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90 Cards in this Set

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What are the overall anabolic and catabolic pathways involved in nucleotide metabolism?
Synthesis and Salvage (anabolic) Degradation ( catabolic)
What major difference is there between purine and pyramidine synthesis in terms of when and how the ring is added? Both purine and pyramidine synthesis involve a molecule in common , what is it?
Purines get converted to PRPP first from ribose-5-phosphate then have the ring added. Pyramidines do the opposite. PRPP
3) What molecule is utilized in the start of the purine synthesis pathway? What molecule is formed by purine synthesis pathway? What is the name of the enzyme that catalyzes the addition of the first component of the purine ring? What nitrogen-containing amino acid donates the first part of the ring?
PRPP goes to IMP. Gln-PRPP aminotransferase, Glutamine
4) How many enzymatic steps are required to synthesize IMP from PRPP in humans? What is the cellular localization of all the enzymes that carry out these steps?
10, in the cytosol
What carrier is utilized in 2 different steps to add to the ring? What vitamin is it derived from? What atom does it donate?
N-10 formyl THF, from vitamin B (folate), the first carbon
What is the name of the enzyme required to turn folate into the form used in purine synthesis? How many steps? What chemical changes does it make in folate? Where in purine and pyramidine synthesis does inhibition of this enzyme have an effect?
DHFR, 3, reduces folate to DHF and THF, steps 1 and 2 of pyrimidine synthesis.
The pathway that is most affected by sulfa drugs is :
Prokaryotic purine synthesis
What nucleotides are formed from IMP?
GMP and AMP
9) What is the only enzyme that is known to be regulated in the steps of forming IMP from PRPP? What are the allosteric activators of this enzyme? What are the allosteric inhibitors of this enzyme?
Glutamine PRPP aminotransferase. PRPP activates. AMP, GMP, IMP inhibit
10) What is the allosteric inhibitor of adenylosuccinate synthetase? What is the allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase?
AMP inhibits adenylosuccinate synthetase, GMP inhibits IMP-DH
11) What’s the difference in mechanism between inhibition by thio-IMP of 1) glutamine –PRPP aminotransferase 2) adenylsuccinate synthetase and IMP-DH
1) Allosteric 2) competitive
12) Can 6-mercaptopurine be incorporated into DNA and if so what is the effect?
Yes, it blocks replication
13) What do the acronyms HGPRT and APRT stand for and what do they do? What disease results from HGPRT deficiency? What are the symptoms? What is the reason for the increase in uric acid levels of the HGPRT deficient patient? What is their usual cause of death? Why do you need to ask 18 questions in one?
APRT is adenine phosphoribosyltransferase turns adenine and PRPP into AMP. HGPRT is hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase and turns guanine and PRPP into GMP. Deficiency leads to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome which causes mental retardation, self mutilation, and spasticity. Uric acid builds up because it leads to increased turnover of purines thus an increase in the rate of purine synthesis leading to a buildup of uric acid. People with Lesch-Nyhan die of renal failure
14) If there were no salvage pathways in purine metabolism, would 6-mercaptopurine be effective as a chemotherapy agent?
Yes because it inhibits Gln-PRPP-AT which is used in purine synthesis so it would still be effective.
15) 6-mercaptopurine itself doesn’t inhibit enzymes, but is the precursor to what molecule that is?
Thio-IMP
16) How many enzymatic steps are required to synthesize OMP from glutamine and PRPP in humans? What is the cellular localization of all but one of the enzymes that carry out all these steps?
4. cytosol
) What cytosolic enzyme that catalyzes an ATP-requiring step of pyrimidine synthesis has an analogous mitochondrial that participates in the urea cycle? What is an enzyme that catalyzes the first step of pyrimidine synthesis? What are important differences between cytosolic and mitochondrial enzymes? Which enzyme of pyrimidine synthesis is found only in the mitochondria? Why is it advantageous that it is a mitochondrial enzyme?
CPS II has an analog in the mitochondria (CPS I). Mitochondrial proteins usually can’t leave the mitochondria. Tight regulation of CPS II and not of CPS I. This is important to keep different parts of the cell cycle separate. Dihydroorotate Dehydrogenase is found exclusively in the mitochondria where conditions are appropriate.
18) Why does excessive amounts of NH4 lead to elevated levels of orotic acid in the urine? Why does this primarily affect the liver?
Because there’s too much ammonium which leads to less regulation of CPS I which leads to excess orotate. Primarily affects the liver because that’s where it detoxifies stuff.
19) What enzyme is present in low levels in e-coli lab strains?
Orotate PRT, certain e-coli is deficient here and cannot live in humans.
20) What are the sources of carbon and nitrogen atoms in the pyrimidine ring?
Glutamine and CO2
21) What molecule is formed by the pyrimidine synthesis pathway?
UMP
22) How is the pyrimidine synthesis pathway like a salvage pathway?
