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165 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Losing electrons is called
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Oxidation
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Gaining electrons is called
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Reduction
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oxidation-reduction reactions are also called
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redox reactions
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Formula for glycolysis
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C6H12O6 + 6 O2 --> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP
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Two stages of cell division in prokaryotes
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1. Replication
2. Binary fission |
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Process that splits the parent cell into two daughter cells into two daughter cells
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Binary Fission
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Shape of a prokaryotic chromosome
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A perfect circle (lol tool fans)
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Point at which double-stranded DNA begins to unzip
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Origin of replication
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Eukaryotic cells contain ___ DNA than prokaryotic cells
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more DNA
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Difference between shape of eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA
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Prokaryotic DNA is circular, eukaryotic is linear (and bunched into compact chromosomes)
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The basis of increasing body size during development and ongoing replacement of dead/damaged cells
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Mitosis
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Any biological cell forming body of an organism
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Somatic cell
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Cell division mechanism that halves the number of chromosomes
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Meiosis
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Cell that fuses with another cell during fertilization - contains half the number of chromosomes of somatic cell
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Gamete
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Any biological cell that gives rise to gametes of the organism
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Germ cells
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Where you can find germ cells
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Gonads lol
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Three phases of eukaryotic cell cycle
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1. Interphase
2. Mitosis 3. Cytokinesis |
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What are the stages of interphase?
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G1, S, G2
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Stage of interphase when each chromosome consists of one double-stranded DNA molecule
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G1
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Stage of interphase when each chromosome consists of two double-stranded DNA molecules
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G2
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Stage of interphase where cell replicates its DNA
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S
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Stage where cell is dormant
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G0 (G naught)
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Chromosomes with same length, shape, collection of genes
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Homologous chromosomes
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Types of haploid cells in human body
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Sperm, ova
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How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?
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23
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How many chromosomes do humans have?
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46
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Structure that joins sister chromatids together
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centromere
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How many total chromatids are there in a cell when each chromosome in a pair is replicated?
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96
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An arrangement of chromosomes
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karyotype
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The number and appearance of chromosomes in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
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karyotype
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Chromosomes can be compared based on what three characteristics
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1. Shape
2. Size 3. Centromere location |
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DNA can fit in a small space despite being very long because it is ____
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coiled
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DNA coils around proteins called ______
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histones
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Histones have ______ charges to counteract _______ charges associated with phospahte groups of DNA
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positive; negative
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DNA coils around a core of ____ histone proteins to form nucleosome
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eight
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DNA coils around histone proteins to form _______
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nucleosome
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Nucleosomes can be coiled further to ultimately form a compact __________
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chromosome
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4 stages of mitosis
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1. Prophase
2. Metaphase 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase |
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During ______ cell increases its mass, doubles # of cytoplasmic components, duplicates chromosomes
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Interphase
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Mitosis follows what part of the cell cycle?
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Interphase
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During early _____, DNA appears grainy as it organizes, condenses
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Prophase
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The centrosome is duplicated during early ______
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Prophase
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Process whereby chromosomes become shorter and thicker as result of coiling and supercoiling of chromatic strands
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Chromatic condensation
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During ______, chromosomes become visible as distinct structures as they condense further
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Prophase
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During _____, microtubules assemble and move one of two ________ to opposite side of nucleus
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prophase; centrioles
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The nuclear envelope begins to disintegrate during _______
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Prophase
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During transition to ______, nuclear envelope is gone
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Metaphase
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Chromosomes are most condensed by the transition to _______
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Metaphase
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During _______, all chromosomes are aligned midway between centrioles
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Metaphase
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Imaginary plane that divides cell in half
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Equatorial plane
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During ______, centrioles are aligned along equatorial plane
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Metaphase
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During _______, microtubules attach each chromatid to ne centriole, and its sister chromatid to the opposite centriole
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Metaphase
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During _______, motor proteins moving along spindle microtubules drag chromatids toward centrioles, separating sister chromatids
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Anaphase
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During _______, each sister chromatid has become a separate chromosome
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Anaphase
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During _______, the microtubules of the spindle are disassembled starting at the poles
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Anaphase
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During _______, chromosomes reach the centrioles at opposite poles
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Telophase
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During _______, a nuclear envelope forms around each cluster of chromosomes
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Telophase
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During _______, mitosis ends
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Telophase
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Division of cytoplasm into roughly equal halves
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Cytokinesis
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In animals, cytokinesis occurs by ____ _____ contracting and pinching the cell in two
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actin filaments
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Cytokinesis is evident as _______ ______ appears between daughter cells
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cleavage furrow
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During cytokinesis in plants, the cell wall grows at _____ _____ to the mitotic splindle and is called the ___ ____
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right angles; cell plate
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Three principal checkpoints that control cell cycle in eukaryotes
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G1, G2, and M checkpoints
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__ protein regulates the G1 checkpoint
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p53
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Checkpoint that makes the decision about whether the cell should divide and enter S
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G1 Checkpoint
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Cells that never pass G1 checkpoint are said to be in
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G0
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Checkpoint that leads to mitosis
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G2 Checkpoint
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Checkpoint that occurs during metaphase triggers the exit process of _ phase and entry into G1 phase
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M checkpoint (and M phase)
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Growth disorder of cells, where apparently normal cells grow uncontrollably, and spread to other parts of the body
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Cancer
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_______ _____ are surrounded by healthy layer of cells (also known as _________) and do not spread to other ares
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Benign tumours; encapsulated
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_________ ______ are not encapsulated and are invasive
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Malignant tumours
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Cells that spread to different areas of the body to form new tumours
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Metastases
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Cancer is spread most commonly through _____
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lymph
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Damage to genes have three main types of causes. WHAT ARE THEY?
