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Biology

Biology

by uemuraw@gmail.com, Jul. 2009

Subjects: biology

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	List and describe seven characteristics of living things	1. Composed of cells; 2. Organized, with emergent properties; 3. Process energy and raw materials to maintain homeostasis; 4. Grow and reproduce; 5. Respond to stimuli; 6. Possess a universal genetic code; 7. Capable of evolving through natural selection
	What is an autotroph?	Photosynthetic organisms, including plants, algae, and cyanobacteria are called autotrophs because they produce their own food; Autotrophs are producers – organisms which produce their own food.
	What is a heterotroph?	Heterotrophs are consumers; organisms which must consume autotrophs.
	What are emergent properties?	Emergent properties are characteristics or attributes due to interactions between the parts making up the whole. When a level of organization shows properties and characteristics not exhibited in its constituent parts, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
	Define homeostasis.	A state of biological balance (homoios ‑ like, and stasis – standing) Physiological factors, such as temperature, pH, moisture level, etc. must be in the tolerance range of the organism.
	Define negative feedback.	Negative feedback is the primary homeostatic mechanism that keeps a variable such as blood glucose level close to a particular value, or set-point.
	What’s the smallest unit of matter?	Atom
	What is a molecule?	A molecule is a union of two or more atoms to create the smallest unit of a compound.
	What’s the smallest unit of life?	The cell is the smallest unit of life.
	What are tissues?	Tissues are groups of cells with common structure and function.
	What are organs?	Organs are tissues that function together to perform a specific task.
	Define population.	A population, for the purposes of our discussions, consists of organisms of the same species living in the same area and interacting together.
	Define community.	A community consists of populations in the same area that interact. (In our discussions, when we refer to communities, we refer only to living things)
	Define ecosystem.	An ecosystem is the aggregation of the biotic community and the non-living environment of an area. (In our discussions, reference to ecosystems is recognition that the abiotic component is important)
	What are the two general types of ecosystem components?	Biotic & abiotic
	What is an adaptation?	An adaptation is a characteristic or attribute that a modern organism has that helps it to survive and reproduce in a particular environment, but was absent from ancestors.
	What is a producer?	An autotroph is a producer.
	What is a consumer?	A consumer is a heterotroph. A primary consumer ingests autotrophs.
	What is a secondary consumer?	A secondary consumer is a heterotrophic organism that consumes other heterotrophic organisms.
	Name the three domains of life.	Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
	What is biodiversity?	Biodiversity is a term describing the number and relative abundance of species or genes for a population, community, ecosystem, or the biosphere. Interesting notes: cheetahs have a remarkably low genetic diversity, while mongolian asses have a remarkably high genetic diversity.
	Name the two most biodiverse ecosystems on earth.	Tropical rainforests; Coral reefs
	List and describe three common abiotic ecosystem components.	Soils – depth, composition, parent material; Climate – rainfall, insulation, temperature; Atmosphere – oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, other
	Define extinction.	Extinction is the loss of a species or larger classification group.
	What is meant by a global extinction?	A global extinction refers to a collection of extinction events of such a grand scale around the entire Earth that the fossil record goes virtually blank for an interval. Contrast this with a regional extinction (such as the Pleistocene extinction), in which the event was restricted to the Americas: the fossil record for the rest of the world still had plenty of other species, meaning basically, the extinction event was happening just in the Americas.
	Why isn’t the Pleistocene extinction (when woolly mammoths and saber-toothed tigers became extinct) considered a global extinction?	The Pleistocene extinction event was restricted to the Americas.
	What is the biosphere?	The thin layer of Earth, water, and atmosphere within which life occurs.
	What is binomial nomenclature?	Scientific naming convention comprised of genus and species; refered to as genus name and specific epithet.
	What are the two words that make up the scientific name of an organism?	Genus name and specific epithet. The Genus name is always capitalized The specific epithet is never capitalized Both genus name and specific epithet are either underlined or italicized May place the first initial of the authority’s name after the scientific name (e.g., Pinus taeda L. for Loblolly pine)
	What’s the specific epithet of humans?	sapiens
	What is taxonomy?	In our discussions, taxonomy is the practice of classifying living things in a hierarchical organization according to demonstrated phylogenetic characteristics.
	What is meant by phylogenetic taxonomy?	Phylogenetic taxonomy, in contrast to folk taxonomies, is based on kinship.
	List the eight categories of classification.	1. Domain 2. Kingdom 3. Phylum (or Division for plants) 4. Class 5. Order 6. Family 7. Genus 8. Species
	Which taxonomic category is the most inclusive?	Domain
	Which taxonomic category is the most exclusive?	species
	What is a species?	A species is a population or populations of similar interbreeding individuals among which there is little or no barrier to reproduction. These barriers to reproduction can be biochemical, physical, or ecological.
	What is the scientific name for the human species?	Homo sapiens
	List and describe the three domains of life.	Domain Bacteria – small, primitive unicellular organisms with no nucleus Domain Archaea – unicellular organisms with cell structure similar to Bacteria, but with metabolic processes more like Eukarya Domain Eukarya – organisms whose cells contain true nuclei
	List and describe the four kingdoms of eukaryotes.	Protista – unicellular organisms with true nuclei Fungi – fungi Plantae – plants Animalia – animals
	Define science.	"An organized and systemic activity based on observation, experimentation and reason according to the scientific method."
	Describe the scientific method.	On the basis of new and / or previous observations, a scientist formulates a hypothesis. The hypothesis is tested by further observations and / experiments, and new data either support or do not support the hypothesis. The resturn arrow indicates that a scientist often chooses to retest the same hypothesis or to test a related hypothesis. Conclusions from many different but related experiments may lead to the development of a scientific theory. For example studies pertaining to development, anatomy, and fossil remains all support the theory of evolution.
	What is falsifiability and why is it important to science?	Falsifiability, or refutability is the logical possibility that an hypothesis can be shown false by observation or physical experiment. Falsifiability is important to science because the quality of refutability facilitates the process of improving our understanding of the physical world. It is the ‘litmus test’ of the distinction between philosophy and science.
	What’s a theory?	In science, a "fact" connotes "data" while a "theory" connotes and explanation of that data. A theory is a plausible general principle or body of principles offered to explain phenomena. The ultimate goal of science is to understand the natural world in terms of scientific theories, which are concepts that join together well-supported and related hypotheses. In contrast to everyday use for the word "theory," a scientific theory is supported by a broad range of observations, experiments, and data from a variety of disciplines.
	Cell Theory	All organisms are composed of cells, and new cells only come from pre-existing cells.
	Homeostasis Theory	The internal environment of an organism stays relatively constant – within a range that is protective of life.
	Gene Theory	Organisms contain coded information that dictates their form, functin, and behavior.
	Ecosystem Theory	Organisms are members of populations, which interact with each other and the physical environment within a particular locale.
	Evolution Theory	All living things have a common ancestor, but each is adapted to a particular way of life.
	What’s an hypothesis?	An hypothesis is a possible explanation for a natural event.
	Define inductive reasoning.	Inductive reasoning occurs when a person uses creative thinking to combine isolated facts into a cohesive whole.
	What’s an experiment?	An experiment is a test of an hypothesis. A scientist uses deductive reasoning to determine how to test a hypothesis – he makes a prediction that should be supported by the hypothesis, and which can be refuted by the experiment.
	What is a scientific law?	A law is a description of a universal phenomenon. Examples include thermodynamic, gravity, and motion.
	Why is replication so important in experiments?	Replication refers to the capability of someone else to repeat our experiment and observe basically the same results. Once we can replicate an observation, we can can propose a mechanism in nature that explains the observation (scientists call this kind of proposal a theory), or we can devise a mathematical relationship between parts of nature (a law). For our theory or law to be part of science, it must be able to predict a result of an experiment that has not yet been done. If it can do this more successfully than other theories, then it will be accepted. This is also important. If your explanation only explains what's already been observed, then that's OK, but not very convincing. Anyone can come up with an explanation for things they see. The really good ones explain what no one has seen yet. Replication is important because of variation, confounding variables, and to avoid spurious correlations. Due to variation, in anything we study in biology, we want to be able to reproduce results to determine whether or not what we really believe to be happening is happening.
	Define matter.	Matter is anything that takes up space and has mass.
	Define element.	All matter is composed of elements. An element is a substance that cannot be broken down into substances with different properties; Elements are composed of only one type of atom.
	What is a property of matter?	A property of matter is a physical or chemical characteristic, such as density, solubility, melting point, etc.
	Which 6 elements make up ~95% of all living tissue?	CHNOPS
	Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus, Sulfur
	What two particles make up atomic nuclei?	Neutrons and protons are the particles that make up atomic nuclei.
	What does the atomic number of an element represent?	The atomic number of an element is the number of protons in an atom of that element.
	What makes up the mass of an atom?	The average mass of the atoms of that element found in nature.
	In which period is Aluminum (Al)?	Al is in the third period (the third row of the periodic table).
	In which group is Fluorine (F)?	F is in Group VII (the seventh column of the periodic table).
	Two isotopes differ only in what?	Number of neutrons
	What is the octet rule?	The octet rule states that an atom other than hydrogen tends to form bonds until it has eight electrons in its outer shell; an atom that already has eight electrons in its outer shell does not react and is inert.
	What is a compound?	Compounds are substances in which two or more atoms are bonded together in a fixed ratio. A change in the way the atoms of a compound are bonded together generally alters the substance (changes the compound)
	Name three ways an atom without a full outer shell can react.	An atom without a full outer shell can donate electrons, accept electrons, or share electrons.
	Which atoms are likely to be electron donors?	Metals; acids; the less electronegative atoms Groups 1 & 2 on the periodic table
	Which atoms are likely to be electron acceptors?	Non-metals; bases; the more electronegative atoms Groups 6 & 7 on the periodic table
	What is an ionic bond?	An ionic bond is a type of chemical bond that can often form between metal and non-metal ions (or polyatomic ions such as ammonium) through electrostatic attraction. In short, it is a bond formed by the attraction between two oppositely charged ions.
	How many electrons are shared in a covalent bond, double‑bond, and a triple-bond?	2, 4, and 6 electrons, respectively
	What is a polar covalent bond?	A polar covalent bond is a covalent bond between two elements with a difference in electronegativity not quite large enough to cause ionization of one of the atoms.
	What is H-bonding?	A hydrogen bond is the attractive force between the hydrogen attached to an electronegative atom of one molecule and an electronegative atom of a different molecule
	Which of the three types of bond is strongest?	Covalent (The order of the strengths of those three types of chemical bonds (strongest to weakest) is: Covalent, Ionic, and then Hydrogen.)
	Which of the three types of bond is weakest?	Hydrogen
	List and describe five characteristics of water?	Water has a high heat capacity. Water has a high heat of vaporization. Water is a solvent. Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive. Water has a high surface tension.
	What type of compound is soluble in water?	Ionic salts, such as NaCl are soluble in water. Polar molecules, such as alcohols are also soluble in water.
	Define hydrophilic.	Hydrophilic molecules are molecules that can attract water ("water-loving")
	Define hydrophobic.	Hydrophobic molecules are molecules that do not attract water ("water-fearing").
	Define cohesion.	Cohesion (n. lat. cohaerere "stick or stay together") or cohesive attraction or cohesive force is a physical property of a substance, caused by the intermolecular attraction between like-molecules within a body or substance that acts to unite them. Cohesion, along with adhesion (attraction between unlike molecules), helps explain phenomena such as surface tension and capillary action.
	Define adhesion.	Adhesion is the tendency of certain dissimilar molecules to cling together due to attractive forces. Adhesion explains why water makes a meniscus on a graduated cylinder.
	A solution of pH 3 has _____ times the H+ concentration as one of pH 5.	100
	What are organic compounds?	Molecules with carbon and hydrogen, and often oxygen; associated with living things Compounds whose molecules contain carbon. By ‘tradition,’ carbonates, simple oxides of carbon, cyanide, and allotropes of carbon are still considered inorganic.
	Describe the 4 classes of molecules in living things.	Carbohydrates – sugars and starches Amino acids – proteins Nucleic acids -– DNA, RNA, ATP, Coenzymes Lipids – fats and oils
	How many bonds can C form?	Four
	What is a functional group?	A functional group is a specific combination of bonded atoms that always reacts the same way, regardless of the particular carbon skeleton A group of atoms on a molecule that give the molecule some of its properties.
	What are isomers?	Isomers are organic molecules that have identical molecular formulas but different arrangements of atoms.
	Define polymer.	A polymer is a molecule constructed by linking together monomers.
	Describe a Condensation reaction (aka dehydration synthesis).	Monomers are linked together in a chain. The equivalent of a water molecule is removed to make each link in the chain. Anabolism occurs in this manner.
	What is the opposite of a dehydration synthesis?	Hydrolysis An example of catabolism.
	What is an enzyme?	An enzyme is a molecule that speeds a reaction by bringing reactants together. The enzyme may even participate in the reaction, but remains unchanged by the reaction.
	Define carbohydrate.	Carbon + water; molecules with the general formula CnH2nOn Common biological molecules serving as energy sources, energy storage, energy transport, and for structure
	What’s the difference between a monosaccharide, a disaccharide, and a polysaccharide?	monosaccharide – energy; disaccharide – transport; polysaccharide -- structure & storage
	What are the functions of carbohydrates?	Carbohydrates perform the functions of energy source, energy transport, energy storage, and structure.
	What is the formula of glucose?	C6H12O6
	What type of bond is typical of carbohydrates?	A glycosidic bond is typical of carbohydrates; it can be thought of as an “oxygen bridge” between monosaccharides
	What is glycogen?	Glycogen is a common starch found in animal tissues used for energy storage.
	What is cellulose and why can’t we digest it?	The orientation of C-6 between saccharides in cellulose is trans while it is cis in glycogen. The difference in stereochemistry makes animal enzymes ineffective on cellulose. We use α‑glucose to make glycogen and plants use β‑glucose to make cellulose.
	What is a lipid?	Class of organic compounds that tends to be soluble in nonpolar solvents; includes fats and oils.
	What are the five general functions of lipids?	long-term energy storage; insulation; padding; cell membranes; hormones
	What is a fatty acid?	A fatty acid is a molecule, with a long hydrocarbon chain (generally between 16-18 carbons long) with a carboxyl group at one end.
	What is a triglyceride and what is its main function in animals?	A triglyceride is a molecule with one glycerol and three fatty acids
	What is a phospholipids and what is its main function?	Phospholipids are molecules with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. Their main function are to be components of membranes.
	What is a saturated fat? Unsaturated?	A saturated fat has no double bonds. An unsaturated fat has double bonds.
	What type of bond is used to bind fatty acids to glycerol?	Ester bonds are used to bind fatty acids to glycerol.
	Describe how phospholipids make up membranes.	They tend to form “phospholipid bilayers” where the hydrophilic heads point out and the hydrophobic tails point in.
	What is a steroid?	Steroids are a type of lipid molecule having a complex of four carbon rings; examples include cholesterol, estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone. They are not true lipid molecules with their insolubility in water being the only lipid-like feature they have.
	What is a protein? What are the building blocks of proteins called?	Proteins are very large compounds with nitrogen. They are the largest and most complex molecules found in cells.
	List five functions of proteins.	Structure; Enzymes; Membrane transport; Defense; Hormones
	What type of bond is typical of proteins?	Peptide bonds are the characteristic bonds of proteins.
	What is a polypeptide?	A polypeptide is a chain of amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
	What is an amino acid?	An amino acid is the building block of protein. It is a molecule consisting of an amino group and a carboxyl group.
	What is meant by a protein’s primary structure?	The protein’s primary structure is determined by the sequence of amino acids that join to form the polypeptide.
	Secondary structure?	The protein’s secondary structure is determined by hydrogen bonding between amino acids to form either an α (helix) or a β (pleated sheet) structure.
	Tertiary structure?	The protein’s tertiary structure is due in part to covalent bonding between R groups the polypeptide folds and twists giving the protein a characteristic globular shape.
	Quaternary structure?	The protein’s quaternary structure occurs when two or more polypeptides join to form a single protein.
	Which of these types of structure is most important?	The primary structure is the most important, in that it effectively determines the other structures.
	Name a common secondary structure of proteins.	Helix and pleated sheet are two common secondary structures of proteins
	What are nucleic acids?	Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides with very specific functions in cells. These complex molecules are abundant in the nucleus of the cell. They contain nitrogen, like the proteins, but they also have a phosphorus part of their structure that proteins do not.
	What are the three components of a nucleic acid?	Nucleic acids consist of a pentose, a phosphate group, and a nitrogeneous base.
	What does DNA stand for?	DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid.
	What’s the function of DNA?	DNA is the molecule of heredity
	What does RNA stand for?	RNA stands for ribonucleic acid
	What’s the function of RNA?	RNA is the translator of heredity.
	Which is double-stranded?	DNA is double-stranded
	What type of bond is typical of nucleic acids?	Hydrogen bonds
	What is complementary base pairing?	GCAT -- Guanine with Cytosine and Adenine with Thymine
	What are the nucleotides in DNA? RNA?	DNA: Guanine, Cytosine, Adenine, and Thymine; RNA: Guanine, Cytosine, Adenine, and Uracil
	Which bases pair together in DNA?	Guanine with Cytosine; and Adenine with Thymine
	Describe the significance of ATP.	ATP provides fuel for life.
	Capsule	A gelatinous structure or slime layer often present outside the cell wall; aka glycocalyx (literally "sugar coat" – can be slimy of "capsule-ish" based on consistency
	Cell wall	A protective structure made of proteins and carbohydrates
	Plasmalemma	A cell membrane just inside the cell wall; aka the cell membrane aka the plasma membrane
	What’s the difference between a capsule and a slime layer?	A distinct, gelatinous glycocalyx is called a "capsule", while an irregular, diffuse layer will be called a "slime layer"
	What is the plasmalemma?	The plasmalemma is aka Cell membrane aka plasma membrane.
	Differentiate the DNA of prokaryotes with that of eukaryotes.	Prokaryotes have one long coiled chromatid – one chromosome. Eukaryotes have many chromosomes.
	Differentiate the ribosomes of prokaryotes with those of eukaryotes.	Eukaryotic ribosomes are much larger.
	What are the flagella of prokaryotes and what are they made of?	Flagella are locomotive organelles made of flagellin.
	List four parts of a eukaryotic nucleus.	Four parts of a eukaryotic nucleus include the nuclear envelope, the chromatin net, the nucleolus, and the nucleoplasm.
	What is the function of a nucleolus?	The nucleolus is the site of RNA synthesis; rRNA combines with proteins to form two ribosome subunits.
	What is the aqueous matrix inside the nucleus called?	The aqueous matrix inside the nucleus is called the nucleoplasm.
	What is chromatin?	The chromatin net is the network of fibrils consisting of DNA and associated proteins observed within a nucleus that is not dividing.
	Describe the nuclear envelope.	The nuclear envelope separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm by a double membrane. The nuclear envelope contains nuclear pores of sufficient size (approximately 100 nm) to permit passage of ribosomal subunits and mRNA out of the nucleus into the cytopasm and the passage of proteins from the cytoplasm into the nucleus.
	What is the function of ribosomes?	Ribosomes perform translation aka protein synthesis.
	What other organelle are ribosomes often associated with?	Ribosomes are associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.
	Name four parts of the endomembrane system.	The organelles of the endomembrane system include the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and vessicles/vacuoles.
	What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?	Protein synthesis & lipid synthesis
	What causes rough ER to be rough?	The ribosomes attached to its surface.
	What is the function of rough ER?	Rough ER synthesizes proteins.
	What is the function of smooth ER?	Smooth ER synthesizes lipids, such as phospholipids and steroids.
	What is the function of the Golgi body?	Golgi bodies are the processing centers of cells. They package material synthesized within the cells for shipment.
	Describe the interaction between the ER, the Golgi body and the plasmalemma.	The ER synthesizes materials processed by the Golgi body for transport to the plasmalemma. In reverse, the plasmalemma allows passage of a material that buds off as a vesicle which reaches the Golgi body for further processing.
	What are two differences between vacuoles and vesicles?	Vacuoles are larger than vesicles. Vacuoles generally carry liquids and vesicles generally carry solids.
	What is the function of a lysosome?	Lysosomes participate in apoptosis, or programmed cell death. Lysosomes are important in recycling cellular material, and destroying nonfunctional organelles and portions of cytoplasm.
	Name three parts of the cytoskeleton.	Three parts of the cytoskeleton include actin filaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules.
	What are actin filaments (microfilaments) made of?	Actin filaments are made of actin.
	What is the function of actin filaments?	Actin filaments can play a structural role in cells, can participate in cytoplasmic streaming of chloroplasts in plants and the function of pseudopods enabling amoeboid movement.
	What are microtubules made of?	Microtubules are made of tubulin.
	What is the function of microtubules?	Microtubules make up cilia & flagella, which are locomotive structures.
	What is the centrosome made of?	The centrosome consists of a pair of centrioles oriented perpendicularly. Because the centrioles are microtubules, centrosomes are made of tubulin.
