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201 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Label all the numbers and letters
1) Sensory receptor
2) Sensory neuron
3) Integrating center
4) Motor Neuron
5) Effector
A) Spinal cord integrator
B) Interneuron
C) Central Canal
Label this spinal cord
A: Gray matter, B: White matter, C: Spinal nerve, D: Denticulate ligament, E: Subarachnoid space, F: Subdural space, G: Dura mater, H: Arachnoid mater, I: Pia mater, J: Anterior median fissure, K: Central canal, L: Posterior median sulcus
Most superficial layer of the meninges
Dura mater
Meninge that is composed of dense irregular connective tissue
Dura mater
space between the dura mater and the wall of the vertebral canal
Epidural space
What is epidural space filled with?
Adipose and areolar connective tissues
middle layer of the meninges
Arachnoid
Which of the meninges has an avascular covering?
Arachnoid mater
What is the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid matter?
Subdural space
What is the subdural space filled with?
interstitial fluid
What is the inner most or deep layer of the meninges
Pia mater
Which of the meninges is composed of a thin transparent connective tissue that adheres to the surface of the spinal cord
Pia mater
What are thinkenings of the pia mater that project laterally and fuse with the arachnoid and dura mater?
Denticulate ligaments
What is the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater?
Subarachnoid space
In adults how far does the spinal cord extend?
From the medulla oblongata to the superior border of the 2nd lumbar vertebra
How far does the spinal cord extend in a new born?
from the medulla oblongata to the 3rd or 4th lumbar vertebrae
What is a tail-like array of roots of spinal nerves at the inferior end of the spinal cord?
Cauda equine
What is the non nervous fibrous tissue of the spinal cord that extends inferiorly from conus medullaris to the coccyx?
Filum terminale
Where does the cervical enlargement extend to?
4th cervical vertebrae to the 1st thoracic vertebrae
How far does the lumbar enlargement extend to?
from the 9th to 12th thoracic vertebrae
What is the name of the plexus that goes to the arm?
Brachial
Why does the thoracic have no nerve plexus?
Those nerves go directly to their target without branching
Define a reflex
Extremely rapid response involving skeletal muscles in order to remove your body for obnoxious stimuli
Are motor neurons ventral or dorsal?
ventral
Are sensory neurons ventral or dorsal?
dorsal
How can you tell if spinal nerve is dorsal or ventral?
Dorsal side is a little swollen
What are the four somatic spinal reflexes?
Stretch, tendon, flexor, crossed extensor
Nerves in the CNS are referred to as _____.
tracts
What defines a stretch reflex?
Monosynaptic and ipsilateral
What defines a tendon reflex?
polysynaptic and ipsilateral
What defines a Flexor (withdrawal) reflex?
polysynaptic, intersegmental, and ipsilateral
What defines a crossed extensor reflex?
polysynaptic, intersegmental, and contralateral
How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord?
31
How are the segments of the spinal nerves based?
location
How many pairs of nerves are in the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal segments?
8, 12, 5, 5, 1
What are roots?
bundles of axons that connect the spinal nerves to the spinal cord
What is a commissure?
acts like a bridge, the horizontal part of the H
Label the following parts.
A: Posterior (dorsal) root ganglion, B: Lateral white column, C: lateral gray horn, D: Anterior gray horn, E: Gray commissure, F: Anterior white commissure, G: Anterior white column, H: Anterior median fissure, I: Anterior rootlets, J: Posterior (dorsal) root of spinal nerve, K:Posterior median sulcus, L: Posterior white column, M: central canal
What are the regions that gray matter is divided into called?
Horns
What do the anterior or ventral gray horns contain?
cell bodies somatic and motor neurons
What do the dorsal gray horns contain?
somatic and autonomic sensory nuclei
What do the lateral gray horns contain? And where are they in the lateral horns?
autonomic motor neurons, on the very edge
Where are the lateral gray horns found in the spinal cord? What regions?
thoracic, upper lumbar, and sacral segments
What are the regions that white matter is divided into called?
columns
What are the two principal functions of the spinal cord?
nerve impulse propagation and information integration
What does the name of a tract indicate?
it's origin: where it begins and ends
Information integration is used for what?
reflex and reflex arc
What are the four different types of reflexes?