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1. Chemical
2. Environmental (eg., UV rays) 3. Virus |
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What are her two main examples of tissues that divide frequently so are particularly susceptible to cancer?
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Skin, lining in gut
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Genes that encode proteins that stimulate cell division
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Proto-oncogenes
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Proto-oncogenes become____ when mutated
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oncogenes
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Genes that normally turn off cell division in healthy cells
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Tumor-suppressor genes
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Its normal action is to detect DNA
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p53 protein
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Prevents cell division of a cell with damaged DNA until DNA is repaired or directs the cell to be destroyed if it cannot be fixed
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p53 protein
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p53 affects the __ checkpoint
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G1
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If the gene for ___ _______ becomes damaged, damaged cells can divide unchecked
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p53 protein
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The difference between mitotic and meiotic prophase is that in mitotic prophase, _________ does not occur
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crossing over
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Process whereby each possible orientation of which homologue faces which pole results in gametes with different combinations of parental chromosomes
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Independent assortment
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In _____ I, chromosome pairs separate and individual homologues move to each pole
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anaphase I
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End product of anaerobic respiration in humans
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Lactate
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Somatic cells only undergo _____
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mitosis
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Only ________ undergo meiosis
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germ cells
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What is the value of n for humans
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23
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reproductive cells w/ half the complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells
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gametes
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Gametes fuse to form this cell, which contains two complete copies of each chromosome
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zygote
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Fusion of gametes
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fertilization
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Organisms that reproduce by mitotic division and do not involve gametes undergo _________
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asexual reproduction
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Diploid cells that will eventually undergo meiosis
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Germ-line cells
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________ _ separates the homologues in a homologous pair
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meiosis I
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_______ _ separates the replicated sister chromatids
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meiosis II
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The result of crossing over is a:
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hybrid chromosome
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During _____, the chromatids break in the same place and a section of chromosomes are swapped
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crossing over
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Protein that makes up centromere
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Cohesin
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The brief interphase between meiosis I and II differs from the interphase between mitotic divisions because there is no:
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replication of DNA
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The process of drawing together homologues down their entire lengths so that crossing over can occur
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synapsis
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Because meiosis involves two nuclear divisions but only one replication of DNA, final amount of genetic material is halved.
This unique feature of meiosis is called: |
reduction division
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Electrons associated with a C-H bond are _______, meaning they contain the highest possible energy and can be easily removed
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Equidistant
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During cellular respiration, dehydrogenases (enzymes) move _________ ____ and 2 ________ from the substrate molecule to NAD+
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hydrogen atoms; electrons
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Input into glycolysis:
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1 glucose molecule, 2 ATP
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Output of glycolysis
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2 pyruvate molecules
4 ATP 2 NADH |
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Net ATP gain from glycolysis
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2 ATP
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In pyruvate oxidation, pyruvate is converted to:
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Acetyl-CoA
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Input of pyruvate oxidation (based on one glucose)
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2 pyruvate
2 coenzyme-A |
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Output of pyruvate oxidation (based on one glucose)
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2 CO2
2 NADH 2 Acetyl CoA |
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The kerb's cycle has __ stages
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8
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In the first step of Kreb's Cycle, acetyl-CoA attaches to a ______, forming a _______
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4-carbon molecule; 6-carbon molecule
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The first two times the carbon molecule is oxidized (from 6 carbons to 5 and 5 to 4), one ____ and a molecule of ___ is produced
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NADH; CO2
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After the 5-carbon molecule is oxidized, a reaction occurs the produces _____
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1 ATP
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How many times is the 4-carbon molecule oxidized?