	What’s the function of the centrosome?	The centrosome is the MTOC (microtubule organizing center) in eukaryotic cells. They act as tracks facilitating organelle movement, and help the cell to maintain its shape.
	What are plasmodesmata?	In plants, plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic strands that extend through pores in the cell wall and connect the cytoplasm of two adjacent cells.
	Name and describe three types of plastids.	Chloroplasts – green plastids; Leucoplasts – white plastids (starch storage organelles); Chromoplasts – pigment storage organelles (flowers, leaves, etc.)
	List and describe three types of membrane proteins, as differentiated by their positions in the membrane.	Embedded proteins – sit on one side or the other of the membrane (stuck in a little); Integral proteins – go all the way through the membrane; Peripheral proteins – on one side or the other, but not stuck in the membrane.
	Where would you expect to find hydrophilic portions of an integral protein?	Outisde of the proteins (on the ends); Outside the phospholipid bilayer.
	Where would you expect to find hydrophobic portions of a peripheral protein?	We would expect to find the hydrophobic portions of a peripheral protein inside the phospholipid bilayer. Peripheral proteins have no hydrophobic parts; embedded and integral proteins do have hydrophobic parts
	List and describe three types of membrane proteins, as differentiated by their function.	Channel proteins; Carrier proteins; Recognition proteins; Receptor proteins; Enzymatic proteins
	What is the difference between a channel protein and a carrier protein? What kind of protein would you expect these to be?	Channel proteins have a channel that allows a substance to simply move across the membrane, while carrier proteins actually combine with the substance and help it move across the membrane.
	What kind of protein would you expect a Cell Recognition protein to be?	Cell recognition proteins are integral proteins. Cell recognition proteins are glycoproteins.
	Cell membranes are said to be differentially permeable. What does that mean? Name two things that can traverse biological membranes easily. Name two things that can’t.	Differentially permeable means that some substances can pass freely, while others cannot. Water and small nonionic molecules can pass through the membrane, while ions and macromolecules cannot.
	Define diffusion.	Movement of solute. Diffusion is the movement of molecules down a concentration gradient in open solution. It is a statistical phenomenon characteristic of Brownian motion.
	Name three things that affect the rate of diffusion and describe the effect.	Temperature, pressure, and electrical currents are proportional to the rate of diffusion while molecular size is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion.
	Define osmosis. What is required for osmosis to occur?	Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane, which is what is required for osmosis to occur.
	Define exocytosis.	Exocytosis is a process in which an intracellular vesicle fuses with the plasma membrane so that the vesicle’s contents are released outside the cell.
	Define endocytosis.	Endocytosis is a process by which substances are moved into the cell from the environment by phagocytosis (‘cell eating’) or pinocytosis (‘cell drinking’)
	Define pinocytosis.	Cell drinking; a process by which vesicle formation brings macromolecules into the cell.
	Define phagocytosis.	Cell eating; a process by which amoeboid-type cells engulf large substance, forming an intracellular vacuole.
	What is facilitated transport? In which direction does facilitated transport always occur?	Facilitated transport is a passive transfer of a substance into our out of a cell along a concentration gradient by a process that requires a carrier.
	What is active transport? What is required for active transport to occur (or any active process for that matter)?	Use of a plasma membrane carrier protein to move a molecule or ion from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration; it opposes equilibrium and requires energy.
	What kind of protein is involved in both facilitated and active transport?	Integrated, trans-membrane proteins are involved in both facilitated and active transport.
	What is the only means of concentrating ions?	Ion concentration is work requiring an input of energy. Since ions do not pass through the differentially selective membranes, then work must be performed to move them across the membrane. This work is typically done by an integrated trans-membrane protein performing active transport.
	Hypertonic solutions	OSMOSIS IS ALWAYS FROM HYPOTONIC TO HYPERTONIC SOLUTIONS; Hypertonic solutions have a higher solute concentration (that is, less water) than the cytoplasm of a cell, and causes the cell to lose water by osmosis [Mader, page 91]
	Hypotonic solutions	OSMOSIS IS ALWAYS FROM HYPOTONIC TO HYPERTONIC SOLUTIONS; Hypotonic solution have a lower solute concentration (that is, more water) than the cytoplasm of a cell, and causes the cell to gain water by osmosis [Mader, page 90]
	Isotonic solutions	OSMOSIS IS ALWAYS FROM HYPOTONIC TO HYPERTONIC SOLUTIONS; Isotonic solutions have a solute concentration equal to that of the cytoplasm of the cell, and causes the cell to neither lose nor gain water by osmosis [Mader, page 90]
	Name two types of energy.	Potential energy and kinetic energy are two types of energy. Chemical energy and mechanical energy are two other types of energy.
	Name two types of mechanical energy.	Types of mechanical energy include walking, running, heart pumping, and so on.
	What is an exergonic reaction?	An exergonic reaction is a reaction that releases energy. It is the opposite of an endergonic reaction.
	What kind of reaction needs energy to proceed?	An endergonic reaction needs energy to proceed.
	What are coupled reactions?	Coupled reactions are reactions in which the energy released by an exergonic reaction is used to drive an endergonic reaction.
	What is the importance of ATP? Name three kinds of functions of ATP.	The importance of ATP lies in its status as the energy currency of all life. Three kinds of work ATP drives are Chemical work (coupled reactions), transport work (active transport), and mechanical work (movement of muscles, cilia, flagella, etc.)
	Is the following reaction exergonic or endergonic: ATP à ADP + P	Exergonic
	What are enzymes?	An enzyme is a protein molecule that functions as a catalyst.
	What is meant by enzyme inhibition?	Enzyme inhibition is the means by which cells regulate enzyme activity; may be competitive or noncompetitive inhibition.
	Differentiate between competitive and non-competitive enzyme inhibition.	Competitive inhibition occurs when both the substrate and the inhibitor can bind to the enzyme’s active site. Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor binds to the enzyme at a location other than the active site.
	What is feedback inhibition?	Feedback inhibition is a mechanism for regulating metabolic pathways in which the concentration of the product is kept within a certain range until binding at an allosteric site shuts down the pathway, and no more product is produced. It is always non-competitive.
	Define oxidation.	Oxidation is a reaction featuring the loss of one or more electrons from an atom or molecule; in biological systems, generally, the loss of hydrogen atoms.
	Define reduction.	Reduction is a reaction featuring the gain of electrons by an atom or molecule with a concurrent storage of energy; in biological systems, the electrons are accompanied by hydrogen ions.
	Why are oxidation and reduction reactions always coupled?	Conservation of mass – the electrons have to go somewhere.
	What are the reactants in the overall photosynthesis equation?	6 CO2, 6 H2O
	What are the products in the overall photosynthesis equation?	C6H12O6.
	What is being reduced during photosynthesis?	6 CO2 is being reduced to C6H12O6
	What is the result of this reduction?	Sugar, C6H12O6 is the result of this reduction.
	What is being oxidized during photosynthesis?	Water is being oxidized in photosynthesis.
	What is the result of this oxidation?	O2 is the result
	What acts as proton carrier in photosynthesis?	NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) is the proton carrier for photosynthesis.
	Name the 2 phases of photosynthesis.	The two phases of photosynthesis are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions, aka light reactions and Calvin cycle.
	Where does photosynthesis take place?	Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts.
	What are the inner membranes in a chloroplast called?	The inner membranes in a chloroplast are called thylakoids.
	What are grana?	Grana are structures formed by thylakoids folded into “stacks of flattened sacs” wherein the light reactions take place.
	Where do the light reactions take place?	The light reactions occur in the grana.
	What is the purpose of the light reactions?	The light reactions are the energy harvesting reactions. They reduce NADP to NADPH to provide reducing power to the Calvin cycle; product ATP to drive the Calvin cycle, and release oxygen from water.
	What is the purpose of the Calvin Cycle?	The purpose of the Calvin cycle is to fix CO2. The Calvin cycle uses ATP and NADPH to convert CO2 gas to sugar.
	Where does the Calvin Cycle take place?	The Calvin cycle takes place in the stroma of the chloroplast.
	What is the light-harvesting pigment in chloroplasts called?	The light-harvesting pigment in chloroplasts is called chlorophyll.
	Define photoreactive.	A photoreactive substance can harvest light energy to drive a chemical reaction.
	Why do we see chlorophyll as green?	Chlorophyll absorbs colors other than green and reflects green light.
	What are the products of the light reactions?	The products of the light reactions are O2, ATP, and NADPH, which will be used to fuel the Calvin cycle.
	Name the two photosystems in the light reactions.	PS I and PS II.
	Where do the electrons that are released by PS I when light is absorbed wind up?	They end up in NADP+ to make NADPH.
	Where do the electrons come from to replace those lost by PS I when light is absorbed?	PS II provides the electrons to replace those lost by PS I when light is absorbed.
	Where do the electrons that are released by PS II when light is absorbed wind up?	Electrons released by PS II wind up in PS I via the electron transport chain.
	Where do the electrons come from to replace those lost by PS II when light is absorbed?	H2O provides the electrons to replace those lost by PS II when light is absorbed.
	What is phosphorylation?	In metabolic processes, phosphorylation is a way to activate an enzyme in which the enzyme either attaches an inorganic phosphate to a molecule or mediates the transfer of a phosphate group from one molecule to another.
	Where does photophosphorylation occur?	Photophosphorylation is a light reaction that occurs on thylakoid membranes inside chloroplasts.
	What is the Hill Reaction?	2 H2O + 2 (electron acceptors) + (light & chloroplasts) à 2 (electron acceptors)H2 + O2
	The light-dependent transfer of electrons by chloroplasts to an electron acceptor, like NADP in photosynthesis that results in the cleavage of water molecules and liberation of oxygen to form NADPH + H+ and O2.
	Where does the oxygen released in photosynthesis originate?	The oxygen released in photosynthesis originates in water. It is a product of the light-driven water-oxidation reaction (Hill reaction) catalyzed by PS II.
	What is cyclic photophosphorylation? What is the result of cyclic photophosphorylation?	Cyclic photophosphorylation is the process of creating ATP using a proton gradient created by energy gathered from light. Electrons are recycled and ATP is generated but no reduction of NADP+ to fuel biosynthesis occurs in cyclic photophosphorylation.
	Where does the Calvin Cycle occur?	The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.
	What is the first step in the Calvin Cycle?	The first step in the Calvin cycle is the carboxylation of RuBP (a pentose) by RuBisCO to form 2 molecules of 3PG.
	What is produced by the Calvin Cycle?	The immediate products of the Calvin cycle are G3P and water, which ultimately are converted to glucose. Basically the product of the Calvin cycle is carbon from carbon dioxide “fixed” into an organic molecule.
	What two chemicals are needed from the light reactions for the Calvin Cycle to proceed?	ATP & NADPH.
	What is photorespiration?	Photorespiration is the alternate action for RuBisCO – oxygenation instead of carboxylation. When CO2 is less concentrated than O2, photorespiration occurs more. Photorespiration produces no ATP.
	What are C4 plants?	C4 plants, such as corn and sugarcane, can produce more sugar in high light and temperature conditions than C3 plants. They fix carbon into a 4-carbon acid at the beginning of photosynthesis. This 4-carbon acid has the ability to regenerate CO2 in the chloroplasts of specialized bundle sheath cells, thereby overcoming the photorespiration experienced by C3 plants.
	What are CAM plants?	The pineapple is an example of a CAM plant. CAM plants fix CO2 at night, storing it as a 4-carbon acid. CAM is a mechanism whereby CO2 is concentrated around RuBisCO by day, thereby overcoming the photorespiration experienced by C3 plants.
	What are the reactants in the overall respiration equation?	The reactants in the overall respiration equation are the reducing agent glucose (C6H12O6), which is oxidized, and the oxidizing agent oxygen (O2), which is reduced.
	What are the products in the overall respiration equation?	The products in the overall respiration equation are carbon dioxide (CO2), which is the oxidation product, and water, which is the reduction product.
	What is being reduced during respiration?	Oxygen is being reduced during respiration.
	What is the result of this reduction?	The result of this reduction is water.
	What is being oxidized during respiration?	Glucose is being oxidized during respiration.
	What is the result of this oxidation?	The result of this oxidation is carbon dioxide.
	What is the function of NAD+?	NAD+ is a coenzyme of oxidation – reduction because it can oxidize a metabolite by accepting electrons and reduce a metabolite by giving up electrons. It is a hydrogen carrier to drive redox reactions.
	Describe the inner membrane of a mitochondrion.	The inner membrane of a mitochondrion invaginates to form the shelflike cristae, which are the locations of the electron transport chain.
	What is the aqueous matrix of the mitochondrion called?	The aqueous matrix of the mitochondrion is called the matrix.
	What are the folds in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion called?	The folds in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are called the cristae.
	Name the four phases of respiration.	Cellular respiration is the collection of metabolic reactions that use the energy from carbohydrate, fatty acid, or amino acid breakdown to produce ATP molecules. Its four phases are Glycolysis, transition, Kreb’s cycle, and electron transport, aka glycolysis, preparatory reaction, citric acid cycle, and electron transport / chemiosmosis, aka Glycolysis, prep, tricarboxylic acid cycle, and chemiosmosis.
	Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?	Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm outside the mitochondria.
	What are the reactants of glycolysis?	The reactants of Glycolysis are glucose, 2 NAD+, 2 ATP, 4 ADP + 4 P
	What are the products of glycolysis?	The products of Glycolysis are 2 pyruvates, 2 NADH, 2 ADP, and 4 ATP.
	How much ATP is formed by glycolysis?	Glycolysis forms 4 total, 2 net ATP molecules.
	How much CO2 is given off by glycolysis?	None.
	How much oxygen is used by glycolysis?	None.
	What does anaerobic mean?	Anaerobic means “in the absence of oxygen.”
	What is meant by anaerobic respiration?	Anaerobic respiration is cellular respiration that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It is Glycolysis followed by fermentation.
	What is fermentation?	Fermentation is the breakdown, in the absence of oxygen, of glucose that results in a gain of 2 ATP and end products such as alcohol and lactate. The purpose is to recover NAD+.
	Where in the cell does the transition phase occur?	The transition phase, aka the prep reaction, occurs in the mitochondrion in the stroma.
	What are the reactants of the transition phase?	2 pyruvate + 2 CoA.
	What are the products of the transition phase?	2 acetyl-CoA + 2 CO2
	How much ATP is formed by the transition phase?	None
	How much CO2 is given off by the transition phase?	2 CO2
	How much oxygen is used by transition phase?	None
	Where in the cell does the Kreb’s Cycle occur?	The Kreb’s cycle occurs in the stroma (or matrix) of the mitochondrion.
	What are the reactants of the Kreb’s Cycle?	2 acetyl groups, 6 NAD+, 2 FAD, 2 ADP + 2 P
	What are the products of the Kreb’s Cycle?	4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 ATP.
	How much ATP is formed by the Kreb’s Cycle?	2 ATP is formed by the Kreb’s cycle.
	How much CO2 is given off by the Kreb’s Cycle?	4 CO2 is given off by the Kreb’s cycle.
	How much oxygen is used by the Kreb’s Cycle?	None
	Where in the cell does electron transport occur?	Electron transport occurs in the cristae of the mitochondrion.
	What are the reactants of electron transport?	10 NADH, 2 FADH2
	What are the products of electron transport?	3 ATP per NADH, and 2 ATP per FADH2 – 34 ATP.
	How much ATP is formed by electron transport?	34
	How much CO2 is given off by electron transport?	None.
	How much oxygen is used by electron transport?	6 O2
	How many ATPs total are created in anaerobic respiration of a single glucose molecule?	2 by Glycolysis, 2 by fermentation: total: 4.
	How many ATPs total are created in aerobic respiration of a single glucose molecule?	2 by Glycolysis, 2 by Kreb’s cycle, and 34 by electron transport chain, for a total of 38 ATP.
	What is Mitchell’s Chemiosmotic Hypothesis?	Mitchell hypothesized that certain membranes have the ability to product a hydrogen ion gradient which can be used to drive ATP formation.
	Why are membranes so important in Mitchell’s Chemiosmotic Hypothesis?	The membranes are need to facilitate creation of an ionic gradient – a sort of biochemical battery.
	What is a proton motive force?	In mitochondria and chloroplasts, proton gradients are used to generate a chemiosmotic potential that is also known as a proton motive force.
	How many ATPs are created for each NADH during electron transport?	Three.
	How many ATPs are created for each FADH during electron transport?	Two.
	What is the cell cycle?	Repeating sequence of events in eukaryotes that involves cell growth and nuclear division; Consists of stages G1, S, G2, and M.
	List the three stages of interphase and describe the processes occurring in each stage.	G1 – cell grows, organelles double, proteins synthesized; S – replication (DNA synthesis) G2 – microtubule proteins synthesized.
	List and briefly describe the four phases of mitosis.	Prophase – chromatin net coils; Metaphase – chromosomes align in the middle; Anaphase – chromatids pulled to opposite poles; Telophase – cleavage furrow, chromatin net and nucleus reform.
	Describe the processes of prophase	Prophase – chromatin net coils, nuclear membrane disappears, nucleolus dissolves, spindle fibers form and attach;
	Describe the processes of metaphase	Metaphase – spindle fibers align chromosomes in the middle;
	Describe the processes of anaphase	Anaphase – sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles;
	Describe the processes of telophase	Telophase – cleavage furrow, chromatin net and nucleus reform.
	Cell increases in size	G1
	Organelles double	G1
	Materials required for DNA synthesis accumulates	G1
	DNA is replicated	S
	Proteins that will make up the spindle fibers is produced	G2
	Cell cycle is permanently (or semi-permanently) stopped	G0
	Nuclear membrane clear and prominent	Interphase
	Nucleolus is prominent	Interphase
	Chromatin net coils to form visible chromosomes	Prophase
	Nuclear membrane disappears.	Prophase
	Nucleolus dissolves.	Prophase
	Spindle fibers form and attach to chromosomes	Prophase
	Chromosomes aligned in a straight line in the middle of the cell	Metaphase
	Centromeres divide and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell	Anaphase
	Chromosomes begin to uncoil to form the chromatin net again	Telophase
	Nuclear membranes begin to reappear	Telophase
	Nucleoli begin to reappear	Telophase
	Spindle fibers begin to disappear	Telophase
	Cleavage furrow appears	Telophase
	“cell division” - Division of the cytoplasm to form two new daughter cells.	Cytokinesis
	“nuclear division” – prophase, metaphase, and anaphase accomplish this type of kinesis.	Karyokinesis
	Constriction where sister chromatids of a chromosome are held together.	Centromere
	Two genetically identical chromosomal units that are the result of DNA replication and are attached to each other at the centromere.	Sister chromatids
	What the genetic material (or chromatin) looks like at the end of telophase.	The chromatin net has reformed at the end of telophase.
	What the genetic material (or chromatin) looks like at the beginning of prophase.	The chromatin net is beginning to condense into chromatids.
	Apoptosis. At which points in the cell cycle will apoptosis occur?	Programmed cell death involving a cascade of specific cellular events leading to death and destruction of the cell. There are checkpoints at G1, G2, and between metaphase & anaphase of M.
	2N - Cell condition in which two of each type of chromosome are present.	Diploid
	1N - Cell condition in which only one of each type of chromosome is present.	Haploid
	Haploid sex cell; e.g., egg and sperm.	Gamete
	Pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I.	Synapsis
	Homologous chromosomes, each having sister chromatids that are joined by a nucleoprotein lattice during meiosis; also called bivalent.	Tetrad
	Homologous chromosomes, each having sister chromatids that are joined by a nucleoprotein lattice during meiosis; also called a tetrad.	Bivalent
	Unit of heredity existing as alleles on the chromosomes; in diploid organisms, typically two alleles are inherited – one from each parent.	Gene
	Alternative form of a gene – alleles occur at the same locus on homologous chromosomes.	Allele
	Exchange of segments between nonsister chromatids of a bivalent during meiosis.	Crossing over
	Alleles of unlinked genes segregate independently of each other during meiosis so that the gametes contain all possible combinations of alleles.	Independent assortment
	Member of a pair of chromosomes that are alike and come together in synapsis during prophase of the first meiotic division; a homologue.	Homologous chromosomes
	Member of a homologous pair of chromosomes.	Homologue
	Period of time between meiosis I and meiosis II during which no DNA replication takes place.	Interkinesis
	The purpose of this process reduce the number of chromosome sets in the cell and increase the genetic variety in the daughter cells.	meiosis
	Reduction division	meiosis
	Number of cells produced from meiosis	Meiosis I and II together produce four cells from one (or one oocyte and two polar bodies).
	Are cells resulting from meiosis identical?	The two division of meiosis produce great variety in the gametes – NOT identical cells.
	How many of your chromosomes came from your mom? Your dad?	23 maternal chromosomes and 23 paternal chromosomes.
