functions.
Which of the following is not a difference found between plant cells and animal cells?
A. Plant cells are composed of cell wall made of cellulose

B. Animal cells contain centrosomes

C. Plant cells contain lysosomes

D. Animal cells include membrane bound vesicles

E. Chloroplasts are found in many plant cells
C: A major difference between plant and animal cells is that plant cells have cell walls and do not have lysosomes.
The forebrain consists of all but
A. Thalamus

B. Cerebral cortex

C. Hypothalamus

D. Cerebellum

E. Telencephalon
D: The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain. The forebrain is broken into two groups: the telencephalon (consisting of the cerebral cortex and olfactory bulb) and the diencephalons (consisting of the thalamus and hypothalmus.
Common characteristics of secondary protein structures are?
A. Alpha helix and beta sheets

B. Linear polymers

C. Compact structures and non polar cores

D. Hydrophilic interior and hydrophobic exterior

E. Multiple subunits
A: There are 4 protein structures. Primary structures are linear and deal with amino acid sequence. Secondary refer to the spatial arrangement of alpha helixes and beta sheets. Tertiary structures refer to arrangement of protein into structures that have non-polar cores and hydrophilic and hydrophobic characteristics. Quaternary consist of multiple subunits.
Which of the following bone has the highest resistance to torsion and bending?
A. Cortical bone

B. Trabecular bone

C. Cartilage

D. Cancellous bone

E. Woven bone
A: Cortical bone is the hardest bone in the body and provides mechanical protection. It represents most of the skeletal mass. Trabecular bone (also cancellous bone) is less dense and more elastic. Cartilage is not bone and woven bone is "immature" bone only found in embryonic skeletons.
Which is correctly associated?
A. RNA: Thymine

B. DNA: Uracil

C. RNA: Replication

D. mRNA: Picks up amino acid

E. RNA: Ribose sugar
E: RNA is made up of ribose sugar and phosphate
A long digestive tube with mouth and anus, lack of a circulatory system and an anterior nerve ring describes which phylum?
A. Annelida

B. Cnidarians

C. Platyhelminthes

D. Porifera

E. Nematoda
E: These are characteristics of a round worm. Annelids contain a true body cavity and a defined circulatory system. Cnidarians are jellyfish and have characteristic stinging tentacles. Platyhelminthes are flat worms that are bilaterally symmetrical. Porifera are sponges and have only two layers of cells.
If 1/12 of the males in a population are red-green colorblind, what fraction of the females from that population are red-green colorblind?
A. 1/6

B. 1/12

C. 1/48

D. 1/144

E. No females will have color blindness because it is sex linked
D: We are given the frequency of colorblindness in males, 1/12 for X1 Y (X1 is the carrier gene). Since colorblindness is a sex-linked gene, the females require both recessive alleles(X1X1) to be effected. The ratio is found by multiplying 1/12 x 1/12 = 1/144.
The Cori cycle transports what substance to the liver for gluconeogenesis?
A. Pyruvic acid

B. Lactic acid

C. Bicarbonate

D. Acetyl CoA

B: The Cori cycle is utilized when anaerobic activity of the muscle cells exceeds aerobic activity. Anaerobic activity produces lactic acid. The Cori cycle uses this lactic acid to further make glucose in the liver cells.
An unbranched starch that serves as a nutritional reservoir for plants is
A. Amylopectin

B. Alpha amylase

C. Maltose

D. Amylose

E. Beta amylase
D: starches come in two forms. An unbranched form called amylose, and a branched form called amylopectin. Alpha amylase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes starches. Maltose is a disaccharide.