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Twice
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The first time the 4-carbon molecule is oxidized, __________ are removed, and are accepted by ____ forming ____
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2 hydrogens; FAD+; FADH2
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Input of Kreb's cycle (based on one glucose molecule)
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2 acetyl-CoA
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Output of Kreb's cycle (based on one glucose)
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6 NADH
2 FADH2 4 CO2 2 ATP |
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Until the electron transport chain, all carbons from glucose molecule have been _________ and released as _____
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CO2
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At beginning of ETC, all potential energy from original glucose molecule now exists in the form of:
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NADH and FADH2
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The ETC extracts potential energy from ____ and ____ and synthesizes ___
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NADH and FADH2; ATP
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The ETC is basically a series of _____ __________
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redox reactions
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Electron carriers are arranged from ___ to ___ free energy
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high to low
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As ________ pass through the complexes, H+ is pumped from the ______ to the ________ creating an H+ gradient
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electrons; matrix; intermembrane space
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The energy released during electron transport is used to do the work of:
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Transporting H+ across the mitochondrial membrane
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Stored energy produced by the existence of a concentration and voltage gradient
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Proton-motive force
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The ability of cells to use the proton-motive force
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Chemiosmosis
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A protein channel on the inner mitochondrial membrane
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ATP Synthase
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Input of electron transport chain (from one glucose molecule)
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10 NADH
2 FADH2 |
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Final output of electron transport chain (from one glucose molecule)
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3 ATP per NADH
2 ATP per FADH2 ------ Total of 34 ATP |
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How much ATP is produced from 1 glucose molecule?
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38 ATP
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If the body doesn't need ATP, the fruits of glycolysis are stored as:
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Lactate
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In pyruvate oxidation, _____ is cleaved off of the pyruvate molecule and lost as CO2, leaving a ________ molecule remaining
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The carboxyl group (COOH); 2-carbon
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Each NADH produces how many ATP through the ETC?
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3 ATP
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Each FADH2 produces how many ATP through the ETC?
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2 ATP
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The two phases of prokaryotic mitosis (the simple cell cycle)
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1. DNA replication
2. Binary fission |
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During ______, a prokaryote cell grows/elongates, a new plasma membrane and cell wall partions the cell, and it pinches into two daughter cells
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Binary fission
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The primary growth phase of interphase is
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G1
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In eukaryotes, DNA replicates during:
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S phase of interphase
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Replication of organelles occurs during:
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G2 phase of interphase
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spindles first appear during:
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Prophase
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Chromosomes first appear condensed during:
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Prophase
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These are the "on button"; they stimulate cell division
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Proto-oncogenes
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If the "on button" is stuck on, it is because ______ have developed into ______
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proto-oncogenes; oncogenes
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___ detects abnormal DNA and either stimulates it's repair or the cell's death
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p53 protein (in G1 yo)
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The "off button". Turns off cell division
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Tumor suppressor genes
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The specific way that homologues line up, which is different every time (sort of)
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Independent assortment
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Mendel's initial "true breeding" generation was the:
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P generation
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The __ generation was when Mendel crossed 2 true-breeding plants with alternate traits
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F1
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Mendels F2 generation resulted from doing what with the F1 generation
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Self-fertilizing (the F1 generation, which were all non-true breeding plants)
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Mendel bred an F3 generation by self fertilizing the F2 generation to determine what?
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Which plants were true breeding
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Genotype means:
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The letters of the genes
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Phenotype means:
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Shown traits (for example, purple flowers)
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
Many genes, one effect |
Polygenic (continuous variation)
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
One gene, many effects (eg. cystic fibrosis) |
Pleiotrophic effects
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
Heterozygotes are intermediate in phenotype (pink flowers, eg) |
Incomplete dominance
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
Gene expression sensitive to heat or light (Arctic fox) |
Environmental effects
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
Two or more genes interact and affect phenotype (dog colour) |
Epistasis
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Why some traits don't show Mendelian inheritance:
Heterozygotes express both dominant alleles (ABO blood type) |
Codominance
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Alternative forms of a gene
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Allele
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Mendel's first law: _________
The two alleles separate from each other during the formation of ______, so that half of ______ will carry one copy and half will carry the other copy |
Segregation; gametes
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The F1 individual that results from cross-breeding individuals who are true-breeding for two different characteristics
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dihybrid
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Mendel's Second Law: ______
Genes located on different chromosomes are inherited ______ of one another |
Independent Assortment; independently
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Continuous variation is also called:
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polygenic
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ABO blood type genes encode an enzyme that adds ____ to lipids on the membranes of ________ cells
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lipids; red blood
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