	Chromatin net coils to form visible chromosomes	Prophase I & II
	Nuclear membrane disappears.	Prophase I & II
	Nucleolus dissolves.	Prophase I & II
	Spindle fibers form and attach to chromosomes	Prophase I & II
	Synapsis occurs	Prophase I Only
	Crossing over occurs	Prophase I Only
	Tetrads aligned in a straight line in the middle of the cell	Metaphase I Only
	Homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite ends of the cell	Anaphase I Only
	Chromosomes begin to uncoil to form the chromatin net again	Telophase I & II
	Nuclear membranes begin to reappear	Telophase I & II
	Nucleoli begin to reappear	Telophase I & II
	Spindle fibers begin to disappear	Telophase I & II
	Cleavage furrow appears	Telophase I & II
	Resting phase – nucleolus prominent, nuclear membrane complete	Interkinesis
	Chromatin net coils to form visible chromosomes	Prophase I & II
	Nuclear membrane disappears.	Prophase I & II
	Nucleolus dissolves.	Prophase I & II
	Spindle fibers form and attach to chromosomes	Prophase I & II
	Chromosomes aligned in a straight line in the middle of the cell	Metaphase I Only
	Centromeres divide and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell	Anaphase II Only
	Chromosomes begin to uncoil to form the chromatin net again	Telophase I & II
	Nuclear membranes begin to reappear	Telophase I & II
	Nucleoli begin to reappear	Telophase I & II
	Spindle fibers begin to disappear	Telophase I & II
	Cleavage furrow appears	Telophase I & II
	Which phase is always the same, in mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis II?	telophase
	How does prophase differ between meiosis I and meiosis II?	prophase II involves two cells from meiosis I, with the results of crossing-over apparent.
	How does anaphase differ between meiosis I and meiosis II?	anaphase I - homologous chromosomes pull apart from tetrads; anaphase II - sister chromatids pull apart after their centromeres divide;
	How does metaphase differ between meiosis I and meiosis II?	metaphase I - tetrads aligned in middle; metaphase II - chromosomes aligned in middle;
	Define spermatogenesis	Spermatogenesis – “sperm formation: production of sperm in males by the process of meiosis and maturation.
	Define oogenesis	Oogenesis – “egg formation” production of eggs in females by the process of meiosis and maturation.
	What is a polar body?	In oogenesis, a nonfunctional product; two to three meitotic products are of this type.
	What are testes?	Testes – male gonad that produces sperm and the male sex hormones.
	What are seminiferous tubules?	Seminiferous tubule – Long, coiled structure within chambers of the testis where sperm are produced.
	What is a spermatogonium?	Spermatogonia are diploid (2N) cells capable of mitosis and meiosis (spermatogonia can be replaced by mitosis).
	What is a oogonium?	Oogonia are diploid (2N) cells that eventually become eggs; female have oogonia until the 3d or 4th embryonic month; all oogonia begin meiosis and become primary oocytes before birth.
	What is a primary spermatocyte?	Primary spermatocytes are large, diploid (2N) cells that have begun meiosis, usually observed in some phase of meiosis I and are usually the largest, most prominent cells in seminiferous tubules.
	What is a primary oocyte?	Primary oocytes correspond roughly to primary spermatocytes; they are diploid cells in primordial follicles.
	Where would you find a primary spermatocyte?	seminiferous tubules
	Where would you find a primary oocyte?	primordial follicles.
	In which stage of meiosis are primary spermatocytes & primary oocytes?	Both primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes are in meiosis I.
	What is a secondary spermatocyte?	Secondary spermatocytes are haploid (1N) cells in some phase of meiosis II;
	What is a secondary oocyte?	Secondary oocytes are analogous to secondary spermatocytes; they are the actual cells released at ovulation it is the cell that does NOT become the polar body after telophase I.
	Where would you find a secondary spermatocyte?	seminiferous tubules
	Where would you find a secondary oocyte?	mature follicles
	In which stage of meiosis are secondary spermatocytes and secondary oocytes?	meiosis II
	What is a spermatid?	Spermatids are the haploid products of telophase II which are ready to undergo sperm maturation following meiosis II.
	What is spermiogenesis?	Spermiogenesis is the process spermatids undergo to become mature and fully functional sperm. The process basically rearranges cytoplasm and forms the flagellum.
	Name three parts of a mature sperm cell.	Mature sperm have heads, midpieces, and tails.
	Name two parts of the head of sperm.	Acrosome and nucleus. Acrosome is rich in golgi bodies and contain hyaluronidase for egg penetration.
	What’s the function of the acrosome?	The acrosome’s function is to use hyaluronidase to penetrate and fuse with the oocyte’s cell membrane.
	What’s the function of the midpiece of sperm?	The midpiece contains mitochondria and powers the sperm’s swimming movements.
	What’s the function of the sperm's nucleus?	Enter the egg with a haploid set of chromosomes to transform oocyte to ovum, which becomes zygote when the nuclei of sperm and ovum fuse.
	What’s the function of the sperm's tail?	The sperm's tail is simply a flagellum; the tail region is often malformed in sterile or infertile men.
	What are ovarian follicles?	Ovarian follicles are the sites of oocyte production in the ovaries.
	What are primordial follicles?	Primoridal follicles consist of one layer of follicle cells and a large primary oocyte; Each menstrual cycle, a few primordial follicles will begin developing into immature follicles.
	What are immature follicles?	Immature follicles consist of several layers of follicle cells and a larger primary oocyte that is still in meiosis I.
	What happens to some immature follicles?	Two or three immature follicles will develop into mature follicles approximately two weeks from the end of a menstrual cycle.
	What are mature follicles?	Mature follicles consist of a large secondary oocyte, and a space called the antrum filled with a liquid called liquor folliculi.
	What is the corpus luteum?	Aka “Yellow Body”; the remains of an ovulated follicle that supports pregnancy by secretion of progesterone until the placenta is fully developed.
	What serves as an important source of hormones in the first trimester of pregnancy?	corpus luteum
	Ovulation is the release of what kind of cell (hint: it’s not an egg cell)?	Secondary oocyte.
	What two cells result from meiosis I during oogenesis?	Secondary oocyte and first polar body.
	What two cells result from meiosis II during oogenesis?	A single, haploid secondary oocyte and the second polar body.
	What must occur prior to the completion of meiosis II during oogenesis?	Nutrients from the polar bodies must be concentrated into the secondary oocyte.
	Define endometrium.	Lining of the womb.
	What does FSH stand for, and what releases it?	Follicle stimulating hormone, released by the pituitary gland. early in the menstrual cycle, stimulates the early growth and development of primordial follicles into mature follicles.
	What is the function of FSH?	Released by the pituitary gland early in the menstrual cycle, FSH stimulates the early growth and development of primordial follicles into mature follicles.
	What is estrogen and where is it produced?	a hormone produced and released by developing follicles
	What is the function of estrogen?	Estrogen stimulates the regrowth of the endometrium, inhibits FSH release, and stimulates LH release.
	What does the estrogen surge trigger?	the release of leteinizing hormone (LH)
	What is LH and what is its function?	LH is released by the pituitary gland in response to the estrogen surge; it causes the remains of an ovulated follicle to become the corpus luteum.
	What do estrogen and LH together cause?	LH together with estrogen causes ovulation to occur about two weeks from the end of menstruation.
	What is progesterone's effect on LH's effect?	Progesterone strongly inhibits the ovulating effect of LH to limit the number of ovulations per menstruation.
	What does progesterone cause the endometrium to do?	Progesterone causes the endometrium to release a nourishing fluid for any developing embryos that may be present.
	Where is progesterone produced?	in the corpus luteum
	What is HCG and where is it produced?	Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone released by human embryos
	What is the function of HCG?	Human chorionic gonadotropin's function is to prevent disintegration of the corpus luteum, thereby maintaining progesterone production, which is critical to the pregnancy.
	Name two different types of barrier methods for birth control?	Diaphagm/cervical cap and condoms
	What is an IUD and how does it prevent pregnancy?	Intrauterine device; a plastic coil inserted into uterus which irritates the endometrium and prevents implantation of an embryo (not the formation of embryos)
	What is a tubal ligation and how does it prevent pregnancy?	Surgical method of contraception in which fallopian tubes are cut and tied off so that the path between oocyte and sperm is blocked.
	What is a vasectomy and how does it prevent pregnancy?	Surgical method of contraception in which vas deferens is cut and tied off, preventing sperm from entering the ejaculate.
	The study of traits or characteristics which pass from parents to offspring during reproduction.	Genetics
	Ancient genetics theory -- held by Aristotle, involved the homunculus, and split into spermist and ovist factions	Preformation
	Medeival genetics theory -- "forms from above", involved blending inheritance	Epigenesis
	Theory that held that there is a preformed little man in human gametes that develops into a child, that the menstrual flow was the food and the semen was the influence.	Preformation
	Theory that held that there were no preformed homunculi in the gametes, that body fluids carry inheritance information, and that offspring are a blend of their parents' fluids. Bloodlines became important.	Epigenesis
	Austrian monk who was very talented in the sciences and mathematics	Gregor Mendel
	Pisum sativum	The common garden pea (English pea), chosen by Mendel for his landmark studies
	List 4 laws established by Mendel	1 Law of Unit Characters, 2 Law of Dominance, 3 Law of Segregation, 4 Law of Independent Assortment
	List 2 laws established by Mendel that are generally cited in the current educational literature	1 Law of Segregation, 2 Law of Independent Assortment
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is spontaneous abortion; it is a phenotypic class that dies very early in development	lethal alleles
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is cystic fibrosis; it produces many variants or degrees of a phenotype	multiple alleles
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is familial hypercholesterolemia (FH); a heterozygote's phenotype is intermediate between those of two homozygotes	incomplete dominance
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is ABO blood types; a heterozygote's phenotype is distinct from and not intermediate between those of the two homozygotes	codominance
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is the Bombay phenotype; one gene masks or otherwise affects another gene's phenotype	epistasis
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is polydactyly (which may be associated with more than one Mendelian exception phenomenon); some individuals with a particular genotype do not have the associated phenotype	penetrance
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is polydactyly (which may be associated with more than one Mendelian exception phenomenon); a genotype is associated with a phenotype of varying intensity	expressivity
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is porphyria variegata; this phenotype includes many symptoms, with different subsets in different individuals (one gene, many traits)	pleiotropy
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is infection; an environmentally caused condition has symptoms and a recurrence pattern similar to those of a known inherited trait (something, for example a chemical, causes a problem that looks like a genetic condition)	phenocopy
	An exception to Mendelian phenotypic ratios; an example is hearing impairment; different genotypes are associated with the same phenotype (more than one way to inherit a trait)	genetic heterogeneity
	This Mendelian law states that factors of inheritance occur as pairs of solid particles within organisms (basically, there is no blending inheritance)	Law of Unit Characters
	This Mendelian law states that solid particles do not blend together like liquids would, and that their characteristics (e.g., tall and short) did not blend together either. In Pisus sativum, the tall peas in F1 must have had the short factor, otherwise they could not have passed it on to F2.	Law of Unit Characters
	Mendelian phenotypic ratio for F1 and F2 starting from a monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive	F1 is all dominant, while F2 is 3:1 dominant to recessive
	This Mendelian law states that one member of a pair of unit characters may dominate or hide the other member of the pair; this law explains the phenotypic ratios for F1 and F2 originating from a monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals	Law of Dominance
	This Mendelian law explains the reappearance of "shortness" in Pisus sativum in F2 after F1 was "all tall"	Law of Dominance
	This Mendelian law states that at the time of reproduction, the members of a pair of unit characters segregate (separate) from one another and move into different gametes	Law of Segregation
	This modern understanding of Mendel's Law of Segregation explains that homologous chromosomes separate from one another in meiosis; gametes are formed with one of the traits present; offspring are formed by random combinations of gametes of the two parents	gamete formation
	In pea plants, S (sperical) is dominant to s (dented) seeds. In a cross of two Ss parents, what fraction of F1 would have sperical seeds?	3/4; (a quarter would be SS, a half would be Ss, and a quarter would be ss)
	T-F: A phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in F1 of a monohybrid cross of heterozygous parents when each allele contains two mutations.	FALSE
	T-F: A phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in F1 of a monohybrid cross of heterozygous parents when the alleles segregate during meiosis.	TRUE
	genetic cross between two F1 hybrid pea plants for the dominant trait spherical seeds will yield what percent of spherical seeds in F2?	75%
	A genetic cross between two F1 hybrid pea plants for the dominant trait yellow seeds will yield what percent of green seeds in F2?	25%
	To identify the genotype of a yellow-seeded pea plant as either homozygous dominant (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), you could do a test cross with what phenotype for seed color?	green, which is homozygous recessive (yy) for the trait; all yellows indicate the unknown was YY and half yellows / half greens indicate the unknown was Yy
	To identify the genotype of a yellow-seeded pea plant as either homozygous dominant (YY) or heterozygous (Yy), you could do a test cross with what genotype for seed color?	homozygous recessive (yy) for the trait, which would be green; all yellows indicate the unknown was YY and half yellows / half greens indicate the unknown was Yy
	A cross with a homozygous recessive individual to determine whether an unknown genotype is homozygous dominant or heterozygous	test cross
	A theory of inheritance based on the existence of minute particles or hereditary units (now called "genes")	particulate theory of inheritance (Mendel's is a particulate theory of inheritance)
	Organized way of solving genetic problems, named after an English mathematician	Punnett Square -- named for James Punnett
	What sort of cross led Mendel to his fourth law of innheritance?	Dihybrid cross -- round yellow and wrinkled green peas
	Mendel expected a 3:1 round yellow to wrinkled green ratio for F2. Instead, what ratio did he get for F2?	9:3:3:1 for round yellow : round green : wrinkled yellow : wrinkled green
	This Mendelian law states that at the time of reproduction, the members of two or more pairs of unit characters follow the law of segragation independently from one another and assort themselves at random into the gametes	Law of Independent Assortment
	What is the doctrine of preformation?	An ancient interpretation of inheritance observations; stated that a preformed homunculus (little man) in human gametes develops into a child.
	What is the doctrine of epigenesis?	Medieval interpretation of inheritance observations; epigenesist means “forms from above”
	What was a spermist?	A spermist held that homunculi were in the sperm
	What was an Ovist?	An ovist held that homunculi were in the ova.
	Describe the theory of blending inheritance.	Body fluids carry inheritance information; offspring are a blend of their parents’ fluids
	Why do we use the term “bloodlines”?	The term is a throwback to epigenesist concepts
	What plant did Mendel do his seminal studies with?	Pisum sativum (garden peas)
	What are Mendel’s four laws?	1. Law of Unit Characters; 2. Law of Dominance; 3. Law of Segregation; 4. Law of Independent Assortment
	What are alleles?	Factors of inheritance; alternate forms of a gene
	What was the result for Mendel when he crossed pure-breeding tall plants with pure-breeding short plants?	F1 was all tall
	What was the result of a cross of the F1 hybrids from the above cross?	F2 was 3 tall to 1 short
	What are the odds of a short plant being pure-breeding?	100%
	What is the law of unit characters?	solid particles do not blend together like liquids would, and their characteristics (e.g., tall or short) do not blend together either.
	What is the law of dominance?	One member of a pair of unit characters may dominate or hide the other member of the pair.
	What is the law of segregation?	At the time of reproduction, the members of a pair of unit characters segregate from one another and move into different gametes
	What is the result of crossing pure-breeding plants with round seeds with pure-breeding plants with wrinkled seeds (round is dominant)?	F1 – all round heterozygotes
	What was the result of a cross of the F1 hybrids from the above cross?	F2 – 3 round to 1 wrinkled
	What would be the result of backcrossing the F1 of the above cross (round x wrinkled) with a plant producing wrinkled seeds?	50% round; 50% wrinkled
	What is a Punnett square?	Organized way of solving genetics problems; named after the English mathematician James Punnett
	What is put on the top of a Punnett square?	gametes of one parent
	What is put on the left side of a Punnett square?	gametes of the other parent
	What is a monohybrid cross?	a cross focused on one trait
	What is the result of crossing pure-breeding plants with purple flowers with pure-breeding plants with white flowers (purple is dominant)?	F1 – all heterozygous purple
	What is the result of a cross of the F1 hybrids from the above cross?	F2 – one homozygous purple to two heterozygous purple to one homozygous white
	What is a dihybrid cross?	a cross focused on two traits
	What result would you expect from a cross of pure-breeding tall plants with purple flowers and pure-breeding short plants with white flowers (tall and purple are dominant)?	all heterozygous tall and purple
	What would be the result of a cross of two F1 from the above cross?	F2 – 9 tall purple; 3 short purple; 3 tall white; 1 short white
	What is the law of independent assortment?	at the time of reproduction, the members of two or more pairs of unit characters follow the law of segregation independently from one another and assort themselves at random into the gametes
	What is a trihybrid cross?	a cross focused on three traits
	What would be the result of crossing pure tall plants with purple flowers and yellow seeds by pure short plants with white plants and green seeds (tall, purple and yellow are dominant)?	all heterozygous tall purple yellow
	What would be the result of a cross of two F1 from the above cross?	F2 – 27 tall purple yellow; 9 tall purple green; 9 tall white yellow; 9 short purple yellow; 3 tall white green; 3 short purple green; 3 short white yellow 1 short white green
	What is the chromosome theory of inheritance?	genes are located on chromosomes
	What are the two types of chromosome?	autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) and sex chromosomes (determine gender)
	Describe the nature vs nurture controversy.	a debate is ongoing about the extent of the impact that environment has on gene expression
	What is incomplete dominance?	the expression of both alleles in the phenotype of the heterogenous genotype; example: 4 O’clocks; F1 – all pink while F2 – 1 red to 2 pink to 1 white
	What is the result of crossing pure-breeding four o’clock plants with red flowers with pure-breeding four o’clock plants with white flowers (incomplete dominance)?	F1 all pink;
	What would be the result of a cross of two F1 from the above cross?	F2 one red to two pink to one white
	List three exceptions to Mendelian inheritance	incomplete dominance (intermediate phenotype); multiple alleles (get two of several possible alleles); codominance (2 inherited alleles equally expressed)
	How many alleles for a given gene can one person have?	two
	What is meant by multiple alleles?	there are often several alleles for a given trait, however each individual only gets 2 of the many possible alleles
	What is codominance?	an inheritance pattern in which both alleles of a gene are equally expressed
	In the human ABO blood type, which type is dominant, A or B?	Neither; A and B alleles show incomplete dominance to each other
	In the human ABO blood type, which type is dominant, A or O?	A
	In the human ABO blood type, which type is dominant, O or B?	B
	A woman with type A blood has a baby with type O. Is it possible that a man with type B blood fathered that child?	yes
	A woman with type B blood has a baby with type O. Is it possible that a man with type B blood fathered that child?	yes
	A woman with type A blood has a baby with type O. Is it possible that a man with type AB blood fathered that child?	no
	A woman with type A blood has a baby with type B. Is it possible that a man with type O blood fathered that child?	no
	A certain plant’s flower color is determined by a gene with three alleles, Red (CR), Blue (CB), and white (c). CR and CB show incomplete dominance with each other and a plant with both alleles will produce purple flowers. Both CR and CB are dominant over c. What would be the result of a cross between a heterozygous red flower and a heterozygous blue?	1 purple; 1 blue; 1 red; 1 white
	What is epistasis?	an interaction between genes when one gene influences how others are expressed; an example might be skin color in which one gene controls QUANTITY OF PIGMENT while another controls COLOR OF PIGMENT
	What is polygenic inheritance?	the inheritance of one characteristic or trait that involves the interaction of many genes.