They both end up with UDP by dephosphorylating ATP
23) Are other pyrimidine bases than orotate salvaged? Why are salvage pathways useful?
Uridine and thyamidine are NOT CYTOSINE. Because they conserve energy by breaking down into stuff the cell needs and other stuff can be created easier.
24) What purine triphosphate activates pyramidine synthesis?
ATP
25) How is cytidine monophosphate (CMP) formed?
Its not formed. Its found in RNA????? Or it doesn’t exist???
26) What purine triphosphate allosterically activates pyrimidine synthesis?
ATP
27) How is thymidine monophosphate (TMP) formed?
From Ts Folate and UMP give dUMP as an intermediate
28) What carrier donates a carbon to form TMP from dUMP? What is the enzyme that catalyzes the reaction?
N5-N10 methylene THF. Ts is the enzyme.
29) If there were no salvage pathways in pyrimidine metabolism, would 5-flourouracil be as effective as a cancer chemotherapeutic?
Yes because it inhibits TMP synthesis causes suicide at fdUMP???????
30) 5-flourouracil itself doesn’t inhibit enzymes but is the precursor to what enzyme that does?
FdUMP
31) What type of inhibition does flouro-deoxyuridine monophosphate have on thymidylate synthase?
irreversible
32) Can 5-flourouracil be incorporated into DNA? What’s the effect?
Yes. Probably blocks synthesis of thymidine which is required for DNA synthesis
33) What are some strategies cancer cells have been observed to adopt to exhibit methotrexate resistance?
??????????
34) What is the mechanism of ICI D1694? Considering that it could be said that ICI D1694 resembles methotrexate would it be expected to cause the same, fewer or more side effects?
Inhibits N5N10 methylene THF. Similar effects as methotrexate
35) How is the use of leucovorin and methotrexate different from the use of leucovorin with 5-flouro-uracil?
Leucovorin is antagonistic of methotrexate. 5-flouro-uracil is an agonist of leucovorin.
36) What do nucleotide kinases do? What do nucleotide diphosphate kinases do? What nucleotide can also do this by glycolysis or oxidative phosphorylation?
Phosphorylate things, dephosphorylate things. Similar to glucokinase and hexokinase.
37) What is the name of the enzyme that converts ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides? What molecule does the reducing power come from originally?
Ribonucleotide reductase. thioredoxin or glucoredoxin (????)
38) What class of enzyme breaks nucleic acids into nucleotides? What class of enzymes removes phosphates from nucleotides (converting them to nucleosides)? What class of enzymes breaks them down into bases and sugars?
Nucleases, phosphorylases, nucleotidases???
39) What muscular enzyme deaminates adenine nucleotide? What enzyme in other tissues deaminates adenosine nucleoside? What is the difference in terms of the order in which the phosphate group and amino group are removed?
Adenosine deaminase. In muscle it gets deaminated first, in everywhere else it gets dephosphorylated first.
40) What is the enzyme that is defective in most patients with SCID? What are the 2 enzymes of purine degradation that may be defective in SCID?
Most common is ADA deficiency. May also be from PNP deficiency. IL2 gamma receptor defect is the most prevalent cause
41) What is the common treatment for SCID? Why does it work? What is the drawback? What is an alternative treatment? Why isn’t this available for people with the other form of the defect? Why does enzyme replacement therapy for SCID utilize the enzyme conjugated to PEG rather than the enzyme alone?
Enzyme replacement. PEG causes it to increase during lifetime in the blood. Because it is so rare. Bone marrow transplant for others.
42) There was an attempt made to replace what enzyme in the first gene therapy trial designed to partially cure or cure a patient in 1990? Was a cure achieved? Why is SCID a “good” disease for early attempts at gene therapy?
ADA. No. It’s an awful disease, its monogenic and its on an accessible organ.
43) What is the name of the heterogenous base attached to IMP?
Hypoxanthine
44) What is the nitrogenous product of purine degradation that is excreted? What is it converted from? By what enzyme?
Uric acid, xanthine, xanthine oxidase
45) What is gout? What are some underlying causes of gout? What are the symptoms and what explains them?
Too much uric acid that precipitates in joints and stuff. Under excretion of the kidney, defect with purine metabolism. Pain, renal failure due to the precipitation of uric acid.
46) What do allopurinol and rasburicase do? In what way is rasburicase superior? What are the drawbacks of rasburicase and what is it about the drug that leads to these drawbacks? How do the drawbacks explain why allopurinol is preferred and rasburicase is used for people with cancer?
allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, rasburicase breaks down uric acid. Rasburicase is better because its more efficient? It is expensive and needs to be given as an IV. Allopurinol is cheap and can be given as a pill but since people with rasburicase already have IVs and stuff, they give them that.
47) The degeneration of cytosine, uracil, and thymine have what 2 degradation products in common? What else for cytosine and uracil? Thymine?