Spinal, Cranial, Somatic, and Autonomic
Label all parts
A: Spinal nerve, B: Epineurium, C: Fascicle, D: Perineurium, E: Axon, F: Endoneurium, G: Blood vessels
What are the names of the two dura maters of the brain?
periosteal and meningeal
What is the outer layer of the dura mater?
periosteal
What is the dura mater that is connected to the dura mater of the spinal cord?
meningeal
What is the inner layer of the dura mater?
meningeal
What is the falx cerebri?
located between the two cerebral hemispheres
What is the falx cerebelli?
located between the two cerebral hemispheres
Where is the tentorium cerebelli?
between the cerebrum and cerebellum
What absorbs the CSF?
Arachnoid villi
What meninx has a lot of blood vessels?
pia
What structure secretes CSF?
ependymal cells in the choird plexus
What is a ventricle?
cavity in the brain filled with CSF
What is the choirod plexus composed of?
cluster of capillaries surrounded by ependymal cells
What is the tube that connects the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle?
interventricular foramen
What is the tube that connects the 3rd ventricle to the 4th?
cerebral aqueduct
What are the three holes that the CSF comes out of at the base of the brain?
lateral aperatures and a median aperature
About how many ml of CSF do adults have?
150ml
CSF is like plasma except that the CSF has _____________
less proteins and more electrolytes
What is a rami?
spinal nerves that go short distances after passing through the invertebral foramen then break into branches
What does the posterior (dorsal) ramus supply?
deep nerves of the back and skin of the back
What does the anterior (ventral) ramus supply?
muscles and structures of the upper and lower limbs and the skin of the lateral and ventral sides
What does the meningeal branch supply?
renters the vertebral canal through the invertebral foramen and supplies the vertebrae, ligaments, blood vessels, and meninges
Which rami does not go directly to the body structures?
anterior
What section of the anterior rami does go directly to the body structures?
T1-T12
What are the names of the plexuses?
cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal
What is a dermatome?
area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via the posterior or dorsal roots of one pair of spianl nerves via cranial nerve V
Which spinal nerve is not connected to a dermatome?
C1
What disease is caused be an acute infection of the PNS?
shingles
What virus causes shingles?
Herpes zoster
What does shingles look like?
pain, discoloration of the skin and blisters
What causes polio?
poiliovirus
What characterizes polio?
fever, severe headache, stiff neck and back, deep muscle pain and weakness, and loss of certain somatic reflexes
Does polio attack the PNS or the CNS?
PNS
Why does polio cause paralysis?
poliovirus destroys motor neuron cell bodies
What is meningitis?
inflammation and infection of the menenges
How is meningitis usually treated?
antibiotic
What is the branching inside the cerebellum called?
Arbor vitae (tree of life)
What are the two types of meningitis, and what is it caused by?
spinal and cranial, bacteria or a virus
How does CSF circulate?
through equal secretion and absorption
What are the three main ways that CSF contributes to homeostais?
Mechanical, Chemical, Circulation
When the CSF leaves through the apertures, where does it go?
circulates through central canal and subarachnoid space of the spinal cord
What does the internal jugular veins do?
removes blood from brain
What brings blood to the brain?
internal carotid arteries
How much of the body's oxygen and glucose does the brain use?
20%
Name the three components of the brain stem going from most inferior to superior.
madulla oblongata, pons, midbrain
What is a continuation of the spinal cord and contains both sensory and motor tracts?
madulla oblongata
What part of the brain stem contains descending motor tracts?
pyramids
What is a decussaton of pyramids?
Where the pyramids cross over to the other side
What do the olives of the brain stem do?
send input to the cerebellum and relay sensory information on stretching of muscles and joints
What is the most inferior part of the brain?
olives
What do the gray matter masses in the CNS control?
vital functions
Olives are composed of patches of _____ mater in _____ mater.
gray in white
What is the septum policium?
separation of the left and right lateral ventricles
What cranial nerves originate on the medulla oblongata?