	You’re studying a plant in which height is determined by two genes, one determining the number of internodes (I is many internodes, i is few) and one determining the length of internodes (L is long internodes and l is short). A plant with many short internodes is about as tall as one with few long internodes (IILL = IiLL = IILl = IiLl > IIll = Iill = iiLL = iiLl > iill). What would be the result of a cross between a pure tall (IILL) and a pure short (iill)?	all heterozygous tall
	What would be the result of a cross of two F1 from the above cross?	Tall: 9; Medium: 6; Short: 1
	Mendelian phenotypic ratio for dihybrid cross between heterozygotes for both traits	9:3:3:1
	Mendelian phenotypic ratio for dihybrid cross between a heterozygous for both traits and a recessive for both traits	1:1:1:1
	Mendelian phenotypic ratio for dihybrid cross between homozygous dominant for both traits and a recessive for both traits	100% dominant phenotype
	Mendelian phenotypic ratio for dihybrid cross between homozygous dominant for one trait and heterozygous for the other trait with a recessive for both traits	1:1 dominant phenotype to mixed phenotype
	Dihybrid test cross on a heterozygous for both traits	1:1:1:1
	Dihybrid test cross on a homozygous dominant on both traits	100% dominant phenotype
	Dihybrid test cross on homozygous dominant on one trait and heterozygous on the other trait	1:1 dominant phenotype to mixed phenotype
	Of what genetic process is albinism an example?	epistasis
	What is pleiotrophy?	opposite of polygenic inheritance; pleiotrophy is when one gene influences many different characteristics
	What do we mean when we say that two genes are linked?	generally, we are implying that the genes are on the same chromosome
	How does gene linkage affect inheritance?	it is an exception to independent assortment
	What is a sex-linked gene?	genes carried on sex chromosomes
	Color-blindness is X-linked recessive. A female carrier marries a color-blind male. What is the chance their daughters will be color blind? Their sons?	50% daughters will be color blind and 50% sons will be color blind
	What is a sex-influenced trait?	a trait whose expression is influenced by gender, but whose gene is not on a sex chromosome; pattern baldness, influenced by a lack of estrogen, is a sex-influenced trait
	What is a nondisjunction?	the failure of a homologous pair of genes to go to DIFFERENT daughter cells in either meiosis I or meiosis II
	What is the result of a nondisjunction in meiosis I?	2 diploid; 1 monosomy; and 1 trisomy
	What is the result of a nondisjunction in meiosis II?	2 trisomy and 2 monosomy
	What is polyploidy?	xn (multiple complete sets of chromosomes)
	What is monosomy?	2n - 1
	What is trisomy?	2n + 1
	Describe a chromosomal deletion.	a change in chromosome structure when an end of a chromosome breaks off or when an internal segment is lost; an example deletion disorder is Williams syndrome when the gene governing elastin production is missing
	Describe a chromosomal translocation.	a change in chromosome structure involving movement of a segment to a nonhomologous chromosome (a “bad crossover”?); an example is Alagille syndrome
	Describe a chromosomal duplication.	the presence of a chromosomal segment more than once in the same chromosome
	Describe a chromosomal inversion.	the reversal of a chromosome’s segment; it can lead to deletions and duplications during crossover because the chromosome with the inversion has to “loop” to connect
	What were nucleic acids originally called?	nuclein
	How did Miescher know they weren’t proteins?	they were rich in phosphorus and lacked sulfur
	What are the three parts of a nucleotide?	5-carbon sugar, nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
	Which sugar is part of DNA?	deoxyribose
	To which carbon of the sugar is the nitrogenous base attached?	C1
	To which carbon of the sugar is the phosphate attached?	C5
	Name the four nucleotides in DNA.	Guanine; Cytosine; Adenine; and Thymine
	Which two are purines?	Guanine and Adenine are purines
	Which two are pyrimidines?	Cytosine and Thymine are pyrimidines
	What is meant by transformation?	a change in living R strain bacteria somehow passed from dead S strain bacteria
	How did Avery and others know that the bacteria transforming substance was DNA?	enzymes that degrade proteins or digest RNA did not prevent transformation; enzymes that digest DNA did prvent transformation
	What are Chargaff’s rules?	G, C, A, T in DNA varies between species, but not within a species; A = T & G = C in amount; A + G = T + C
	Who are Watson & Crick?
	the double-helix boys
	If DNA is described as a twisted ladder, what makes up the sides and the rungs of the ladder?	sides – phosphate-deoxyribose backbone; rungs – nitrogenous bases (the base pairs)
	What are complementary base pairs? Name the complementary base pairs in DNA and RNA.	for DNA: GCAT; for RNA: GCAU
	Why is DNA replication said to be semiconservative?	because each daughter double helix contains an old strand and a new strand
	Describe the process of replication.	3 steps: 1 Unwinding – separation of strands; 2 Complementary base pairing – always 5’ to 3’ for the new strand; 3 Joining – re-attaching the two strands
	In which direction does replication proceed?	from 5’ to 3’ on the new strand
	What enzyme catalyzes DNA replication?	DNA polymerase
	What is the one gene – one enzyme theory?	one gene specifies the synthesis of one enzyme; based on work with N. crassa; (obsolete – now one gene – one RNA)
	What is the one gene – one polypeptide theory?	one gene specifies one polypeptide of a protein; (obsolete – now one gene – one RNA)
	What is the one gene – one RNA theory?	a gene is a sequence of DNA nucleotide bases that codes for a sequence of nucleotides in an RNA molecule
	What does RNA stand for?	ribonucleic acid
	What are the four bases in RNA?	Guanine; Cytosine; Adenine and Uracil
	Which two are purines?	Guanine and Adenine are purines
	Which two are pyrimidines?	Cytosine and Uracil are pyrimidines
	What is the sugar used in the RNA molecule?	ribose
	What are the three types of RNA?	tRNA (transfer RNA); mRNA (messenger RNA); rRNA (ribosomal RNA)
	What is the function of mRNA?	carries code for translation
	What is the function of tRNA?	brings amino acis to translation site
	What is the function of rRNA?	together with certain proteins, make up the ribosomes where proteins are synthesized
	What is transcription?	the process of generating mRNA from DNA
	What is translation?	the process of generating protein by reading the mRNA blueprints
	What enzyme catalyses transcription?	RNA polymerase
	How can translation and transcription be modified to ensure many copies of a protein fast?	for translation, polysomes can produce many proteins from the same mRNA strand simultaneously; also, for transcription, many RNA polymerase molecules work to produce mRNA from the same DNA region at the same time;
	How is mRNA processed prior to leaving the nucleus?	a modified guanine cap (G-cap) is put on the 5’ end and a poly-A-tail of 150-200 adenines is put on the 3’ end to facilitate transport out of the nucleus and to inhibit enzymatic degradation of the mRNA strand
	What is an intron?	non-coding segment of DNA removed by spliceosomes before the mRNA leaves the nucleus
	What is an exon?	the portion of the mRNA transcript eventually expressed in the polypeptide product
	What is an mRNA cap and where is it located?	modified guanine; put on 5’ end
	What is an mRNA tail and where is it located?	150-200 adenines (poly-A-tail) is put on the 3’ end
	What is the genetic code?	triplet code comprised of 3-letter codons that specify the different amino acids
	What is a codon?	a codon is a set of 3 nucleotide bases of DNA used to specify an amino acid
	Which organisms use the genetic code?	almost all organisms on the planet use the same code
	What is the start codon?	AUG (Start codons in August)
	What are the three stop codons?	UAA, UAG, UGA (Stop at U Alaska Anchorage, U Automidad Guadalajara, and U Georgia)
	What is meant by redundancy in the genetic code?	more than one codon specifies a given amino acid
	In which part of the codon is most redundancy?	third base
	Describe a ribosome.	two subunits; 1 large and 1 small
	What is the function of a ribosome?	translation
	Describe a tRNA.	a single-stranded RNA that doubles back on itself to create regions where complementary bases are hydrogen-bonded to one another
	What is the function of tRNA?	to transfer amino acids to the ribosomes
	What does a tRNA look like?	like a cross
	What is an anti-codon?	A group of three bases complementary to a specific codon of mRNA; they are read in the reverse direction as codons; (for example, CGU would have the complement GCA, but the anti-codon for CGU is ACG)
	What is the wobble hypothesis?	Hypothesis proposed by Crick in ’66 to explain observations that the 5’ base of the anticodon can ‘wobble’ to make alternative hydrogen bonding arrangements with other than Watson-Crick complementary base pairs. It describes a one-to-many relationship between tRNA and mRNA triplets.
	What are the three steps to translation?	Initiation; Elongation; Termination
	What is a polyribosome (polysome)?	clusters of several ribosomes synthesizing the same protein
	What are the three binding sites in a ribosome?	P – peptide site; A – amino acid site; E – exit site
	What binds to the A site?	the next tRNA carrying the next amino acid
	What binds to the P site?	the initiator tRNA binds to the P site
	What is the function of the E site?	to discharge tRNAs from the ribosome
	What is a non-coding gene?	transcribed to either rRNA or tRNA
	What is a coding gene?	transcribed to mRNA
	T-F: Many human genetic disorders are inherited according to Mendel's laws	True; the pattern of inheritance indicates whether the disorder is recessive or dominant
	T-F: Recessive disorders require the inheritance of only one recessive allele	False; a recessive disorder requires the inheritance of two recessive alleles
	T-F: If a single allele for a dominant disorder is inherited, then the disorder will appear	True; dominant disorders appear is a single dominant allele is inherited
	T-F: There are forms of inheritance that involve "degrees of dominance," multiple alleles and polygenes	TRUE
	T-F: environmental factors cannot influence the expression of a gene	FALSE
	T-F: In humans, the chromosome pairs 1-11 are considered autosomes	False; pairs 1-22
	List the possible genotypes for someone with an autosomal dominant genetic disorder (A)	AA and Aa
	List the possible genotypes for someone with an autosomal recessive genetic disorder (a)	aa only
	Consider two patterns of inheritance for an autosomal genetic disorder. In pattern I, two unaffected parents have an affected child. In pattern II, two affected parents have an unaffected childe. Which patter is for an autosomal dominant genetic disorder, and which is for an autosomal recessive disorder?	Pattern I is autosomal dominant; Pattern II is autosomal recessive.
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - most affected children have unaffected parents	TRUE
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - heterozygotes (Aa) have an affected phenotype	FALSE
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - two affected parents will always have affected children	TRUE; if the disorder is autosomal dominant, then two affected parents can produce an unaffected child
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected children	TRUE
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - close relatives who reproduce are more likely to have affected children	TRUE
	T-F: For autosomal recessive genetic disorders - males and females are affected with equal frequency	TRUE
	T-F: For autosomal dominant genetic disorders - affected children will usually have two unaffected parents	FALSE
	T-F: For autosomal dominant genetic disorders - heterozygotes (Aa) are unaffected	FALSE
	T-F: For autosomal dominant genetic disorders - two affected parents can produce an unaffected child	True; if the disorder is autosomal recessive, then two affected parents will always have affected children
	T-F: For autosomal dominant genetic disorders - two unaffected parents can produce afected children	False; if the disorder is autosomal dominant, then two unaffected parents will not have affected children
	T-F: For autosomal dominant genetic disorders - both males and females are affected with equal frequency	TRUE
	T-F: For X-linked recessive genetic disorders - more females than males are affected	FALSE
	T-F: For X-linked recessive genetic disorders - an affected son can have parents who have the normal phenotype	TRUE
	T-F: For X-linked recessive genetic disorders - for a female to have it, her father must also have it	True; her mother can either have it or simply be a carrier
	T-F: For X-linked recessive genetic disorders - the characteristic often skips a generation from the grandfather to the grandson	TRUE
	T-F: For X-linked recessive genetic disorders - if a woman has the characteristic, then all of her sons will have it	TRUE
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Tay-Sachs disease	autosomal recessive
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Cystic Fibrosis	autosomal recessive
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Phenylketonuria	autosomal recessive
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Sickle Cell Disease	autosomal recessive
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Neurofibromatosis	autosomal dominant
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: Huntington disease	autosomal dominant
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: achondroplasia	autosomal dominant
	Autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive genetic disorder?: von Recklinghausen disease	autosomal dominant
	X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive genetic disorder?: Color blindness	X-linked recessive
	X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive genetic disorder?: Muscular dystrophy	X-linked recessive
	X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive genetic disorder?: Hemophilia	X-linked recessive
	T-F: X-linked recessive disorders are more likely in females than males	False; X-linked recessive disorders are more likely in males than females
	X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive genetic disorder?: Fragile X Syndrome	Neither -- phenotypic expression varies with the number of CGG repeats at the "fragile site" on the X-chromosome; more than 230 repeats shows Fragile X symptoms, while less than 230 repeats generally do not show Fragile X symptoms
	Another name for Trisomy 21	Down syndrome
	XO -- one X chromosome, and the "O" signifies the absence of a second sex chromosome. Name the syndrome	Turner syndrome
	XXY	Klinefelter syndrome
	XYY	Jacobs syndrome
	Superfemales	Poly-X females (three or more Xs and no Ys)
	Deletion or translocation syndrome?: Williams syndrome	deletion
	Deletion or translocation syndrome?: Alagille syndrome	translocation
	Deletion or translocation syndrome?: Cri du chat (cat's cry)	deletion
	Deletion or translocation syndrome?: chronic myelogenous leukemia	translocation
	Deletion or translocation syndrome?: Burkett lymphoma	translocation
	The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which translocation syndrome?	chronic myelogenous leukemia
	What is taxonomy?	Branch of biology concerned with identifying, describing, and naming organisms.
	What’s the difference between folk taxonomies and scientific taxonomy?	Phylogenetics, or classification based on kinship (differentiated from systemics)
	Who is the father of modern taxonomy?	Carolus Linnaeus
	Define binomial nomenclature.	A two-named system adopted by Linnaeus to replace the unwieldy polynomial naming system.
	What two words make up a species name?	Genus + specific epithet = species name
	Describe four difficulties in distinguishing what is actually a new species.	Variability (how much variability is needed to distinguish a new species); sexual dimorphism (males look different than females); clinal variation (superficial changes across a geographical gradient); and hybridization (how much is too much)
	Name the 7 basic categories or TAXA (sing. Taxon) into which organisms are placed.	Kingdom, phylum (or division for plants), class, order, family, genus, species
	What is meant by “hierarchical classification system”?	In a hierarchical system, each taxon includes all those below it.
	Which taxon is the most inclusive?	Kingdom
	Which taxon is the least inclusive?	Species
	What is systematics?	The study of the diversity of organisms using information from cellular to population levels
	Define Phylogeny.	The evolutionary history of an organism; Taxonomy attempts to show the phylogeny of all organisms currently known to biologists
	What are homologous characteristics?	Similar characteristics due to common ancestry
	What are analogous characteristics?	Similar characteristics NOT due to common ancestry
	Give two examples of homologous characteristics.	Radius & ulna (all vertebrates have forearms)
	Give two examples of analogous characteristics.	Wings on bats, and wings on insects
	What is convergent evolution?	The acquisition of the same or similar characters in distantly related lines of descent
	Give two examples of convergent evolution.	Wings on bats and wings on insects
	What tools are used to determine relatedness?	The fossil record, homology (comparative anatomy), molecular data
	What method analyzes shared derived characters to classify organisms in a phylogenetic tree?	Cladistics
	What is the tree derived by this method called?	Cladogram
	What method analyzes similarities of traits to develop a phylogenetic tree?	Phenetics
	What is the tree derived by this method called?	Phenogram
	Which method of determining phylogeny requires an out-group to rule out ancestral characteristics?	Cladistics
	What is an autotroph?	An organism that makes its own food; that is, it is capable of photosynthesis
	What is a Heterotroph?	An organism that is not capable of making its own food; therefore it must consume other organisms for energy
	Name two domains of prokaryotes.	Bacteria & archaea
	Name four kingdoms of eukaryotes.	protista, fungi, plantae, animalia
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly single-celled organisms?	Archaebacteria, eubacteria / unicellular protista(?)
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly multi-celled organisms?	Plantae, animalia, fungi / & multicellular protista(?)
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly motile organisms?	Protista, animalia
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly non-motile organisms?	Archaebacteria, eubacteria, plantae, fungi
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly saprophytes?	Fungi
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly heterotrophs?	Fungi, animalia / protista(?)
	Which kingdom(s) comprises predominantly autotrophs?	Archaebacteria, eubacteria, plantae
	Which kingdom(s) reproduce sexually?	Protista, plantae, animalia, fungi
	Which kingdom(s) reproduce asexually?	Archaebacteria, eubacteria
	What are Archaebacteria?	Prokaryotes that seem to be more closely related to eukaryotes at the molecular level than to eubacteria; examples include methanogens, extreme halophiles, and extreme thermophiles
	Who was the originator of the theory of natural selection?	Charles Darwin
	Who was Charles Darwin’s grandfather, and why did he think evolution had occurred?	Erasmus Darwin hypothesized evolution based on ontology and vestigial organs.
	What is uniformitarianism?	Charles Lyell – uniformitarianism; Father of Modern Geology; thought the Earth was old – concept that the same processes in geology have always been occurring.
	Who developed the sciences of comparative anatomy and paleontology, noticing the stratification of the fossil record, but proposed catastrophism to explain it?	Cuvier
	What is catastrophism?	Concept proposed by Cuvier that the great flood is the cause of speciation
	Who first suggested a mechanism for evolution – the inheritance of acquired characteristics?	Lamark
	Who was the geologist that proposed long periods of erosion and uplift to account for today's geology?	James Hutton
	What is adaptive radiation?	Evolution of several species from a common ancestor into new ecological or geographical zones
	Give two examples of adaptive radiation.	Hawaiian honeycreepers, Darwin's finches
	Define niche.	The ecological role of an organism in a community, especially in regard to food consumption
	What was Lamark’s contribution to our understanding of evolution?	Acquired characteristics
	Describe the significance of the Galapagos Islands to Darwin. (Finches and tortoises)	Abundant evidence of evolutionary adaptation
	List and describe three requirements for natural selection to occur.	Heritable variation, struggle for existence, and difference in fitness
	Define adaptation.	A derived characteristic that makes the individual better able to survive and reproduce; fitness is the ability to successfully get descendents into future generations
	List and describe four different transitional fossils which support the theory of evolution.	fossils of sea animals in the mountains; fossils of extinct animals that look enough like living species that they could be ancestors; Eustheopteron (amphibious fish); Seymoria (reptile-like amphibian); Therapsids (mammal-like reptiles; Archeopteryx (bird-like reptile)
	Describe three different vestigial structures used to support the theory of evolution.	Ostrich wings, human tail bones & large constrictors have pelvic girdles with leg stubs
	What are homologous structures?	Similar characteristics due to a common ancestor
	Give two examples of homologous structures.	Vertebrate forelimbs
	Name two structures that exist in all vertebrate embryos, supporting the theory of evolution.	Postanal tail and pharyngeal pouches in all vertebrate embryos
	List and describe four different biochemical clues that support the theory of evolution.	All organisms have the same genetic code; all use the same basic molecules; all use 20 amino acids – all L-isomers (none use D-isomers); variation in gene sequences fit evolution theory; variation in protein sequence fit the evolution theory
	Define population.	All the members of a single species occupying a certain area at the same time
	Define microevolution.	A variation in alleles in a gene pool; it is evolution that occurs within a population
	What is the Hardy-Weinberg principle?	Equilibrium of allele frequencies are constant is (1) there are no mutations, (2) there is no gene flow, (3) there is random mating, (4) there is no genetic drift, and (5) there is no selection pressure; a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium provides a baseline by which to judge whether evolution has occurred. A change in allele frequencies indicates the occurrence of evolution; p + q = 1; p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
	Describe four causes of microevolution.	Genetic mutations (new alleles); gene flow (movement of alleles among populations by migration of breeding individuals); non-random mating (inbreeding, sexual selection, and assortative mating), and genetic drift (changes in allele frequencies of a gene pool due to the chance reproduction of a few individuals
	Describe three types of non-random mating.	Sexual selection (occurs when males compete for the right to reproduce and females choose to mate with males of a particular phenotype); assortative mating (tendency of individuals to mate with those of the same phenotype with respect to a certain characteristic), and inbreeding (mating with relatives)
	What is the Bottleneck Effect?	An extreme example of genetic drift when populations get so low that genetic variation is affected (cheetahs?)
	What is the Founder Effect?	The gene pool of populations is more similar to the first occupant of the area than the other populations
	What is meant by the phrase: “Heterozygosity protects the recessive allele”?	Only exposed alleles are selected and the heterozygote is favored
	Describe a situation in which heterozygosity is actually favored by natural selection.	Sickle cell anemia; the heterozygote is better against malaria than the homozygous dominant
	Define fitness in an evolutionary context.	The extent to which an individual contributes fertile offspring to the next generation
	Define speciation.	The splitting of one species into two or more species or the transformation of one species into a new species over time
	List and describe three types of natural selection.	Directional selection (when one extreme phenotype is favored the curve shifts); stabilizing selection (which may prevent speciation; extreme phenotypes are eliminated and the intermediate phenotype is favored); disruptive selection (occurs when both extreme phenotypes are favored over the intermediate – can lead to more than one distinct form)
	Which kind of natural selection is most likely to lead to speciation?	Disruptive selection
	Which kind of natural selection is most likely to prevent speciation?	Stabilizing selection
	Define species.	A group of morphologically similar organisms sharing in a common gene pool; capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring
	Describe two basic types of reproductive isolation mechanisms that can lead to speciation.	Prezygotic and postzygotic
	Which is the most efficient?	Prezygotic, because it wastes less energy on a doomed offspring
	List and describe four different prezygotic isolation mechanisms.	Habitat isolation; temporal isolation; behavioral isolation; mechanical isolation, and gamete isolation
	List and describe three different postzygotic isolation mechanisms	Zygote mortality; hybrid sterility, and F2 fitness.
	Define ecology.	Oikos ("home") & logy ("study of"); the study of interactions of organisms with their environment
	Define population.	A group of the same species occupying a certain area; at this level, ecologists are interested in factors that effect population growth and success
	Define community.	A community consists of all populations at one locale (e.g., a coral reef community)
	Define ecosystem.	Ecosystems contain the community organisms and abiotic factors (e.g., energy flow, chemical cycling)
	Define habitat.	An organism's habitat is where it lives
	How does habitat quality affect population dynamics in animals?	The better the habitat for the species, the more biomass of that species can be supported by the habitat.
	How does habitat quality affect population dynamics in plants?	For plants, there is a self-thinning, with larger individuals but smaller populations
	Define demography.	Statistical study of populations with regard to density, distribution and rate of growth
	What is population density?	Reference to how many individuals live per unit area or volume
	Give two examples of how resource limitations affect population distribution.	Trout need fast water with high O2 concentrations. Desert plant populations trend to uniform due to water limitations.
