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114 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Genes that encode proteins necessary for an organism to adapt to a change in environment.
Inducible Genes
Genes that encode for proteins that cells need in a day to day fashion.
Constitutive Genes
Regulation of constitutive genes in prokaryotes depends on what?
Number of sigma subunits and their affinity for the promoter region.
In eukaryotes the GC box identifies the gene as what?
Constitutive Gene
Regulation of inducible genes depends on what? (3)
Protein Factors
Small Molecule Factors
Operator Sites
Protein Factors
Activators
Repressors
Small Molecule Factors
Inducers (co-activators)
Co-repressors
Operator Sites
Enhancers
Silencers
Which protein factors binds to enhancer operator site?
Activators
Which protein factor binds to silencer operator site?
Repressors
When a gene is normally under negative regulation; this means
Transcription of the gene is normally inhibited

Repressor protein is bound to silencer site
True or False

Repressor proteins and silencer sites are upstream from the promoter.
False

downstream
Repressor proteins physically block ________. Preventing transcription.
RNA Polymerase
Signal molecule that binds to repressor stimulating transcription.
Inducer
Describe negative regulation mechanism.
Co-repressor binds repressor.
Repressor binds silencer site.
Gene has to be transcribed very rapidly in order to meet normal conditions.
_________ Regulation
Positive Regulation
Protein from a gene that is normally under positive regulation is no longer needed. Mechanism?
Co-repressor binds activator.
Activator dissociates from enhancer site.
Enhancer sites are located
___ stream from the promoter region.
Upstream
Activators can affect transcription by: (2)
Altering the conformation of DNA in the promoter region

Interacting with RNA Pol altering its conformation.
- higher affinity
Gene is not normally regulated.
External condition needs it to transcribe. Mechanism
Inducer binds activator.
Activator binds enhancer site.
The lac operon encodes polycistronic DNA for three enzymes:
Beta Galactosidase
Galactoside Permease
Thiogalactoside Transacetylase
The lac operon is normally under ______ control.
negative control
Permits the uptake of galactose into the bacteria.
Galactoside Permease
What role does beta galactosidase play inside bacteria?
Breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose
What is the name of the side product formed during the break down of lactose.
Allolactose
What function does the I gene serve?
Transcription of the lac repressor
When the lac repressor is synthesized it binds to its silencer sites:
O1
O1O2
O1O3
The lac operon is a ______ protein, meaning it has 4 subunits.
tetrameric
O1 is found ______ stream from promoter
downstream
How does the lac repressor stop transcription?
Forms a loop in the DNA downstream of RNA Pol, physically blocking
Bacterial DNA binding proteins utilize ________ motifs.
Helix-turn-Helix
Bases in the major groove of DNA bind to the helix-turn-helix motifs via:
Hydrogen bonding
Hydrophobicity
The lac repressor binds to DNA via the law of ____ ______. Therefore there will always be a time when it is unbound.
mass action

in equilibrium
What is the function of allolactose?
Inducer that acts to dissociate the lac repressor from its silencer site.
______ inducer = 1,6- Allolactose
______ inducer = IPTG
Primary

Synthetic
What is the proposed function of Thiogalatoside Transacetylase?
Thought to start synthesizing a secondary inducer to stimulate transcription.
Describe why transcription of the lac operon is slow immediately following a decrease in glucose?
RNA Pol has low affinity for the promoter region until it adapts using cyclic amp to induce CRP to bind the enhacer site upstream of the promoter.
CRP is also known as ?
CAP
Catabolite Gene Activator Protein
RNA Pol is bound to the promoter region, CRP protein is bound to enhacer site, but lac repressor is bound to silencer site. Control?
Positive and Negative

If repressor leaves - rapid transcription
Transcriptional attenuation occurs in the ___ operon.
trp Operon
trp operon encodes __ proteins that combine to subunits to give all of the enzymes necessary to synthesize ______
5

Tryptophan
What happens when tryptophan is in high concentration?
Acts as a co-repressor to the trp repressor allowing it to bind to the silencer site.
The trp operon is regulated by varying levels of tryptophan in the cell by ______ _______
transcription attenuation
What is found in the trp operon?
trpE
Start codon AUG
Leader Peptide
mRNA
Stop Codon UAA
What is the significance of two codons in the trp operon?
As mRNA on the leader peptide is converted into protein, depending on concentration of tryptophan in the cell, transcription will continue through entire operon or undergo rho-dependent termination prior to doing so.
RNAP I transcribes genes for large ______ molecules
rRNA
RNAP II transcribes genes for _____ (which encodes proteins)
mRNA
RNAP III transcribes genes____, ____ and other small RNA molecules
tRNA, snRNA
____carries amino acids to the translation complex and is very stable.
tRNA
RNAP II contains ___ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ called the initiation complex with other
enhancers and mediators.
TFIID
TFIIE
TFIIA
TFIIB
TFIIH
TFIIF
The σ subunit used in prokaryotic RNAP is replaced by _____ for inducible genes
(RNAP II = mRNA).
TFIID
True or False

RNAP II can recognize the GC box
False

RNAP I + III
Constitutive genes contain _____ boxes that function like prokaryotic promoters.
GC
True or False

GTFs are usually required for constitutive genes.
False
Inducible genes contain _____ boxes that function like promoters.
TATA
GTFs are required for the initiation of transcription of ______ genes.
Inducible
The _______ is analogous to the
prokaryotic NusA which binds after the σ subunit leaves.
The elongator