Vestibulocochlear VIII, Glossopharyngeal IX, Vagus X, Accessory XI, Hypoglossal XII
What kind of neurons are ascending tracts made of?
Sensory
What kind of neurons are descending tracts made of?
Motor
What is a grouping of tracts called?
Fasciculus
What are the three vital centers?
cardiac, respiratory, vasomotor
What area of the midbrain controls respiratory functions?
Pons
What are the centers in the pons that are in control of breathing?
Pneumotaxis and apneusitic center
What is the name of the tracts that go from the pons to the cerebellum?
Cerebellar peduncles
What are the cranial nerves that originate in the pons?
Trigeminal V, Abducens VI, Facial VII, Vestibulocochlear VIII (coclear branch)
What are the tracts that go from the midbrain to cerebrum?
Cerebral peduncles
Where is the cerebral aqueduct located?
Midbrain
What does the red nucleus do?
relays information for motor tracts
What are the cranial nerves that originate in the midbrain?
Occulomotor III, Trochlear IV
Where is the corpora quadrigemina?
the dorsal/posterior side of the midbrain
What does the superior colliculi in the corpora quadrigemina do?
contains visual relfex centers that coordinate head and eye movemnt
What does the inferior colliculi of the corpora quadrigemina do?
contains auditory reflex centers
What is the function of the midbrain?
integrates visual and auditory reflexes
What is found in the brain stem that keeps you conscious and wakes you up?
reticular formation
What does the reticular formation do and where is it found?
keeps you conscious and wakes you up, found in brain stem
What is in the central part of the cerebellum?
vermis
What is the function of the cerebellum?
voluntary muscle contraction and posture based on sensory data from body, gives you a sense of equilibrium
What is the folia?
grey matter which surrounds the arbor vitae in the cerebellum
What structure relays information to the cerebellum?
olives on medulla oblongata
What do the inferior cerebellar peduncles do?
transmit sensory information from vestibule of inner ear and proprioceptors to cerebellum (balance information)
What do the middle cerebellar peduncles do?
axons carry commands for voluntary movements
What do the superior cerebellar peduncles do?
axons connect cerebellum to red nucleus in mid brain and to several thalamic nuclei
What part of the brain surrounds the 3rd ventricle?
Diencephalon
What secretes melatonin?
Pineal gland
Where is the pineal gland?
diencephalon
What is the relay center for sensory information on it's way to the cortex?
Thalamus
What allows you to discriminate from pleasant and unpleasant sensations?
Thalamus
What uses both and endocrine mode and a neurotransmitter mode to send information?
Hypothalamus
What are the four major regions of the hypothalamus?
Mammillary, Tuberal, Supraoptic, Pre-optic region
Approximately how many nuclei are in the hypothalamus?
12
Where is the mammillary region and what does it do?
next to the midbrain in the hypothalamus - relay station for smell
What region in the hypothalamus produces hormones?
Tuberal
What does the pre-optic do?
functions in regulating a number of autonomic activites
What are the elevated ridges of the cerebrum called?
gyri
What are the grooves of the cerebrum called?
Sulci
What does the ANS depend on to keep working?
sensory afferent input from receptors and efferent motor output to effectors
What regulates the autonomic nervous system?
Hypothalamus and the brain stem
What are the 12 cranial nerves in order?
Olfactory I, Optic II, Oculomotor III, Trochlear IV, Trigeminal V, Abducens VI, Facial VII, Vestibulocohlea VIII, Glossopharyngeal IX, Vagus X, Accessory XI, Hypoglossal XII
What controls the learned motor skills?
Pre-motor area
What does the primary motor area do?
permits conscious control of skeletal muscle
Where is the primary motor area located?
in pre-central gyrus of frontal lobe
Where is the pre-motor area located?
Anterior to the precentral gyrus of frontal lobe
What is another name for Broca's speech area?
Motor speech area
Where is the motor speech area located?
at the base of pre-motor area
What does Broca's speech area do?
produces impulses for muscle contraction necessary for speech
What is another name for the primary sensory area?