	Define biotic potential.	Maximum population growth rate under ideal conditions
	Describe four things that affect biotic potential.	(1) Number of offspring per reproductive event; (2) Survivorship; (3) Frequency of reproduction; (4) Age at which reproduction begins
	Define cohort.	All the organisms entering an ecosystem at the same time; members of a population born at the same time
	Define survivorship.	The probability of newborn individuals of a cohort surviving to particular ages
	Differentiate between the three types of survivorship curves (Types I, II, III).	Type I – most survive past the lifespan's midpoint; Type II – survivorship decreases at a constant rate throughout the lifespan; Type III – most don't reproduce
	List and describe the three major groups used in age structure diagrams.	Increasing (pyramid shaped); Stable (looks like a Coca-Cola bottle); Decreasing (looks like a diamond)
	What would the age structure diagram look like for a growing population?	Like a pyramid – lots of children
	What does exponential growth mean?	Growth acceleration over time – dramatic population increase
	Define carrying capacity.	Maximum number of individuals of a species that can be supported by the environment
	Define irruptive growth.	Also known as Malthusian growth, it is unconstrained exponential growth
	What are r-selected species?	Produce large number of offspring when young; "breed fast – die young"; an "opportunistic pattern"
	What are k-selected species?	Allocate energy to survival of self and offspring; "live long – breed slow"; an "equilibrium pattern"
	Traits of an opportunistic pattern	Small individuals, short life span, fast to mature, many offspring, little or no care of offspring, many offspring die before reproducing, early reproductive age
	Traits of an equilibrium pattern	Large individuals, long life span, slow to mature, few and large offspring, much care of offspring, most young survive to reproductive age, adapted to stable environment
	Describe two density-independent means of regulating population size.	Floods, hurricanes, fires
	Describe three density-dependent means of regulating population size.	Competition, predation, parasitism & disease
	What is meant by the demographic transition in human population growth?	A decline in mortality followed by a decline in the birthrate
	What is the most effect means of triggering this transition?	Education & empowerment of women, which delays the onset of childbearing
	Most population growth occurs in less developed countries, but the largest environmental impact is from the more developed countries. Why is that?	MDCs simply consume more resources than LDCs despite the smaller population
	Define community.	A group of populations that interact with one another in the same environment
	Define species composition.	All the species within the community; different communities have different groups of species
	Define biodiversity.	The variation of life forms within a given ecosystem, biome, or the Earth; Biological diversity in an environment as indicated by numbers of different species of plants and animals; two qualitative measures of biodiversity include richness and evenness
	Are community boundaries always obvious? Why or why not?	No – due to gradation; communities grade into one another very gradually so that sometimes it is difficult to detect transition
	Describe two different models of community composition.	Individualistic model (Gleason) & Interactive model (Clements)
	Which community composition model predicts major interdependencies?	Interactive model
	Which community composition model predicts gradual changes in community composition?	Individualistic model
	Define tolerance.	Tolerances are the special range of conditions for an organism that must be met for survival; the tolerance of desert plants to low rainfall is greater than wetlands plants
	How do tolerances fit into the individualistic model of community formation?	Tolerances and abiotic factors determine community composition
	Describe the Island Biogeography theory.	Island biodiversity is positively correlated with island size and inversely correlated with distance from the mainland
	Describe Gause’s Principle.	No two organisms can occupy the exact same niche in the same area at the same time.
	Describe the Competitive Exclusion Principle.	Modern term for Gause's Principle; no two species can occupy the same niche at the same time
	What is resource partitioning and how does it work?	"Niche partitioning" – dividing resources and function to accommodate several species
	What is predation and how does it influence the selective pressure on prey organisms?	One organism feeding on another; Predation places selective pressure on the prey population resulting in an adaptive improvement of the prey population's defenses against predation
	Describe four defensive mechanisms for prey organisms (other than running fast).	Camouflage (hard to detect the prey); Bluffing (prey appears threatening to predator); Warning colors (prey is brightly colored making it easy to detect, but is also poisonous or comes with some other deterrent characteristic); Mimicry (prey appears like a non-prey species to the predator)
	Why are Monarch Butterflies bright orange?	To warn of their poisonous nature
	Why do Viceroy butterflies look so much like Monarch butterflies?	Batesian mimicry; the Monarch is the model and the Viceroy is the mimic
	Define symbiosis.	"Living together"
	Describe four types of symbiotic relationships.	Parasitism (parasite benefits, host is hurt); Commensalism (symbiont benefits, host is neither hurt nor helped); Mutualism (both benefit); Amensalism (one is harmed, the other unaffected)
	Define ecological succession.	The change in plant community composition over time
	Differentiate between primary and secondary succession.	Primary – where soil does NOT exist; Secondary – where soil exists (also known as "old-field succession)
	What is facilitation, and how does it relate to succession?	Each stage of succession creates the conditions under which it will be replaced
	Describe two different mechanisms for secondary succession.	(1) Inhibition – each stage holds on to the site until something happens to them to allow other stages in; (2) Tolerance – all seeds arrive at the same time, but some develop faster – you see the ones developed enough to be obvious
	What is a climax community?	The culmination of a series of successions leading to a stable community, known as the climax community
	Describe the difference in how the interactive model of communities and the individualistic model account for succession.	Interactive (Clements): Communities succeeded toward one definite climax community characteristic of a region; Individualistic (Gleason): Time since the last disturbance represents just another environmental gradient
	Ruderal species	A ruderal species is a plant species that is first to colonise disturbed lands. The disturbance may be natural (e.g., wildfires or avalanches), or due to human influence - constructional (e.g., road construction, building construction or mining), or agricultural (e.g., abandoned farming fields or abandoned irrigation ditches).
	What is a pioneer species?	The first species to occupy a newly vacated site
	What is a pyroclimax?	Fire maintained climax
	What is edaphic climax?	Soils (not climate) determine climax
	What is a keystone species?	A species responsible for the maintenance of biodiversity; examples include starfish, elephants, and alligators
	Why do exotic species so often become pests?	No natural predators
	How are windblown spores an adaptation to reproduction on land?	Windblown spores, which lack flagella, no longer require water for dispersal
	Moss gametophyte: is the sperm haploid or diploid?	haploid
	Moss gametophyte: is the tissue surrounding the sperm haploid or diploid?	haploid
	Moss gametophyte: is the egg haploid or diploid?	haploid
	Moss gametophyte: is the tissue surrounding the egg haploid or diploid?	haploid
	Moss gametophyte: is the sporophyte haploid or diploid?	diploid
	How are ferns dispersed from one area to another?	By windblown spores
	Is either generation in the fern dependent for any length of time on the other generation?	No. The sporophyte initially grows on the gametophyte but soon is independent. The gametophyte germinates directly from windblosn spores and is also independent.
	Name and describe the life cycle of plants	Plants have a two-generation life cycle called alternation of generations. The haploid gametophyte produces gamets by mitosis, while the diploid sporophyte produces spores by meiosis.
	Name the types of life cycles for plants and for animals	For plants, the name is alternation of generations life cycle, while for animals, the name is diploid life cycle
	Name the products of meiosis for plants and for animals	For plants, the product of meiosis is the spore, while for animals, the product of meiosis is the gamete
	Name three processes in plants in which mitosis occurs	Plant mitosis occurs to transform zygotes to individuals, to transform spores to individuals, and in gamete production
	Name a process in animals in which mitosis occurs	Animal mitosis occurs to transform zygotes to individuals
	T-F: The dominant generation in the moss is the sporophyte	False. The dominant generation in the moss is the gametophyte
	T-F: The dominant generation in the fern is the sporophyte	True. The dominant generation in the fern is the sporophyte
	T-F: The moss has flagellated sperm.	True. The moss has flagellated sperm
	T-F: The fern has flagellated sperm	True. The fern has flagellated sperm
	T-F: The method of offspring dispersal for the moss is windblown pollen, while for the fern it is the windblown spore	False. The method of offspring dispersal for both the fern and the moss is the windblown spore.
	Why do some biologists call nonvascular plants the "amphibians of the plant kingdom"?	Nonvascular plants must have an aquatic environment to sexually reproduce
	Why are ferns better adapted to the land environment than mosses?	Ferns have vascular tissue in the dominant sporophyte
	How is gametophyte generation in ferns similar to that of mosses?	Both ferns and mosses produce flagellated sperm, and neither has vascular tissue in the gametophyte
	Contrast gametophyte generation in ferns from that of mosses.	The gametophyte generation is dominant in the moss, but is separate, and short-lived in the fern.
	What is the benefit of a dominant sporophyte generation in vascular plants?	The sporophyte generation has vascular tissues
	Compare and contrast moss and fern sporophytes	The moss sporophyte, a stalk and capsule, is dependent on the gametophyte, which is the dominant generation. The fern sporophyte, the leafy frond, is independent and the dominant generation.
	What is the primary function of the root system?	Anchor the plant and absorptio nof water and minerals
	What is the primary function of the shoot system?	Photosynthesis and transport of water and nutrients
	Does the internode get larger or smaller toward the apex of the stem?	Smaller
	does the internode get larger or smaller toward the roots?	Larger
	How does a stem grow?	Elongation causes the length of the internode to increase as the plant grows.
	Where is the terminal bud of a stem?	At the apex of a shoot
	Where is the axillary bud?	In the axil of a leaf
	Describe a leaf's blade	The broad part of a leaf
	Describe the petiole	A stalk that attaches the blade to the stem.
	Contrast the arrangement of vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) in eudicot and monocot roots	In eudicot, root phloem occurs between arms of xylem. In the monocot, roots xylem and phloem bundles alternate in a vascular ring.
	The vascular bundles in a herbaceous monocot stem are said to be acattered. Explain	In a monocot stem, vascular bundles are scattered because they do not occur in a regular ring formation, as they do in eudicot stems.
	Where do vascular bundle scars appear?	Vascular bundle scars appear where the vascular bundles previously extended into leaf petioles or a branch that dropped off.
	How would you distinguish between a monocot plant and a eudicot plant based on external anatomy?	The leaves of a monocot plant have parallel veins while the leaves of a eudicot plant have a net vein pattern.
	What is meristem, and how is this tissue different from all other types of plant tissue?	Meristem is embryonic tissue, and it continually produces new cells. This accounts for plants' ability to grow their entire lives
	In which zone of a eudicot root would you expect to find vascular tissue? Why?	Vascular tissue is found in the zone of maturation because cells become specialized in this zone.
	In a eudicot root, what structural feature allows the endodermis to regulate the entrance of water and materials into the vascular cylinder, where xylem and phloem are located?	The Casparian strip a layer of waxy material, prevents the passage of water and materials between root cells so that they must pass through the endodermis
	Characterize the root of a carrot	The taproot is modified for the storage of organic food. The main root is many times larger than the branch roots.
	How would you microscopically distinguish a eudicot stem from a monocot stem?	In a eudicot stem, the vascular bundles are arranged in a ring; in a moncot stem, they are scattered.
	Distinguish between primary and secondary growth of a stem, and explain how each arises	Primary growth arises from the apical meristem in the terminal bud and adds to the length of a plant. Secondary growth arises from vascular cambium and adds to the girth of the plant.
	Contrast how you could determine one year's growth by looking at a winter twig with how you determine one year's growth in a cross sectio nof a tree stem.	In a cross section of a tree, one annual ring indicates one year's growth. In a woody twig, the growth between terminal bud ascars represents one year growth.
	Contrast the manner in which water reaches the inside of a leaf with the manner I n;which carbon dioxide reaches the inside of a leaf.	Water enters xylem at the roots and then passes up the stem to a leaf vein. Carbon dioxide enters by way of stomata into the cells of spongy mesophyll.
	What is the function of bean seed cotyledons?	Cotyledons store organic food for the seedling until it has leaves to produce organic food
	Which organ emerges first from the seed -- the plumule or the radicle?	The radicle emerges first. The advantage of this to the plant is that the plant can immediately begin to transport water and inorganic nutrients from the soil
	What is the advantage of the hypocotyl pulling the plumule up out of the ground instead of pushing it up through the ground?	In this way, the hypocotyl protects the plumule
	Do cotyledons stay beneath the ground?	No
	Does the cotyledon of a corn seed stay beneath the ground?	Yes
	Why do cotyledons of a bean shrivel as the seedling grows?	The cotyledons contain stored organic food, which the seedling uses. As the seedling uses the organic food, the cotyledons shrivel.
	Relate the parts of a carpel to the germination, growth, and function of a pollen tube.	A pollen tube germinates on the stigma, grows through the style, and enters the ovary. Two sperm move through the pollen tube, where one fertilizes the egg and the other contributes to the formation of endosperm.
	How can you tell a monocot flower from a eudicot flower?	Monocots have flower parts I nthrees and eudicots have flower parts in fours or fives.
	Explain why a fruit ordinarily contains sees.	An ovary contains ovules. Ovules become shte seeds enclosed by the fruit, which develops from the ovary wall
	A string bean, tomato, okra, and cucumber are fruits. Explain	A fruit develops from an ovary. Since string beans, tomatoes, okra, and cucumbers all develop from an ovary, they are fruits.
	How can you tell a monocot seed from a eudicot seed?	A monocot seed contains one cotyledon, a eudicot seed contains two cotyledons
	Name three general parts of a seed.	The three general parts of a seed are the seed coat, the stored food, and the embryo
	Relate the plumule and radicle to parts of an adult plant.	The plumule becomes the leaves, and the radicle becomes the root.
	Name two growth pattern differences between monocot and eudicot seeds after germination	In monocots, a coleoptile protects the plumule as it progresses upward through the soil; while in eudicots, the hypotocyl moves upward and pulls the plumule up out of the soil. In eudicots, the cotyledons emerge from the ground, while in monocots, the cotyledon remains below ground
	Why do you expect acidic conditions to affect the ability of seeds to germinate?	Enzymes that are active during germination have an optimum pH and cannot function if conditions are too acidic.
	Name four important evolutionary developments for plants.	1) Protected embryo (500M years – early evolution the major adaptation geared toward the prevention of dessication); 2) Vascular tissue (430M years); 3) Seeds (400M years); 4) Flowers (135M years – response to insects)
	What is meant by the phrase “alternation of generations” in the plant life cycle?	There is a multicellular diploid phase that alternates with a multicellular haploid phase. The haploid is the gametophyte and the diploid is the sporophyte
	What is a gametophyte?	A multicellular haploid
	What is a sporophyte?	A multicellular diploid
	By what process are spores formed?	Meiosis
	By what process are gametes formed?	Mitosis
	Which is the haploid phase of a plant life cycle?	Gametophyte
	Which is the diploid phase of a plant life cycle?	Sporophyte
	Which generation is dominant in mosses?	Gametophyte
	Which generation is dominant in ferns?	In all plants except Division Bryophyta, the sporophyte is dominant
	Which generation is dominant in gymnosperms?	Sporophyte
	Which generation is dominant in angiosperms?	Sporophyte
	Describe the differences between monocots and dicots in flower arrangement, leaf venation, number of cotyledons.	Monocot flower arrangement is in threes; monocots have a single cotyledon and parallel venation in leaves; Dicot flower arrangement is in fours or fives; dicots have two cotyledons and networked venation in leaves
	Name all the flower parts required for a flower to be complete.	1) Sepal (calyx); 2) Petals (corolla); 3) Stamens (anther & filament); 4) Carpel (stigma, style & ovary)
	Name all the flower parts required for a flower to be perfect.	Both stamen and carpel.
	Define inflorescence.	A cluster of flowers
	What is a shoot?	The above-ground part of a plant.
	Name three parts of a shoot.	Stem, leaf, & flowers/fruit
	What is a node?	Part of stem that holds buds which grow into leaves, inflorescence, cones, stems, etc.; nodes contain undifferentiated tissue
	What is an internode?	Spaces separating the nodes
	What are the functions of a stem?	Support, transport, storage and production (of new living tissue or hormones)
	What are the functions of a root?	Anchors the plant to the soil, absorbs water and minerals, storage and hormone production
	What are the functions of a leaf?	Photosynthesis and gas exchange
	What is a petiole?	“Leaf stem” supports the leave and provides transport
	List and describe the three basic types of tissue in plants.	1) Dermal (covering); 2) Ground (support, storage, protection & growth); 3) Vascular (transport and support)
	List and describe the three basic types of ground tissue.	1) Parenchyma (basic filling tissue, undifferentiated cells) (think lettuce); 2) Collenchyma (flexible support to young stems and petioles) (think celery); 3) Sclerenchyma (lignins, fibers and sclerids)(think nuts)
	What’s the difference between fibers and sclerids?	Fibers are elongated sclerenchyma and sclerids are rounded sclerenchyma (think fibers versus nuts)
	What is the function of xylem?	Conducts water and minerals from roots to leaves
	What is the function of phloem?	Conducts food and nutrients from leaves to roots
	Name two types of cells present in xylem.	Tracheids and vessel elements
	Which of the two types of cells present in xylem is absent in gymnosperms?	Vessel elements are absent in gymnosperms
	What is the function of tracheids in angiosperms?	Water transport
	What is the function of tracheids in gymnosperms?	Support and water transport
	What is the function of vessels?	Vascular transport
	Name two types of cells present in phoem.	Sieve tube cells and companion cells
	Which type of vascular cell has perforation plates at their longitudinal cell walls?	Vessel elements
	Which type of vascular cell has sieve plates at their longitudinal cell walls?	Sieve tube cells
	Define meristem.	Where new cells are added to the plant body by mitosis. A region in a plant where mitosis is going on.
	How do vascular bundles in monocots differ from those of dicots?	They are scattered throughout the stem in monocots
	Define corolla.	Petals
	Define calyx.	Sepals
	Define androecium.	The male parts of flowers; stamen (anther and filament)
	Define gynoecium.	Female parts of flowers; carpel (stigma, style, and ovary)
	What is wood?	It is the secondary xylem in the stems of trees and other woody plants; secondary xylem -> wood; secondary phloem -> inner bark
	Where is the vascular cambium of trees located?	In the vascular bundles between the xylem and phloem and extends into the space between the bundles and connects to form a complete ring.
	What is the function of the vascular cambium?	To provide new xylem cells to the inside and new phloem cells to the outside
	What is the function of the cork cambium?	Produces cork (outer bark) tissue to the outside; Serves as a secondary meristem that develops in cortex as the epidermis is torn and stretched by internal expansion
	What is a stolon?	Horizontal stem that branches from main stem above the ground (aka a “runner”)
	What is a rhizome?	Horizontal stem that runs underground – frequently mistaken for a root.
	What is a corm?	Swollen main stem for food storage (e.g., onion)
	What is a tuber?	A swollen stolon or rhizome – used for storage (e.g. potato – actually a modified stem & not a root)
	Adventitious	“Growing where it’s not supposed to” e.g., adventitious roots
	What is a root hair?	Extension of a root epidermal cell that collectively increases the surface area for the absorption of water and minerals. Root hairs add length, which helps with ion or nutrient absorption.
	What is a Casparian strip?	Structure that controls entry of material to vascular cylinder.
	Where is the Casparian strip located and what is its function?	In the endodermis with the function of controlling entry of material to the vascular cylinder; Casparian strips force water into the cytoplasm of endodermis cells in order to get to the the xylem.
	What is a taproot?	Most common type of root; central root dominate (think carrot)
	What are fibrous roots?	Common in grasses
	What is an adventitious root?	A root growing where it shouldn’t. For example, runners may settle down to produce adventitious roots.
	Where would you expect to find palisade cells in a leaf?	On the side facing the sun (They are a densely packed cell structure for maximum light interception)
	What is the condition of guard cells when stomata are closed?	Flaccid. Water is pumped out of guard cells to close stomate. Turgid guard cells -> open stomata; Flaccid guard cells -> closed stomata
	What is a pinnately compound leaf?	Leaves with a “finger-like” arrangement of leaflets.
	What is a palmately compound?
	What distinguishes the O horizon of soils?	Organic material, both living and dead but not yet incorporated into the mineral soil.
	Describe the A, B and C horizons of soils.	A is topsoil, the layer of mineral soil with the most incorporated organic matter, mineral nutrients and life; B is subsoil; C is substratum (broken up parent material)
	What are the plant macronutrients?	CHOPKNS CaFe Mg (C. Hopkins café. Mighty good); carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, potassium, nitrogen, sulfur, calcium, iron, magnesium
	Why are cations retained by soils better than anions?	Cations are retained by attraction to negatively charged soil particles. Anions, on the other hand, leach out.
	What condition must be met for ions to be absorbed by the root?	The ion must be touching the root. Diffusion plays a role. Nutriten uptake is charge balanced and energy expensive therefore roots must respire.
	Why do roots function poorly in flooded soils?	Because roots must respire, they need oxygen. The best soils have both small pores to hold water and larger pored to hold air.
	What are root nodules and what function to they play?	Root nodules grow as bacteria live in symbiosis with the plant. The bacteria fix nitrogen as NH3 (ammonia)
	What are mycorrhizae, and how do they help the root?	Fungi in symbiosis with plants; they put out mycelia that extend the length and absorb some of the plant’s sugars (mutualism)
	How does the root help mycorrhizae?	Give the fungus sugar
	Why are small plants with shallow roots more susceptible to drought that more deeply rooted plants?	Soil dessicates from the surface down.