Accelerates transcription
Once RNAP synthesizes an end consensus sequence, an ________ binds to the consensus sequence and
breaks the synthesized RNA into two pieces:
endonuclease
What is the purpose of the 5'-end capping and Poly-A tail?
Protect eukaryotic mRNA from exonucleases, increasing stability over time.
The _________ adds a chain of adenosines on the 3’ end of the mRNA which
can be removed by exonucleases without changing the structure of the actual mRNA
Poly-A tail
___________ prevents nucleases from recognizing the mRNA
5’-end capping
Optional step in the protection of mRNA that prevents autohydrolysis involves?
2'-O-methyltransferase
4 proteins involved in formation of the 3' Poly-A tail:
CPSF
Endonuclease
PAP
PABP
_____ are untranslated regions of a gene.
Transcribed but not translated
Introns
_____ are translated regions of a gene.
Transcribed and translated.
Hold the genetic code for a protein
Exons
______ are removed and _____
are spliced together to get the
right mRNA to be translated into a
functional protein.
Introns

Exons
Small nuclear RNAs bond to proteins form a structure called _________ which associate to form a spliceosome.
small nuclear ribonucleoproteins
snRNP
The actual spliceosome has __
proteins and __ snRNAs.
45 proteins

5 snRNA's
The spliceosome places ______ on the intron near the 5' splice site to form a phosphodiester bond breaking the mRNA.
adenylate
The lasso-shaped intron is otherwise known as a ______
lariat
The spliceosome makes deliberate errors and through this planned ______ ________
we get many functional variants for one gene.
alternative splicing
_______ _________ determines sex in fruit flies.
Alternative splicing
Rifamycin B is a natural product and ________ is synthetic
• Both are specific for prokaryotic RNAP and act by
preventing RNA ________ downstream of the
promoter.
Rifampicin

elongation
What is the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?
Generate charged tRNA
A ________ mutation is usually mediated by a single base substitution in the anticodon of a tRNA.
Nonsense
________ means that more than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
Degenerate
________ contain several different proteases that degrade proteins.
Proteasomes
Which nucleotide found in the wobble position could lead to a non-functional or incorrect protein?
Inosine
In bacteria, the peptidyl transferase activity that catalyzes peptide bond formation is found in
23S ribosomal RNA
The _____________ sequence is a translation initiation signal in bacteria mRNAs that guides the __S ribosome to the initiating (5′) AUG of the mRNA
Shine-Dalgarno

30S
EF-G can bind the A site of the ribosome because its structure resembles
EF-Tu / tRNA complex
Upon termination of polypeptide synthesis the ribosome dissociates into
30S + 50S subunits
True or False

Translation and transcription are coupled only in prokaryotes
True
Proofreading occurs in the __ ____ of the ribosome.
A site
True or False

Transcriptional attenuation is common to prokayotes and eukaryotes.
False
Antineoplastics such as Actinomycin D are __________ agents.
Intercalating
_______ alter the conformation of RNAP II preventing it from moving along the template.
Toxins
The sequences of nucleotides that identify the positions of amino acids in the primary
structure of a protein are known as the
genetic code.
AUG =
Start
UAA
UAG
UGA
Stop Codons
Stop and look over the structure of tRNA.
Okay
______ _____ is an enzyme that covalently attaches an amino acid to
its corresponding tRNA molecule
• Creates ________ ____
Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

aminoacyl tRNA
The 3’ end of tRNA has a highly conserved sequence of
nucleotides:
ACC
True or False

Each amino acid has its own aminoacyl synthetase
True
There are __ amino acids
There are __ codons
There are __ tRNAs (some tRNAs bind >1 codon)
20

61

32
_______ is often found at
the 5’ wobble position
• I can form H bonds with A,
C, or U
• Inosinate
Ribosomes are composed of both _____ and _____.
rRNA

Protein
____ rRNA (establishes the reading
frame in prokaryotic translation)
16S
____ rRNA (catalyzes the formation
of the peptide bond)
23S
The following histone modifications weaken DNA-histone bond
• Trimethylation of Lys
• Acetylation of Lys
• Phosphorylation of Ser/Thr
• Ubiquitination of Lys
_________ are sequences of nucleotides in DNA that define the boundaries of
transcriptionally functional DNA
– They may act by preventing methylation of key histone residues
Insulators
____ methylation is reversible
DNA
Methylation of DNA on cytosine by ____ __________ turns off eukaryotic gene expression
DNA Methyltransferases
____ ________ is a process in which double-stranded RNA triggers the fragmentation of
complimentary mRNA and thereby prevents gene expression by preventing translation.
RNA interference
Similar to the situation in plants,
in eukaryotes a _____ _____
cuts microRNA into short
interfering RNA (siRNA) which
is still double stranded
dicer enzyme
_____ binds siRNA and causes the two strands of the siRNA to separate
RISC
Epigenetically RISC promotes DNA _________.
methylation
These proteins act as intermediaries between the transcription activators and the GTF-RNAP II complex.
Co-activator Protein Complexes
The principle co-activator protein complex is called the _______
mediator
Mediator complex binds to ___ domain of RNAP II and stimulates phosphorylation by ____
CTD

TFIIH
True or False

Methylation of DNA is reversible
True
Three main classes of regulatory RNA:
siRNA
miRNA
piRNA
pri-miRNA is endonucleased by ____ into pre-miRNA which is processed by ______ into miRNA
Drosha

Dicer
Eukaryotic Transcription:

TBP recruits _____ which places active site at +1 start site. Indicates binding for _____. ___ and ___ act as helicase to unwinds DNA, _____ phosphorylates ___ domain of RNAP II which breaks away from promoter then elongator binds.
TFIIB

RNAP II

TFIIH + TFIIE

TFIIH

CTD