Somatosensory
Where is the primary sensory area?
post central gyrus of parietal lobe
What does the primary sensory area do?
receives info from skin and proprioceptor centers in skeletal muscles
What allows you to ID the body region being stimulated?
Primary sensory area
What does the visual cortex of the occipital lobe do?
contains primary visual center surrounded by the visual association area
Where is the Wernike's area located?
temporal lobe
What hemisphere is the Wernike's area usually located?
opposite Broca's
What does the Wernike's area do?
allows you to comprehend written language and auditory language, receives sensory info from eyes and ear
Where is the auditory cortex?
temporal lobe
Where is the olfactory area?
temporal lobe
Where is the gustatory area?
In the parietal lobe at base of the postcentral gyrus
What goes on in the left hemisphere?
language, analytical thinking, math skills, logic
What goes on in the right hemisphere?
motor activity, visual spatial skills, intuition and emotion, appreciation of art and music
What are the 3 groups of cerebral white matter?
commissure, corpus callosum, and basal ganglia
What does the association areas of the cerebrum allow you to do?
analyze and recognize sensory info then send info to motor area for a proper response
What are the 4 areas of the association areas of the cerebrum?
somatosensory, pre-frontal cortex, general interpretaton/gnostic, and affective language area
What area is necessary for abstract thinking?
pre-frontal
What does the corpus callosum allow?
communication between the two hemispheres
What are the three different fibers of the corpus callosum?
association, projection, the basal ganglia
What allows you intense pleasure and intense pain?
limbic system
Strong emotions increase ___________
memory
Which neuronal system receives input from receptors of the special senses and is consciously perceived?
Somatic Sensory Neron
Which neuronal system innervates skeletal muscles to produce conscious voluntary movement?
Somatic Motor Neurons
What regulates visceral activities by either increases or decreasing ongoing activities of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands?
Autonomic Motor Neurons
What kind of responses cannot be consciously altered or suppressed?
Autonomic
How many neurons are in a motor pathway for somatic and autonomic?
1 for somatic
2 for autonomic
In an autonomic motor pathway, where is the synapse?
in the ganglia
What kind of fiber is the pre and postganglion of the autonomic motor pathway?
Pre is B
Post is C
Which is longer in the autonomic motor pathway, pre or postganglions?
Pre
Which division of the efferent ANS increases heart rate?
Sympathetic
Which division of the efferent ANS decreases heart rate?
parasympathetic
Where can the parasympatheric ganglia be found?
very close or inside the wall of the visceral organ
Where can the preganglionic cell bodies of the parasympathetic NS be found?
4 cranial nerve nuclei in brainstem and S2-S4 in spinal cord
What does Cholinergic bind for?
muscanin and nicotinic for ACh
What does adrenergic bind for?
receptors that bind for adrenalin
Where is nicotinic receptors found?
on dendrites and cell bodies of autonomic NS cells
Where is muscarnic receptors found?
plasma membranes of all parasympathetic effectors
What enzyme inactivates noepinerphrine?
monoamine oxidase (MAO)
What enzyme inactivates norepinerphine?
monoamine oxidase (MAO) or catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
What does Alpha 1 and Beta 1 do?
produce excitation
What do Alpha 2 and Beta 2 do?
cause inhibition
What does Beta 3 do?
increases thermogenisis (heat generation)
what does an agonist do?
binds to a receptor and mimickes the effect of the normal neurotransmitter or hormone
What does an antagonist do?
binds to a receptor and blocks the normal neurotransmitter and hormone
Are most organs dual innervations?
yes
What does dual innervations mean?
innervations by both sympathetic and parasympathetic
What balances the use of the sympathetic and the parasympathetic NS
hypothalamus
Which is more dominant symp or para
Para
What are some examples of SLUDD type responses?
any liquid that comes out of the body such as urination, lactation, salivation, etc
What happens when paradoxical fear takes place?
loss of control over urination adn defecation
What enhances "rest-and-digest" activities?
Para