	What is water potential?	The potential of water to do work. Sugary water has osmotic potential. Water moves down a water potential gradient.
	What is cohesion?	The attraction of one water molecule to another water molecule
	What is SPAC?	Soil-plant-atmosphere, continuum
	Is xylem transport active or passive?	Passive
	Is phloem transport active or passive?	Active
	What is the typical sink for carbon in plants?	Wherever it is growing; In the Spring, it’s the leaves; Apical meristem – while it’s actively growing; Root becomes the carbon sink once growth of the shoot stops
	What is the typical sink for nitrogen in plants?	Wherever the plant is actively growing.
	What is the typical source for carbon in plants?	Fully expanded leaves (atmosphere)
	What is the typical source of nitrogen in plants?	Roots
	What is the plant hormone that maintains apical dominance?	Auxin – indoleacetic acid (IAA)
	What is the plant hormone that breaks bud dormancy?	Gibberellins
	What is the plant hormone that stimulates cell division?	Cytokinens
	What is the plant hormone that causes stomata to close?	Abscisic acid
	What is the plant hormone that induces fruit ripening?	Ethylene
	In which part of the plant is auxin produced?	Apical meristem
	In which part of the plant is gibberellin produced?	Produced by young leaves, roots, seeds and fruits
	In which part of the plant is cytokinin produced?	Actively dividing root tissue
	In which part of the plant is abscisic acid produced?	Produced by any green tissue, roots and monocot endosperm
	In which part of the plant is ethylene produced?	By injured tissues or ripening fruit
	Which plant hormone is gaseous?	Ethylene
	What is a tropism?	Directional growth toward or away from the stimulus
	What is nastic movement?	Movements that are independent of the direction of the stimulus
	Define phototropism.	Directional growth in response to light stimulus
	What hormone is thought to induce phototropism?	A pigment related to riboflavin
	Define gravitropism.	Aka geotropism, it is a movement in response to gravity
	What hormone is thought to induce gravitropism?	Auxin
	What is a statolith?	A sensor in the root cap cell. These are starch grains located within amyloplats, a type of plastic
	What part of the plant is positively gravitropic?	Roots
	What part of the plant is negatively gravitropic?	Stems
	Define thigmotropism.	A movement in response to touch, an example is the coiling response in a vine.
	What distinct plant growth pattern is explained by thigmotropism?	Coiling response of a vine
	Define seismonasty.	Movements resulting from touch, shaking or thermal stimulation that do not involve growth and are not directionally dependent.
	What is a pulvinus?	A regularot of nastic movements, it is a thickened structure at the base of leaves which loses turgor when stimulated.
	What is a circadian rhythm?	A biological rhythm with a 24-hour cycle
	Define photoperiodism.	The length of daylight compared to the length of night; sets circadian biological clocks
	What are long-day plants?	Wheat, barley, rose, iris, clover and spinach
	What are short-day plants?	Cocklebur, goldenrod, poinsettia, and chrysanthemum
	What are day-neutral plants?	Tomato and cucumber
	What is the determining factor in determining flowering of a long-day plant?	Actually, it’s a short-night.
	What is the determining factor in determining flowering of a short-day plant?	Long nights
	What are the two forms of phytochrome?	Pr (phytochrome red) 660 nm & Pfr (phytochrome far-red) 730 nm
	What color light does Pr absorb?	660 nm (red)
	What color light does Pfr absorb?	730 nm (far-red)
	What happens to Pr when it absorbs light?	It is converted to Pfr
	What does an abundance of Pr in the plant indicate?	Night or that stem elongation is needed to “reach the sunlight”
	Define etiolation.	Increase in stem length in an attempt to “reach the sunlight”
	What structure in plants is produced by meiosis?	Megaspores and microspores
	What is a microspore?	Pollen precursor; the male gamete
	What is a megaspore?	Egg precursor, the female gamete
	What is a peduncle?	Stem – flower stalk; expands into the receptacle
	What is a calyx?	The sepals collectively; the outermost flower whorl
	What is a corolla?	The petals collectively; usually the conspicuously colored flower whorl
	What is a androecium?	Male parts; stamen (anther and filament)
	What is a gynoecium?	Female parts; carpel (pistil – stigma, style, ovary and ovule)
	What is a pistil?	Female reproductive structure of a flower; composed of one or more carpels and consisting of stigma, style, and ovary
	What is a simple ovary?	One chamber
	What is a compound ovary?	More than one chamber
	What are monoecious plants?	Species with both male and female parts on the same plant
	What are dioecious plants?	Species in which staminate flowers and carpellate flowers are on separate plants
	What two types of cell are in a pollen grain?	Tube cell nucleus (becomes the pollen tube) and generative cell (becomes two sperm)
	What does the generative cell become once pollination takes place?	Two sperm cells
	What is an embryo sac?	Mature female gametophyte; consists of 7 cells: one egg, two synergid cells, one central cell with two polar nuclei, and three antipodal cells
	What is an egg cell?	Becomes the embryo
	What are polar nuclei?	Precursor to the 3n endosperm
	What is pollination?	Transfer of pollen from an anther to the stigma of a carpel
	What is fertilization?	Union of gametes to make diploid or triploid cell
	Describe how the tube cell nucleus and the generative cell both contribute to fertilization.	They become the 3n endosperm which serves as food for the growing embryo
	What is double fertilization?	1 sperm goes to fertilize the egg and the other goes to make the 3n endosperm
	What is the ploidy of the sperm cell?	N
	What is the ploidy of the egg cell?	N
	What is the ploidy of the embryo?	2n
	What is the ploidy of the endosperm?	3n
	Why won’t bees normally pollinate red flowers?	Can’t see red.
	What part of the electromagnetic spectrum can bees see that we can’t?	UV
	What are nectar guides?	UV markings guiding bees to the nectar
	Describe a flower typically pollinated by butterflies.	Brightly colored, no perfume, composites broad enough to land on; day blooming with slender floral tubes
	Describe a flower typically pollinated by moths.	Long tubes; smell good, light colored night-blooming
	Describe a flower typically pollinated by hummingbirds.	Day flowering tubular with recurved petals and brightly colored
	What is the stage of embryo development in dicots when the embryo is a spherical mass?	Globular stage
	What stage is it when the cotyledons start to form?	Heart stage
	What happens to the endosperm when a dicot seed matures?	Disappears as the embryo grows (it is consumed as food)
	What is a berry?	(grape, muscadine, tomato, bell pepper); simple fruit (develops from a single ovary) flexhy with compound ovary, the exocarp becomes the skin
	What type of fruit is developed from a compound ovary with the receptacle becoming a tough rind?	Pepo (berrylike accessory fruit, receptacle fused with the ovary)(squash, pumpkin, watermelon, and cucumber)
	What type of fruit is developed from a compound ovary with the receptacle becoming the fleshy edible part of the fruit?	Pome (apple, pear, rose)
	What type of fruit is derived from a simple ovary, with the endocarp becoming a pit?	Drupe (plum, cherry, peach, olive, blackberry)
	What type of fruit has juice sacs?	Hesperidium (lemons and oranges)
	What’s the difference between aggregate fruits and multiple fruits?	Aggregate – ovaries are from a single flower; Multiple fruits – ovaries are from separate flowers.
	Animal that has no body cavity (i.e., tapeworm)	acoelomate
	Kingdom of animals	Animalia
	Dissimilar in corresponding parts of organs on opposite sides of the body that are normally alike in symmetrical animals	asymmetrical
	Body plan having two corresponding or complementary halves	bilateral symmetry
	Having a well-recognized anterior head with a brain and sensory receptors	cephalization
	Member of the phylum Platyhelminthes (flatworm); tapeworms that are intestinal parasites of vertebrate hosts	cestode
	Invertebrate in the phylum Cnidaria existing as either a polyp or medusa with two tissue layers and radial symmetry	cnidarian
	Body cavity lying between the digestive tract and body wall that is completely lined by mesoderm	coelom
	Animal possessing a coelom (body cavity) completely lined by mesoderm (e.g., protostomes and deuterostomes).	coelomate
	Member of the phylum Ctenophora; free-swimming marine invertebrates	comb jelly
	In protists and invetebrates, resting stage that contains reproductive bodies or embryos	cyst
	Group of coelomate animals in which the second embryonic opening is associated with the mouth; the first embryonic opening, the blasopore, is associated with the anus.	deutorostome
	In cnidarians, when both body forms (polyp and medusa) are present	dimorphic
	A swelling of the limbs due to blockage of lymphatic vessles by parasitic filarial roundworms	elephantiasis
	Member of the phylum Platyhelminthes (e.g., tapeworms, planarians)	flatworm
	Blind digestive cavity in animals that have a sac body plan	gastrovascular cavity
	Disease in dogs caused by the filarial worm, a roundworm; worms live in the heart and arteries that serve the lungs	heartworm disease
	Type of animal that has both male and female sex organs	hermaphroditic
	Freshwater member of phylum Cnidaria	hydra
	Animal without endoskeleton of bone or cartilage	invertebrate
	Among snicarians, bell-shaped body form that is directed downward and contains much mesoglea.	medusa
	Jellylike layer between the epideermis and the gastrodermis of a cnidarian	mesoglea
	In cnidarians, a capsule that contains a threadlike fiber, the release of which aids in the capture of prey.	nematocyst
	Diffuse, noncentralized arrangement of nerve cells in cnidarians	nerve net
	Member of phylum Cnidaria; common colonial hydrozoan found in brackish water or the ocean.	Obelia
	Among cnidarians, body form that is directed upward and contains much mesoglea; in anatomy, small, abnormal growth that arises from the epithelial lining.	polyp
	Segment of a tapeworm that contains both male and female sex organs and becomes a bag of eggs	proglottid
	Group of coelomate animals in which the first embryonic opening (the blasopore) is associated with the mouth	protostome
	Animal possessing a coelom (body cavity) incompletely lined by mesoderm (i.e., roundworms)	pseudocoelomate
	Body plan in which similar parts are arranged around a central axis, like spokes of a wheel.	radial symmetry
	Marine invertebrate of the phylum Nemertea having a distinctive proboscis apparatus	ribbon worm
	Member of phylum Rotiferea; rotifers are primarily freshwater organisms	rotifer
	Member of the phylum Nematoda with a cylindrical body that has a complete digestive tract and a pseudocoelom; some forms are free-living in water and soil, and many are parasitic	roundworm
	Disease caused by the blood flke, a parasitic flatworm of the phylum Platyhelminthes	schistosomiasis
	Tapeworm head region; contains hooks and suckers for attachment to host.	scolex
	Repetition of body units as seen in the earthworm	segmentation
	Tending to stay in one place	sessile
	Animal that stays in one place and filters small food particles from the water (e.g., sponge)	sessile filter feeder
	Skeletal structure of sponges composed of calcium carbonate or silicate	spicule
	Invertebrate animal of the phylum Porifera; pore-bearing filter feeder whose inner body wall is lined by collar cells	sponge
	Collabenous fibers found in the body wall of sponges	spongin
	Member of the phylum Platyhelminthes (flatworm); ectoparasitic or endoparasitic flukes	trematode
	Serious infection caused by parasitic roundworm of the phylum Nematoda whose larvae encyst in muscles	trichinosis
	Member of the phylum Platyhelminthes (flatworm); free-living aquatic planarians and their relatives	tubellarian
	Chordate in which the notochord is replaced by a vertebral column.	vertebrate
	Member of a phylum of invertebrates (phylum Annelida) that contains segmented worms, such as the earthworm and the clam worm	annelid
	Member of a phylum of invertebrates (phylum Arthropoda) that contains, among other groups, crustaceans and insects, which have an exoskeleton and jointed appendages	arthropod
	Type of mollusc with a shell composed of two valves; includes clams, oysters, and scallops	bivalve
	Elongated arthropod characterized by having one pair of legs to each body segment; they may have 15 to 173 pairs of legs	centipede
	Type of mollusc in which a modified foot develops into the head region; includes squids, cuttlefish, octopuses, and nautiluses	cephalapod
	Fused head and thorax found in decapods (shrimps, lobsters, crayfish, and crabs)	cephalothorax
	Group of arthropods (e.g., horseshoe crabs, sea spiders, arachnids), which have a pair of appendages in the form of pinchers or fangs	chelicerate
	Strong but flexible nitrogenous polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of arthropods	chitin
	Body cavity lying between the digestive tract and body wall that is completely lined by mesoderm	coelom
	Member of a group of marine arthropods that contains, among others, shrimps, crabs, crayfish, and lobsters	crustacean
	Type of crustacean in which the thorax bears five pairs of walking legs; includes shrimps, lobsters, crayfish, and crabs	decapod
	Group of coelomate animals in which the second embryonic opening is associated with the mouth; the first embryonic opening, the blastopore, is associated with the anus	deuterostome
	Phylum of marine animals that includes sea stars, sea urchins, and sand dollars; characterized by radial symmetry and a water vascular system	echnioderm
	Body cavity that forms by the fusion of a pair of mesodermal pouches from the wall of the primitive gut	enterocoelom
	Protective external skeleton, as in arthropods	exoskeleton
	Mollusc with a broad, flat foot for crawling (e.g., snails and slugs)	gastropod
	Residual coelom found in arthropods, which is filled with hemolymph	hemocoel
	Type of arthropod. The head has antennae, compound eyes, and simple eyes; the thorax has three pairs of legs and often wings; and the abdomen has internal organs	insect
	Blood-sucking annelid, usually found in fresh water, with a sucker at each end of a segmented body	leech
	Blind, threadlike excretory tubule near the anterior end of an insect's hindgut	Malpighian tubule
	In molluscs, an extension of the body wall that may secrete a shell	mantle
	Change in shape and form that some animals, such as insects, undergo during development	metamorphosis
	More or less cylindrical arthropod characterized by having two pairs of short legs on most of its body segments; may have 13 to almost 200 pairs of legs	millipede
	Member of the phylum Mollusca, which includes squids, clams, snails, and chitons; characterized by a visceral mass, a mantle, and a foot	mollusc
	Periodic shedding of the exoskeleton in arthropods	molt
	Segmentally arranged, paired excretory tubules of many invertebrates, as in the earthworm	nephridium (pl., nephridia)
	Inveretebrate member of the phylum Annelida; characterized by body segmentationand the presence of setae (e.g., earthworms)	oligochaete
	Invertebrate member of the phylum Annelida; marine organisms characterized by the presence of many setae (e.g., tube worms and clam worms)	polychaete
	Group of coelomate animals in which the first embryonic opening (the blastopore) is associated with the mouth	protostome
	Tonguelike organ found in molluscs that bears rows of tiny teeth, which point backward; used to obtain food	radula
	In protostomes, coelom formed by splitting of the embryonic mesoderm	schizocoelom
	Invertebrate member of the phylum Echinodermata; characterized by water vascular system and tube feet (also called starfish)	sea star
	A needlelike, chitinous bristle in annelids, arthropods, and others	seta (pl., setae)
	In insecs, air tubes located between the spiracles and the tracheoles. In tetrapod vertebrates, air tube (windpipe) that runs between the larynx and the bronchi	trachea (pl., tracheae)
	Part of the water vascular system in sea stars, located on the oral surface of each arm, functions in locomotion	tube foot
	Expanded dorsal surface of long intestine of earthworms, allowing additional surface for absorption	typhlosole
	Members of animal phylum Arthropoda that includes centipedes, millipeds, and insects	uniramians
	Series of canals that takes water to the tube feet of an echinoderm, allowing them to expand	water vascular system
	Animals are (1) heterotophic, (2) motile for at least a portion of their life cycle, (3) haploid only in the gamete stage of the life cycle, (4) always diploid as adults, with meiosis producing gametes vice spores in plants, (4) reproduction in general is sexual with embryos that usually have well-defined developmental stages	Name five characteristics common to most animals.
	Criteria include (1) organization of tissues, (2) type of symmetry, (3) body plan, (4) type of coelom, (5) segmentation, and (6) molecular data	List and describe five different criteria used for classifying animal phyla.
	Tissues in animals may be organized as (1) cellular level (e.g., sponges; not true tissues), (2) diploblastic (two germ layers – ectoderm and endoderm, e.g., jellyfish), (3) triploblastic (three germ layers – ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm)	List and describe three ways tissues may be organized in animals.
	Diploblasts have (1) ectoderm, and (2) endoderm	Name two different types of germ tissues in diploblasts.
	Triploblasts have (1) ectoderm, (2) mesoderm, and (3) endoderm	Name three different types of germ tissues in triploblasts.
	Radial symmetry produces two identical halves if cut in two through the center in any direction (e.g., starfish)	Define radial symmetry.
	Bilateral symmetry produces two identical halves only if cut through the center in one direction – along the axis of symmetry (e.g., humans)	Define bilateral symmetry.
	The two body plans are (1) Sac and (2) Tube within a tube; In the sac body plan, there is only one opening for food going both ways (e.g., jellyfish and tapeworms). In the tube within a tube body plan, food goes in one way and out the other	Describe the two different body plans and differentiate between the two.
	A coelom is a body cavity other than the digestive cavity (e.g., chest cavity)	What is a coelom?
	A pseudocoelom is a gap between the endoderm and the mesoderm	What is pseudocoelom?
	Coelom criteria apply only to triploblasts	In what type of organization of tissues would a coelom be found?
	Coelom criteria apply only to triploblasts	In what type of organization of tissues would a pseudocoelom be found?
	A protostome is a classification of animals in which the first embryonic opening (blastophore) becomes the mouth	Define protostome.
	A classification of animals in which the first embryonic opening (the blastopore) becomes the anus, while the second opening becomes the mouth.	Define deuterostome.
	Cellular	What is the organization of tissues in sponges?
	None	What type of symmetry occurs in sponges?
	N/A	What type of body plan occurs in sponges?
	N/A	What type of coelom occurs in sponges?
	No	Are sponges segmented?
	Spongocoel	What is the central opening of a sponge called?
	Osculum	What is the large pore at the top of that opening called?
	Sponges have (1) epidermal cells, (2) amoebocytes, and (3) collar cells	Name three types of cells in sponges.
	Epidermal cells cover the outside of the sponge’s body; they may have contractile fibers.	What is the function of the epidermal cells in sponges?
	On the outside of the sponge’s body.	Where would you find epidermal cells in sponges?
	Collar cells assist with the feeding function in sponges. They are flagellated, and produces currents that force water through the sponges.	What is the function of the collar cells in sponges?
	Collar cells line the spongocoel.	Where would you find collar cells in sponges?
	Amoebocytes are the semi-fluid middle layer of cells in a sponge with many function in communication and transport.	What is the function of the amoebocytes in sponges?
	Amoebocytes are between the epidermal cells and the collar cells	Where would you find amoebocytes in sponges?
	Spicules are skeletal support cells produced by amoebocytes in sponges.	What is a spicule?
	The phylum porifera (sponges) is divided into three classes based on types of spicule: (1) chalk sponges with calcium carbonate spicules, (2) glass sponges with silica spicules, and (3) bath sponges with spongin spicules (spongin is a protein)	List and describe three types of spicules in sponges.
	Calcium carbonate spicules are found in chalk sponges, silica spicules are found in glass sponges, and sponging spicules are found in bath sponges	Name the types of sponges each type of spicule might be found in.
	No	Do sponges have nerves?
	Budding is the type of asexual reproduction performed by sponges. A small bud develops near the base of the parent. The bud grows and develops adult form.	Describe asexual reproduction in sponges.
	Amoebocytes in the sponge undergo meiosis to become gametes.	In sponge sexual reproduction, which type of cell becomes the gametes?
	Sponge amoebocytes undergo meiosis to produce egg and sperm. The eggs are retained in the sponge’s body wall.	Where are sponge eggs?
	Larvae are the motile phase of the sponge life cycle. The free-swimming larval stage disperses the sponge population. The larvae eventually attach to a substrate and begin development into adult form.	Describe sponge larvae.
	Diploblast with endoderm and ectoderm	What is the organization of tissues in Ctenophores?
	Radial symmetry	What type of symmetry occurs in Ctenophores?
	Sac	What type of body plan occurs in Ctenophores?
	None	What type of coelom occurs in Ctenophores?
	No	Are Ctenophores segmented?
	Freshwater and marine organisms that are suspended on or near the surface of the water; includes phytoplankton and zooplankton.	What is plankton?
	The ability of some organisms to produce their own light.	Define bioluminescence.
	Ctenophore tentacles capture food.	What is the function of the tentacles of Ctenophores?
	Diploblast	What is the organization of tissues in Cnidarians?
	Radial	What type of symmetry occurs in Cnidarians?
	Sac	What type of body plan occurs in Cnidarians?
	None	What type of coelom occurs in Cnidarians?
	No	Are Cnidarians segmented?
	Two basic body forms are seen among cnidarians: (1) polyp, with a mouth directed upward, and (2) medusa, with the mouth directed downward.	Name and describe the two body forms common in Cnidarians.
	Specialized stinging cells (from which the term cnidaria is derived) in the tentacles or body wall	What are cnidocytes?
	Cnidocils are the triggers for releasing cnidocytes	What are cnidocils?
	A nematocyst is a fluid-filled capsule with a cnidocyte that contains a long, spirally coiled hollow thread.	What are nematocysts?
	Adult cnidarians have epidermis and gastrodermis	Name the two tissue types in adult Cnidarians.
	A jelly-like substance called mesoglea separates gastodermis from epidermis	What separates the epidermis from the gastrodermis in Cnidarians?
	Yes. Cnidarians have nerve cells below the epidermis near the mesoglea, interconnecting to form a nerve net throughout the body.	Do Cnidarians have nerves?
	The sessile polyp stage produces medusa by asexual budding.	Describe asexual reproduction in Cnidarians.
	The three classes of cnidarians are (1) Class Anthozoa, aka flower animals, in which the medusa is absent from the life cycle; examples are sea anemones and corals; (2) Class Hydrozoa, the polyp stage is dominant; examples include freshwater hydra, Obelia, and Portuguese Man O’ War; (3) Class Scyphoza, the medusa stage is dominant; it includes the true jellyfishes	List and describe three classes of Cnidarians.
	Hydra is in Class Hydrozoa	In which class is Hydra?
	Obelia is in Class Hydrozoa	In which class is Obelia?
	Cnidarians generate ciliated planula larvae, which emerge from the zygote stage, and swim around before settling down to become new polyps.	What type of larvae is formed from sexual reproduction in Cnidarians?
	Obelia, a colony of feeding polyps and reproductive polyps, undergoes an alteration of generations life cycle, which includes polyps and medusa. The medusa generation is the one that reproduces sexually.	Which phase of the Obelia life cycle reproduces sexually?
	Each medusa produces either eggs or sperm. Each zygote eventually develops into free-swimming planula larvae that attach to a substrate and found a new colony of polyps.	What is the result of sexual reproduction in Obelia?
	In hydrozoa, the polyp phase is dominant.	Which phase in dominant in the hydrozoa?
	In scyphozoan, the medusa is the dominant stage.	Which phase is dominant in the scyphozoa?
	Jellyfish have ocelli (light-sensing spots) and statocysts (gravity-sensing cells)	Name and describe two types of sensing organs in jellyfish.
	Sea anemones and corals are two types of anthozoa. The medusa stage is completely absent. Polyps may be solitary (anemones) or colonial (generally corals). Anemones are sessile and may form mutualistic relationships with other species, such as hermit crabs. Corals resemble anemones encased in a calcareous house.	Name and describe two types of anthozoa.
	The medusa stage is completely absent in anthozoa.	Which stage is absent in the anthozoa?
	Most coral reefs are in shallow water because of the symbiotic relationships with single-celled algae, which requires access to sunlight.	Why are most coral reefs in shallow water?
	Nemertea are triploblastic, and adults demonstrate the organ level of organization.	What is the organization of tissues in Nemertea?
	Nemertea have bilateral symmetry	What type of symmetry occurs in Nemertea?
	Nemertea have a tube-within-a-tube body plan	What type of body plan occurs in Nemertea?
	Nemertea are traditionally considered to be acoelomates.	What type of coelom occurs in Nemertea?
	No	Are Nemertea segmented?
	Neotony is the retention by adults of a species of traits previously seen only in juveniles.	Define neotony.
	Ribbon worms are thought to have developed from cnidarians through neotony.	What are ribbon worms thought to have developed from?
	Platyhelminthes are triploblastic.	What is the organization of tissues in Platyhelminthes?
	Bilateral symmetry	What type of symmetry occurs in Platyhelminthes?
	Platyhelminthes have a sac body plan	What type of body plan occurs in Platyhelminthes?
	None	What type of coelom occurs in Platyhelminthes?
	No	Are Platyhelminthes segmented?
	Flatworms	What are Platyhelminthes commonly called?
	Three classes of Platyhelminthes include (1) Turbellaria (free-living, e.g., planaria); (2) trematoda (parasitic, e.g., flukes); and (3) cestoda (also parasitic, e.g., tapeworms)	Name three classes of Platyhelminthes.
	Turbellarians are capable of both sexual and asexual reproduction. (1) transverse fission is asexual reproduction in which the planaria constricts the body near the pharynx and splits in two; (2) hermaphroditic or monoecious sexual reproduction in which cross-fertilization is accomplished by inserting a muscular penis into a genital pore	Describe two means of reproduction in turbellarians.
	An anterior collection of nerve cells constitutes the turbellarian’s “brain,” which is capable of simple learning and instinctive behavior. Paired lateral nerve cords run from the brain down the length of the body. Transverse nerves connect the two subsystems.	Describe the nervous system of turbellarians.
	Cephalization means the development of a prominent head.	What is cephalization?
	Ocelli are light-sensing organs or eyespots.	What are ocelli?
	The part of an animal known popularly as the “throat” in between the mouth and the opening of the gastric tract.	What is a pharynx?
	A planarian (a type of turbellarian) captures food by wrapping itself around the prey, entangling it in slime, and pinning it down. Then a muscular pharynx is extended, and by a sucking motion, the food is torn up and swallowed. The pharynx feeds into a three-branched gastrovascular cavity in which digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.	Describe the gastrovascular system of turbellarians.
	Monoecious	Are planarians monoecious or dioecious?
	The excretory organs of the flatworm are called flame cells. They are bulblike structures containing beating cilia so that an early investigator was reminded of the flickering of a flame – and so named it a flame cell.	What are flame cells?
	We normally call trematodes “flukes”	What do we normally call members of the class Trematoda?
	Flukes and tapeworms are covered by a protective tegument, which is a specialized body covering resistant to host digestive juices.	How is the body covering of flukes modified?
	Eggs passed out of human hosts hatch into ciliated larvae, called mircidia, that find a secondary host: a particular species of snail. Asexual reproduction generates sporocysts, which are spore-containing sacs, which eventually become new larval forms, called cercariae that leave the snail – seeking the next human host.	Differentiate between the two different larval forms in Schistosoma.
	From the blood fluke (Schistosoma). If the larvae penetrate the skin of a human, they begin to mature in the liver and implant themselves in the small intestinal blood vessels. The flukes and their eggs can cause dysentery, anemia, bladder inflammation, brain damage, and sever liver complications. Infected persons usually die of secondary diseases brought on by their weakened condition.	How would a person acquire schistosomiasis?
	Adult Schistosoma flukes live in their human hosts; having developed in the liver and finally implanting themselves in the small intestinal blood vessels.	Where do adult Schistosoma flukes live?
	The eggs are deposited in small blood vessels close to the lumen of the intestine, and make their way into the digestive tract by a slow migratory process.	Where do the eggs wind up?
	A particular species of snail is the alternate host of Schistosoma.	What’s the alternate host of Schistosoma?
	A snail, and a fish are the two alternate hosts of the Chinese liver fluke (C. sinensis)	What are two alternate hosts of Chinese liver fluke?
	Members of class Cestoda are normally called tapeworms.	What do we normally call members of class Cestoda?
	A scolex is the modified head region of the tapeworm. It contains hooks for attachment to the intestinal wall of the host and suckers for feeding.	Define Scolex.
	Proglottids are a series of reproductive units found behind the scolex; they contain a full set of female and male sex organs. Importantly, proglottids are NOT segments, and therefore are not evidence of evolution to segmented bodies.	Define proglottid.
	The scolex of a tapeworm contains hooks for attachment to the intestinal wall of the host and suckers for feeding.	Describe two types of structures on the scolex of a tapeworm.
	Proglottids facilitate sexual reproduction in tapeworms. They contain both male and female sex organs. After fertilization, the organs within a proglottid disintegrate and become filled with mature eggs, at which point the proglottid is called a gravid.	What’s the function of a proglottid?
	Immature proglottids are newly formed from the base of the scolex with no obvious internal structure.	What are immature proglottids?
	Mature proglottids are filled with male and female reproductive organs; portions of nonfunctional intestine are present so there is no need to ingest food, which is instead absorbed from the host’s gut.	What are mature proglottids?
	In the gravid proglottid, the uterus is highly expanded and full of eggs – gravid proglottids are released to pass in the host’s feces.	What are gravid proglottids?
	Tapeworm eggs are disseminated via the host’s feces	How are tapeworm eggs disseminated?
	Pigs	What is the alternate host (usually) for tapeworms?
	Cestoda larvae develop into a “bladderworm” stage or cysticercus larvae. When the intermediate host is eaten in a raw or poorly cooked state, the bladderworm is digested out.	What’s a bladderworm?
	Cystercercosis is a condition that results when the human ingests tapeworm eggs. The human then replaces the pig as the intermediate host. Serious medical complications, including blindness and heart failure can then result.	What is cysticercosis?
	Triploblastic, organ level of organization.	What is the organization of tissues in Rotifera?
	Rotifers have bilateral symmetry	What type of symmetry occurs in Rotifera?
	Tube-within-a-tube	What type of body plan occurs in Rotifera ?
	Rotifera are pseudocoelomates.	What type of coelom occurs in Rotifera?
	Rotifera are not segmented.	Are Rotifera segmented?
	Parthenogenesis is an asexual form of reproduction found in females where growth and development of embryos occurs without fertilization by a male. In rotifera, the polar bodies of meiosis serve as substitute sperm. Amictic eggs are used by rotifera to release diploid eggs by mitosis and produce more females. Mictic eggs are haploid eggs produced at meiosis with unfertilized eggs yielding males and fertilized eggs producing dormant females for the next season.	Define parthenogenesis.
	Triploblast; organ level of organization	What is the organization of tissues in Nematoda?
	Bilateral symmetry	What type of symmetry occurs in Nematoda?
	Tube-within-a-tube	What type of body plan occurs in Nematoda?
	Pseudocoelom	What type of coelom occurs in Nematoda?
	No	Are Nematoda segmented?
	Roundworms	What are members of the phylum Nematoda commonly called?
	Nematodes only have longitudinal muscles	What type of muscles do nematodes have?
	A cloaca is the posterior opening that serves as the only such opening for the intestinal, reproductive and urinary tracts of certain animal species. The word ceomes from Latin for sewer.	Define cloaca
	In nematodes, the excretory system is called a RENETTE SYSTEM, containing protonephridia without flagella. [Nephridia are invertebrate organs similar in function to kidneys. Protonephredia are networks of dead-end tubules lacking internal openings. The ends are called flame cells]. The interesting aspect about nematode nephridia is that they are unflagellated. A tubular type of excretory system is the most common among parasitic nematodes. It consists of a system of tues and one or two gland cells which have a joint excretory duct.	Describe the excretory system of nematodes.
	Nematodes have dorsal, ventral, and lateral nerve cords present in their nervous system.	Describe the nervous system of nematodes.
	Filarial nematodes, a type of roundworm, cause various diseases. Heartworms in dogs are caused by filarial worms. Filarial nematodes live in the blood or lymph vessels, or in the skin.	What are filarial nematodes?
	Elephantiasis is a disease caused by filarial nematodes	Name a disease caused by filarial nematodes.
	Guinea worms are parasitic nematodes that live just beneath the skin and can be treated by rolling them up on a stick.	What are Guinea worms and how are they removed?
	Hookworms are nematodes that live in the small intestine. They feed on blood and intestinal lining.	What are hook worms?
	Hookworms wait on soil for barefoot individuals to walk or crawl by. The hookworms penetrate the skin.	How are hook worms acquired?
	Hookworms mature in the lungs, then travel out of the lungs are are ingested into the colon by swallowing.	Where do hook worms mature?
	Adult hookworms mate in the colon, and eggs pass into the feces.	Where do hook worms mate?
	Advantages of a coelom include (1) a more stable arrangement of organs with less crowding; (2) Muscular gut wall, because muscles are derived from endoderm; (3) specialization of parts of the gut; (4) enabling of independent movement of body wall and internal organs; (5) storage area for eggs and sperm before release; (6) protecion of internal organs from shock and temperature changes by coelomic fluid; (7) assistance in respiration and circulation by coelomic fluid; (8) a hydrostatic skeleton	Describe 7 advantages of a coelom
	An organism whose blastopore becomes the mouth	What is a protostome?
	An organism whose blastopore becomes the anus	What is a deuterostome?
	Cell division without cell expansion	Define cleavage.
	The cleavage of a protostome is spiral and determinate	Describe the cleavage of a protostome.
	The cleavage of a deuterostome is radial and indeterminate	Describe the cleavage of a deuterostome.
	Determinate means the role of the cell has been determined	Define determinate.
	Indeterminate means the role of the cell has not been determined	Define indeterminate.
	Adaptations of land animals include (1) breathing air; (2) preventing dessication; (3) new means of locomotion; (4) new means of sexual reproduction; (5) excretion of solid nitrogenous wastes to help prevent dessication	List 5 adaptations of land animals.
	Mollusks have bodies typically divided into three general regions (1) visceral mass; (2) foot; (3) mantle	Mollusca
	Triploblast	What is the organization of tissues in Mollusca?
	Bilatereal	What type of symmetry occurs in Mollusca?
	Tube within a tube	What type of body plan occurs in Mollusca?
	Eucoelom	What type of coelom occurs in Mollusca?
	No	Are Mollusca segmented?
	The three general regions are (1) visceral mass which contains the reproductive, digestive and circulatory systems; (2) foot, which is a muscular organ of locomotion important in mollusk classification; and (3) mantle, which is a membrane that typically drapes over the visceral mass, producing the shell of those with shells and houses the gills	List and describe the three general body region of a mollusk.
	Cephalopoda	In which types of mollusk is there significant cephalization?
	Clams	What type of mollusk has a spade-like foot?
	Snails	What type of mollusk has a broad, flat foot?
	Squid, octopus, nautilus	What type of mollusk has a branched foot?
	Mollusks are the most primative phylum to have paired kidneys in their excretory system	Describe the excretory system of mollusks.
	Open, in which hemolymph (analog to blood) is pumped through sinuses by a heart under low pressure	Describe the circulatory system of mollusks.
	Hemolymph is the circulatory fluid of mollusks	What is hemolymph?
	Classes of mollusk include (1) bivalvia, which includes clams, oysters, mussels, etc. characterized by the presence of two-hinged shells surrounding the body; (2) cephalopoda, most advanced of the mollusk classes which includes squids octopus, cuttlefish and nautilus; and (3) gastropoda, which includes snails, slugs, whelks, conches, and nudibranches	List and describe three classes of mollusk.
	Trochophore larva	What type of larva is typical of bivalves?
	Snails and slugs	Name two types of gastropod.
	A file-like scraping organ in most mollusks, not including bivalves	What is a radula?
	Gasropod reproduction is hermaphroditic, so that when two meet they shoot calcareous darts into one another as a pre-mating ritual. Then each inserts its penis into the other's vagina. The hemaphrodism ensures that any two that meet can mate.	Describe gastropod reproduction.
	Cephalopods include (1) squid (2) octopus (3) cuttlefish and (4) natuilus	Name four types of cephalopod.
	Jet propulsion when the mantle is squeezed	What’s the purpose of a cephalopod’s funnel?
	Ink sac can eject a cloud of black ink for defense in retreat	Name another defensive adaptation of many cephalopods.
	Closed vascular system, meaning that blood is always enclosed within blood vessels or a heart	Describe the vascular system of cephalopods.
	Closed vascular system, meaning that blood is always enclosed within blood vessels or a heart	Describe the circulatory system of cephalopods.
	Three	How many hearts do cephalopods have?
	Packet of sperm deposited in mantle cavity of female. Development is direct with no free-swimming larval stages. The young hatch as miniature versions of the adult	Describe cephalopod reproduction.
	Like miniature adults	What do larval cephalopods look like?
	Porifera	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Different cell types
	Cnidaria & ctenophora	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Different tissue types
	Platyhelminthes and Nermertea	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Three tissue types
	Cnidaria	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Nerve net
	Cnidaria	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Light sensing organs
	Nemertea	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Complete digestive system (mouth to anus)
	Platyhelminthes	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Pronounced cephalization
	Platyhelminthes	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Brain
	Platyhelminthes	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Penis
	Nematoda & Rotifera	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Pseudocoelom
	Mollusca	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: Eucoelom
	Mollusca	What’s the most primitive phylum of animals with the following characteristic: True kidneys
	Neotony from planular larvae	Why do scientists believe ribbon worms developed from Cnidarians?
	Annelids and bivalves share a trocophore larvae	Why do scientists believe annelids developed from bivalves?
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, radial symmetry; diploblasts	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Cnidaria, Ctenophora
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Porifera, Rotifera
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues & germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Ctenophora, Nematoda
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers (triploblasts), and no body cavity	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Platyhelmenthes, Nemertea
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers (triploblasts)	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Nemertea, Nematoda
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers, body cavity, pesudocoelom	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Nematoda, Rotifera
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Rotifera, Cnidaria
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers, body cavity	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Mollusca, Nematoda
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Cnidaria, Mollusca
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Porifera, Platyhelmenthes
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Ctenophora, Mollusca
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Platyhelmenthes, Rotifera
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Nemertea, Mollusca, Nematoda
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Nematoda, Nemertea, Platyhelmenthes
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers, bilateral symmetry, three germ layers, body cavity	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Rotifera, Mollusca, Nematoda
	Ancestral protist, multicellularity, true tissues, germ layers	What do the following groups of Phyla have in common: Mollusca, Ctenophora, Platyhelmenthes
	Annelid: Organization of tissues	Triploblast
	Annelid: Type of symmetry	Bilateral symmetry
	Annelid: Body Plan	Tube-within-a-tube
	Annelid: Type of coelom	Eucoelom
	Annelid: Protostomes or Deuterostomes	Protostomes
	Annelid: Segmentation	Segmented
	What type of skeleton do annelids have?	None
	What structures separate the segments of annelids?	Septa
	What are nephridia?	Kidney-like organs
	What type of circulatory system do annelids have?	Closed circulatory system with paired blood vessels that run the length of the body to every segment and five hearts that pump the blood.
	How is gas exchange accomplished in annelids?	Gas exchange is through the body wall.
	Describe the nervous system of annelids.	Consists of a brain, a ventral nerve cord and ganglia in each segment
	What are setae?	Setae are small bristles or hair that occur on each segment. They function as locomotion for motile species and anchorage for sessile species
	List and describe three classes of annelids.	Three classes of annelids are (1) polychaeta, which are marine worms with bundles of setae attached to parapodia (paddle-like appendages) on most segments; (2) oligochaeta, which are primarily freshwater or terrestrial worms, like earthworms; and (3) hirudinea, which are leeches
	Name two different types of polychaetes.	Motile predators (like clam worms) and sessile filter feeders (like Christmas tree worms)
	What are parapodia?	parapodia are paddle-like appendages that function in locomtion for motile species, anchorage in sessile species, and gas exchange for some species
	Name an annelid with obvious cephalization.	clam worms are annelids with obvious cephalization
	Describe the feeding pattern of clam worms.	clam worms are motile polychaetes that use powerful jaws to prey on crustaceans and other small animals
	Describe the feeding pattern of tube worms.	tube worms are sessile polychaetes with long ciliated tentacles which form a fan. The cilia direct food into the mouth
	Describe the reproduction of clam worms.	Possess reproductive organs just during breeding season; many worms coordinate to shed a portion of their bodies, which contain either eggs or sperm, which float to the surface where fertilization takes place, resulting in trocophore larvae, which suggest relatedness to molluscs
	What is an epitoke?	A gamete-producing part of the body that is shed during the reproductive process to float or swim to the water surface in fertilization swarms.
	What type of larvae do clam worms produce? What is the evolutionary significance of this?	Trocophore larvae, whose evolutionary significance is the suggestion of relatedness to bivalve molluscs
	What is an oligochaete?	Freshwater and terrestrial annelids, such as earthworms, that have few setae, and no parapodia
	Describe the feeding pattern of earthworms.	Earthworms have a specialized gut for feeding on dead organic matter in the soil; this includes pharynx, crop, gizzard, and a long gut with typhlosole that increases surface area for absorption; waste is eliminated through anus as casts.
	Describe the reproduction of oligochaetes.	Hermaphroditic sexual reproduction; clitellum band two worms together with thick bands of mucuous; the sperm is transferred from the seminal vessicles of one animal to the seminal receptacles of the other through mucous channels. When the worms separate, the clitellum secretes another band of mucous to slip over the head end; the egg and sperm are deposited in this band, which is now a cocoon full of fertilized eggs that hatch into tiny earthworms.
	What is the Clitellum, and what is its function?	the clitellum is a thickened glandular section of the body wall that secretes a viscid sac in which eggs are deposited.
	What do we commonly call members of the class Hirudinea?	Leeches
	What is hirudin?	anticoagulant produced by leeches
	Arthropods: Organization of tissues	triploblast
	Arthropods: Type of symmetry	bilateral
	Arthropods: Body Plan	tube-within-a-tube
	Arthropods: Type of coelom	eucoelom
	Arthropods: Protostomes or Deuterostomes	protostomes
	Arthropods: Segmentation	yes
	List the five characteristics that make the arthropods so successful.	Characteristics contributing to arthropod success include (1) jointed chitin exoskeleton; (2) segmentation for specialization; (3) well-developed nervous system; (4) a variety of respiratory organs, and (5) metamorphosis
	Of what material is the arthropod exoskeleton made?	chitin
	What is molting?	molting is the process of shedding an exoskeleton to enable the organism to grow
	Describe the nervous system of arthropods.	Very annelid-like; consists of well-developed brain, ventral nerve cord and ganglia in each segment; two kinds of eyes are present in most arthropods
	What two kind of eyes do arthropods have?	simple eyes (ocelli) and compound eyes (ommatidium)
	Define ocelli.	simple eyes, capable of some image formation, but not great for it.
	What is one element of a compound eye called?	ommatidium
	Describe four different types of respiratory organs in arthropods.	feathery gills; book gills; book lungs; spiracles (pores) and trachea
	What is metamorphosis?	Process in which the larval form changes its entire body form and physiology to become an adult
	What is an ecological advantage of metamorphosis?	adults and larvae do not compete with one another for food
	What type of circulatory system do most arthropods have?	generally open
	What color is insect hemolymph?	blue
	Name three subphyla of arthropods.	Three arthropod subphyla include (1) chelicerata in which the first pair of appendages are pincer-like mouth parts called chelicerae; (2) crustacea, which typically have 5 pairs of appendages on the head and two branches on each of the walking legs; (3) uniramia, with one-branched walking legs
	Name two classes of chelicerates.	arachnids (spiders, scorpions, mites, and ticks); and merostomata (horseshoe crabs and sea spiders)
	What are the major body regions of chelicerates?	cephalothorax and abdomen
	What are chelicerae?	the first pair of appendages are pincer-like mouth parts called chelicerae
	How many legs do chelicerates have?	eight
	To which body region are the legs of chelicerates attached?	cephalothorax
	Name and describe the respiratory organs in chelicerates.	book gills for water species and book lungs in terrestrial species
	What is the primary oxygen-carrying molecule in the hemolymph of chelicerates?	hemocyanin
	What are spinnerets and which chelicerates have them?	little spinners in spiders for making webs
	What are the major body regions of crustaceans?	large cephalothorax covered by a carapace, and a segmented abdomen
	What is a carapace?	large unjointed exoskeleton covering the cephalothorax in crustaceans
	How many appendages appear on the head of crustaceans?	the crustacean's cephalothorax typically has 5 pairs of biramous appendages, in which one branch is for locomotion and the other is a gill
	Name the appendages that appear on the head of crustaceans.	antennae, and attenules (sensory organs in front of the mouth), mandibles (jaws), first maxillae and second maxillae (that assist in feeding)
	How many legs do crustaceans have?	10
	To which body region are the legs of crustaceans attached?	cephalothorax
	Describe the legs of crustaceans.	biramous, meaning they have a locomotive branch and a respiratory branch
	What does biramous mean?	two-branched
	What are decapods?	10-legged animals such as lobster, crabs, crayfish, hermit crabs, and shrimp
	What is the primary oxygen-carrying molecule in the hemolymph of decapods?	hemocyanin
	What are the two main components of the decopod stomach?	gastric mill with chitin teeth behind the mouth, and cardiac stomach near the heart, with the enzymes for digestion
	What is the Green Gland?	the green gland extracts wastes from the hemolymph, and pumps them through a pore; it lies in the hemocoel beneath the brain
	Describe the nervous system of decapods.	Essentially identical to annelids, with brain, a ventral nerve cord and ganglia in each segment
	Describe the reproduction of decapods.	Ovaries open at bases of the 3d walking legs; sperm ducts opens between 5th pair of walking legs; male uses first pair of swimmerets to pass sperm from his sperm duct to the female's sperm receptacle – a stiff fold between 4th and 5th pair of walking legs; fertilized eggs are attached to female's swimmerets
	Does metamorphosis occur in decapods?	no, the young hatchlings are miniature adults
	What are the main body regions of uniramians?	head, thorax, abdomen
	How many appendages appear on the heads of uniramians?	3
	Describe the appendages that appear on the heads of uniramians.	Three pairs of appendages on the head: (1) antennae, (2) mandibles (3) maxillae
	Describe the legs of uniramians.	One branch, hence "uniramian" – "one branch"
	What does uniramous mean?	one branch
	Name three classes of uniramians.	insecta (insects); diplopoda (millipedes); chilopoda (centipedes)
	How many legs do insects have? To which body region are they attached?	6 legs attached to the abdomen
	How many wings do the typical insect have?	4 (two pair)
	What is an elytra?	forewings that are modified to protect the flying hindwings
	What is a tympanum and where is it located?	specialized membrane stretched across an empty space – used as a hearing organ; the location varies with the species and is used for classification; grasshoppers' are on the lateral surface of the first abdominal segment
	What are Malpighian tubules?	part of the excretory system which absorb nitrogenous wastes from the hemocoel and excrete them into the intestine
	Where do Malpighian tubules empty?	into the intestine
	Describe the insect respiratory system.	spiracles, which are pores in the body wall, lead to the trachea; the trachea branch often and the smallest branches end in moist areas where gas exchange can take place
	What is the primary oxygen-carrying molecule in the hemolymph of insects?	N/A. Gas exchange is direct via the trachea and spiracles
	What is a spiracle?	Pores in the body wall of insects, which lead to small tubules called trachea and are part of the respiratory function
	What is parthenogenesis?	Virgin birth – reproduction without sex
	What is incomplete metamorphosis?	the young are born as miniature versions of adults called nymphs, that transform into adults via a series of molts
	What event separates the instars in incomplete metamorphosis?	molting series
	What are the stages in complete metamorphosis of insects?	larvae (caterpillar), pupae (cocoon), adult (butterfly)
	What are chilopods?	centipedes
	Describe the feeding patterns of chilopods?	active predators that use poison fangs to stun and immobilize their prey
	What are diplopods?	millipedes
	Describe the feeding patterns of diplopods?	scavengers of dead organic material
	Echinodermata: Organization of tissues	triploblast
	Echinodermata: Type of symmetry	radial
	Echinodermata: Body Plan	tube-within-a-tube
	Echinodermata: Type of coelom	eucoelom
	Echinodermata: Protostomes or Deuterostomes	deuterostomes
	Echinodermata: Segmentation	no
	What does the blastopore become in echinoderms?	anus
	Describe cleavage in echinoderm embryos.	radial / indeterminate cleavage
	What is meant by pentamerous symmetry?	a distinctive 5-pointed radial symmetry
	Describe how echinoderm larvae differ from adults.	the larvae are bilaterally symmetrical
	What kind of skeleton do echinoderms have?	an endoskeleton of ossicles
	What are ossicles?	spiny, calcium-rich plates
	What is the water vascular system? What are tube feet?	consists of canals and appendages that function in locomotion, feeding, gas exchange, and sensory reception
	What is the class name of sea stars (starfish)?	class Astereoidea
	Do starfish have eyes? Describe them.	yes – of sorts; there's an eyespot at the end of each arm with some image formation
	Describe the feeding process of starfish.	pries open shells with its arms and then everses its cardiac stomach into the bivalve, secreting enzymes that begin digestion while the prey is still alive
	What is an eversible stomach?	an eversible stomach can be put into any small hole (for example, a cracked open bivalve shell)
	What is the class name of sea cucumbers?	holothuroida
	Describe the feeding process of sea cucumbers.	filter feeding or probing the mud
	What is evisceration?	a defense mechanism consisting of the expulsion of coelomic organs to ensnare the predator
	What is the class name of sea urchins and sand dollars?	echinoidea
	Describe the feeding process of sea urchins.	they use a very complex pentamerous jaw apparatus called Aristotle's Lantern which can gnaw into coral reefs
	What are crinoids and how do they feed?	feather stars and sea lilies; filter feeders
	Chordates: Organization of tissues	triploblast
	Chordates: Type of symmetry	bilateral symmetry
	Chordates: Body Plan	tube-within-a-tube
	Chordates: Type of coelom	eucoelom
	Chordates: Protostomes or Deuterostomes	deuterostomes
	Chordates: Segmentation	yes
	What are the three subphyla of chordates?	urochordata (sea squirts), cephalochordata (lancelets); vertebrata (back-boned animals)
	What characteristic differentiates lancelets and sea squirts from all other chordates?	no vertebrae
	What characteristic differentiates agnathans from chondrichthyes?	agnathans don't have jaws, while chondrichthyes do.
	What characteristic differentiates chondrichthyes from osteichthyes?	cartilage in chondrichthyes v. bones in osteichthyes
	What characteristic differentiates osteichthyes from amphibians?	osteichthyes have no limbs while amphibians have limbs
	What characteristic differentiates amphibians from reptiles?	reptiles have amniotic eggs while amphibian eggs require water
	What characteristic differentiates reptiles from birds?	feathers in birds
	What characteristic differentiates mammals from reptiles and birds?	hair and mammary glands differentiate mammals from reptiles and birds
	What are the four unique characteristics that all chordates share?	Four characteristics unique to chordates are (1) notochord, (2) dorsal tubular nerve cord, (3) pharyngeal gill pouches, and (4) post-anal tail
	What replaces the notochord in vertebrates?	vertebral column
	What replaces the dorsal hollow nerve cord in vertebrates?	the brain and spinal cord
	What happens to the pharyngeal pouches in humans?	the first pair of pouches become the auditory tubes, the second become tonsils, the third pair becomes the thymus and the fourth pair becomes the parathyroid glands
	What are urochordates?	"sea squirts," mostly small filter feeders in shallow marine waters or reefs
	What kind of larvae do urochordates have?	"tadpole" larvae that probably gave rise to the rest of the chordates via neotony
	What is the evolutionary significance of the larvae of urochordates?	They probably gave rise to the rest of the chordates via neotony
	What are cephalochordates?	Cephalochordates have a notochord that persists into adulthood. The notochord extends from the tail to the head, accounting for the name of this subphylum.
	Of what evolutionary significance are cephalochordates?	These animals represent the vestiges of early chordate evolution, with many evolutionists
	Name eight characteristics of vertebrates.	Characteristics of vertebrates include: (1) spinal cord (nerve cord) replaced by vertebrae, (2) living endoskeleton that grows with the animal, (3) rapid and efficient movement, (4) closed circulatory system, (5) usually paired appendages, (6) efficient respiration and excretion, (7) high degree of cephalization to support an active lifestyle, (8) usually dioecious sexual reproduction
	What are agnathans?	Jawless fishes including lampreys and hagfishes.
	What is the agnathan skeleton like?	They lack a bony skeleton
	How do agnathans feed?	Hagfish are scavengers while lampreys are filter feeders and parasites
	What does the body of an agnathan look like?	Cylindrical body form up to 1 m long
	What are Chondrichtyes?	Cartilaginous fish like sharks
	What distinguishes Chondrichthyes from Agnatha?	Jaws
	What is the chondrichthyes skeleton like?	Cartilaginous
	Describe the gills of chondrichthyes.	Chondrichthyes gills lack gill covers.
	Describe the scales of a shark.	Shark scales are placoid (tooth-like).
	Why are there so many shark tooth fossils?	Shark teeth are enlarged scales, continually growing
	What is the lateral line system of sharks?	The lateral line system is a series of pressure-sensitive cells that lie within canals along both sides of the body.
	What sense do sharks have that we lack?	The ability to sense electrical currents.
	What are osteichthyes?	Bony fish
	What is the skin of osteichthyes like?	Scaly
	What are the gills of osteichthyes like?	Covered
	What is an operculum?	The cover for a gill
	Describe the circulatory system of osteichthyes.	Bony fish have a closed, single-loop ciculatory system with a two-chambered heart.
	What are the two general kinds of bony fishes?	Ray-finned bony fish and lobe-finned bony fish.
	Which kind of bony fish is most common?	Ray-finned
	Describe the reproduction and early development of most fishes.	Sperm and eggs are shed into the water.
	What is a swim bladder?	A gas-filled sac whose pressure can be altered to regulate buoyancy and depth.
	What differentiates lobe-finned fish from ray-finned fish?	Fleshy fins supported by central bones (v. bony rays)
	What is the evolutionary significance of lobe-finned fish?	Considered ancestral to amphibians.
	What are lungfish?	Lobe-finned fish with primitive lungs
	What are amphibians?	ectothermic tetrapods that live on land and in water; the name refers to the need for amphibians to return to water during their life cycle
	What characteristic differentiates osteichthyes from amphibians?
	How do you differentiate the frogs and toads from the newts and salamanders?	salamanders and newts have elongated bodies and move with a sinusoidal movement similar to a swimming fish while frogs and toads jump and are tailless
	Describe the amphibian circulatory system.	Closed, double-loop circulatory system with a three-chambered heart; oxygen rich and poor blood mix.
	Describe the skin of amphibians.	Thin, smooth, and mucousy to play an active role in respiration to supplement the limited capability of the circulatory system.
	Why is amphibian skin usually moist?	To facilitate gas exchange in support of respiration.
	What are poison dart frogs?	Frogs who exude a protective toxin, used by indigenous people to tip darts used for hunting.
	What does ectothermic mean?	Depend on environmental temperatures to regulate their body temperatures.
	What does torpor mean?	An inactive, hibernation-like state.
	Describe the reproduction of salamanders.	Salamanders practice internal fertilization; in most, males produce a sperm-containing spermatophore that females pick up with their cloaca. Then the eggs are laid in water or on land, depending on the species.
	Describe the reproduction of American Toads.	External fertilization; males establish territories and being calls; they use the "amplexus" posture and conduct external fertilization. Males have a "release call" to stop an inadvertant mounting by another male.
	What environmental requirement do amphibian eggs have?	They need water.
	Describe metamorphosis in amphibians.	Gills are replaced by lungs, hind legs and then front legs develop.
	What is the respiratory mechanism in amphibian larvae?	gills
	What is the respiratory mechanism in amphibian adults?	lungs
	What is the locomotion mechanism in amphibian larvae?	Swimming (tail)
	What is the locomotion mechanism in amphibian adults?	Hopping (legs)
	What are amniotes?	Protection for the embryo, particularly from dessication; the amniotic egg contains extraembryonic membranes, which protect the embryo, remove nitrogenous wastes, and provid ethe embryo with oxygen, food, and water; one of the membranes, the amnion, is a sac ethat fills with fluid and provid "private pond" within which the embryo develops
	What’s the advantage of amniotic eggs?	Protection, especially from dessication, which is a terretrial adaptation
	Why do most biologists consider reptilian a paraphyletic class?	Birds are more closely related to crocodiles than lizards are
	Are lizards more closely related to snakes or crocodiles?	Lizards are more closely related to snakes than crocodiles
	Are crocodiles more closely related to lizards or birds?	Crocodiles are more closely related to birds than lizards
	Are lizards more closely related to birds or turtles?	Birds are more closely related to lizards than turtles
	Describe a reptile’s skin.	A thick, scaly skin that is keratinized and impervious to water
	What is keratin and what’s its function in reptile skin?	A protein also found in hair, fingernails, and feathers
	Why are reptile lungs more efficient than amphibians (except for turtles)?	Reptiles have an expandable rib cage.
	Describe the reptile circulatory system.	Most are approaching a four-chambered heart to segregate oxygen-rich blood from oxygen-poor blood.
	In what form is nitrogenous waste excreted in reptiles?	Urine rich in uric acid
	Are reptiles ectothermic or endothermic?	Ectothermic
	What’s the ecological significance of ectothermic vice endothermic?	Ectothermic animals consume less food.
	What is unique about tuataras?	The parietal eye (a third, skin-covered eye in the middle of the forehead)
	What type of reptile bellows?	Male crocodiles bellow to attract mates
	What type of reptile is the best parent?	Alligator parents will come to the aid of their bellowing young
	What differentiates turtles from other reptiles?	A heavy shell fused to the ribs and to the thoracic vertebrae
	Do turtles have teeth?	No
	What evidence is there that sea turtles evolved from terrestrial organisms?	They return to land to lay their eggs
	What characteristics generally separate lizards from snakes?	Snakes lost their legs.
	Why is the Mesozoic era often called the age of reptiles?	Reptiles dominated the earth for about 170M years during the Mesozoic era.
	Describe the most common theory for the extinction of dinosaurs.	Meteor strike
	What is the distinguishing characteristic for the class Aves?	Feathers
	How did feathers arise evolutionarily?	A single mutation in a single gene for scales ended up as feathers
	What was thought to be the original function of feathers?	Insulation first, then flight
	Are birds ectothermic or endothermic?	Endothermic
	Do birds have teeth?	No
	What is a bird’s beak made of?	Keratin
	What’s the point of a wishbone?	To withstand the rigors of flight
	Describe a bird’s circulatory system.	Closed, double-looped, four-chambered heart that segregates oxygen-rich from oxygen-poor blood, and an extensive air sac system to maximize gas exchange.
	How many chambers does a bird’s heart have? How is this an advantage?	Four-chambered heart that segregates oxygen-rich from oxygen-poor blood
	Describe a bird’s respiratory system.	Respiration is efficient since the lobular lungs connect to anterior and posterior air sacs. The presence of these sacs means the air circulates one way through the lungs, and gases are continuously exchanged across respiratory tissues, while the body and bones are lightened for flying.
	What characteristics are used to classify birds?	Based on beak and foot types with some on habitats and behaviors. You have hawks 'n stuff, swallows 'n stuff, and ducks 'n stuff.
	Why is the bird nervous system so well developed?	The advanced nervous system is an adaptation for flight.
	Why is the portion of the brain responsible for instinctive behaviors so overdeveloped?	An adaptation for flight – enables quick response in a fast-paced environment.
	What’s the benefit of migration?	Enables the use of widespread food sources.
	What characteristics differentiate mammals from birds and reptiles?	Big brains, hair and mammary glands
	What’s unique about mammalian teeth?	Mammalian teeth are differentiated into molars and premolars
	When did mammals first evolve?	True mammals appeared during the Jurassic period, about the same time as the first dinosaurs
	Are mammals ectotherms or endotherms?	Endotherms
	What’s the function of hair?	Provides insulation against heat loss and allows mammals to be active in cold weather
	Describe the circulatory system of mammals.	Closed, double-looped, with a four-chambered heart
	How many chambers does a mammal’s heart have? Why is this important?	Four chambers to segregate oxygen-rich from oxygen-poor blood to maintain the high level of respiration needed to support homeothermy.
	Name three kinds of mammals.	Monotremes (lay eggs), Marsupials (incubate young in pouches), Placentals (gestate internally)
	Name two kinds of monotreme.	Duckbilled platypus and the spiny anteater in Australia
	What distinguishes monotremes?	They have a cloaca and lay hard-shelled amniotic eggs
	What distinguishes marsupials?	Pouches; marsupials begin development inside the mother's body but are then born in a very immature state
	Name a native American marsupial.	Opossum
	What distinguishes a placental mammal?	The capability to carry children internally (in a placenta), enabling the young to be born in a relatively advanced stage of development
	Name three types of placental mammal.	hoofed mammals (two orders), Order Carnivora, Order Primates, and many more
	What effect does the long gestation have on brains?	Long gestation allows development of the cerebral hemispheres.
	Name two different types of hoofed mammals.	Odd-toed (Perissodactyla) and even-toed (Artiodactyla).
	In what kind of habitat are hoofed mammals adapted?	Grasslands
	Describe the feeding patterns of hoofed mammals.	Grazing
	What distinguishes the order Carnivora?	Most are meat eaters
	What distinguishes primates?	Big-brained, arboreal animals
	Name three different kinds of primate.	Lemurs, monkeys, apes, and hominids
	What are cetaceans?	About 80 species of whales and dolphins
	What are members of the order Chiroptera called?	Bats
	What characteristic defines a rodent? Name three rodents.	Incisors that grow continuously; rats, squirrels, beavers.
	Name a species of Probocidea.	Elephants
	What characteristic distinguishes a Proboscidean?	The upper lip and nose are elongated and musularized forming a prehensile trunk; also the largest living land mammals
	What are lagomorphs? How do they differ from rodents?	Rabbits, hares, and pikas; they resemble rodents but have two pairs of continuously growing incisors
	What are Cecal pellets?	night feces; presented as evidence that Lagamorpha evolved from carnivores due to their inability to directly digest plants in one pass
	Name two members of Insectivora.	shrews and moles; mammals with short snouts that live underground
	What’s the smallest known mammal?	The Etruscan Shrew (S. etruscus) aka White-toothed Pygmy Shrew
	What is the habitat of moles and shrews?	underground
	What are pinnipeds?	aquatic mammals including walruses, seals, and sea lions; all four limbs are modified into flippers
	Name three members of the order Xenarthra.	anteaters, sloths, and armadillos
	What distinguishes xenarthrans from other mammals?	they are toothless or have peglike teeth
	What is the only order of flying mammals?	Chiroptera
	Name three orders of aquatic mammals.	Cetacea, Pinnipedia, and Sirenia
	Name an order composed of burrowing mammals.	Insectivora
	Name an order in which teeth are, for the most part, lacking.	Xenarthra
	Name two mammalian orders in which echolocation is used.	Chiroptera and Cetacea
	Name an order in which members have opposable thumbs.	Primates
	Why is a chimpanzee not a monkey?	Monkeys have tails, chimpanzees (apes) do not.
	In which two orders do incisors always grow?	Rodentia and Lagomorpha

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