CO2 and ammonium. C and U have B-alanine too. Thymine gives B-aminoisobutyrate
Tetrahydrobiopterin synthesis involves what nucleotide? NAD+ synthesis involves what 2 nucleotides? FMN synthesis involves what vitamin? FAD+ synthesis involves what 2 nucleotides? Coenzyme A synthesis involves what vitamin? Amino acid? Nucleotide?
Tetrahydrobiopterin comes from GTP. NAD needs ATP and nicotinamide. FAD needs riboflavin and ATP?? Acetyl CoA needs ATP, pantothenate, and cysteine.
49) What is the effect of AZT on a cell? Does it require a salvage pathway to become active?
It inhibits DNA elongation. No.
1. What does semiconservative replication mean?
The two daughter strands of DNA each contain one strand of the parent DNA.
2. What three observations have been made of all DNA polymerases?
Incoming bases are selected by complementary base pairings by hydrogen bonding with a template strand. Chain growth is in a 5’ to 3’ direction and anti-parallel to the direction of the template strand. All DNA polymerases require a primer strand to add bases to.
3. What is the function of DNA polymerase I? What is a Klenow fragment?
DNA polymerase I is a 5’ to 3’ polymerase, a 3’ to 5’ exonuclease (proof reading) and a 5’ to 3’ exonuclease ( repair and removal).
A Klenow fragment is the segment of the DNA polymerase that contains the exonuclease activity.
4. What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
It is the major DNA polymerase in prokaryotes
5. What is the function of a topisomerase? Helicase?
A topisomerase relieves supercoiling and a helicase unwinds double stranded DNA.
6. In replication, which strand is the leading strand and which is the lagging strand?
The leading strand is the strand being continuously synthesized and the lagging strand is the strand undergoing discontinuous synthesis.
7. How is RNA used in DNA replication? What are Okazaki fragments?
RNA acts as the primer for the discontinuous replication of DNA on the 3’-5’ (lagging) strand. Okazaki fragments are the pieces of DNA that are replicated on the 3’-5’ (lagging) strand that will eventually be joined by ligases to make a complete DNA replicate strand.
8. Where is e-coli DNA replication initiated and where is it terminated?
Initiated at OriC when Dria A (an initiation factor) binds to it. Terminated at ter site.
9. What are the processivities of DNA polymerases I and III?
DNA polymerase I has a low processivity (20 bases before it disassociates)
DNA polymerase III has a high processivity (5 million bases before it disassociates)
1) Name three types of sphingolipids and describe them.
Cerebrosides – ceramide monosaccharides are attached to the sphingolipid (ex. Myelin)
Sulfatides – cerebromonosaccharides sulfates
Gangliosides – acidic ceramide oligosaccharides which contain N-acetyl neuraminic acid. Also known as sialic acid. In cell membranes.
Phosphosphosphingolipid – ceramide and CDP-choline or ceramide and phosphatidyl Choline. Sphingomyelin is the best.
2) What compounds are the precursors for sphingosine?
Sphinganine, which comes from 3-ketosphinganine, which comes from Palmitoyl CoA and Serine.
3) How is ceramide formed?
Ceramide and COASH are formed from sphingosine and Acyl CoA via an acyl CoA transferase reaction.
4) How is sphingomyelin synthesized?
Ceramide and CDP-choline to sphingomyelin and CMP (most likely)
Ceramide and phosphatidyl choline to sphingomyelin and DAG (possibly, but probably not)
5) What are the four types of glycosphingolipids?
Cerebrosides – ceramide monosaccharides are attached to the sphingolipid (ex. Myelin)
Sulfatides – cerebromonosaccharides sulfates
Gangliosides – acidic ceramide oligosaccharides which contain N-acetyl neuraminic acid. Also known as sialic acid. In cell membranes.
Globisides – neutral cerebroside oligosaccharides
6) How are cerebrosides synthesized?
Ceramide and a UDP-Sugar goes to cerebroside and UDP
7) What is PAPS and what is it used for?
3-phosphoadenosine-5-phosphosulfate and it is used in the synthesis of sulfatide from galactocerebroside.
8) What defect exists in Gaucher’s disease?
Glucocerebrosidase is deficient so glucocerebroside builds up because it can’t get converted to ceramide.
9) What defect exists in Tay-Sachs disease?
Hexosaminidase A is deficient
10) What are the general structural features of gangliosides?
Acidic ceramide oligosaccharides that contain N-acetyl neuraminic acid
1) Where is DNA found in eukaryotes? How is DNA packaged?
Nuclei, some in the mitochondria. It is packed by wrapping dsDNA around octomers of histones, the histone groups are connected by linker DNA and then get coiled and supercoiled into chromatin.
2) What are some contrasts between features of prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication?
More DNA in eukaryotes than prokaryotes. Slower movement of replication forks in eukaryotes. Prokaryotes continuously synthesize DNA, eukaryotes only do during S-phase. Eukaryotes use more DNA polymerase molecules, have more than 1 origin and replication is bidirectional.
3) Which DNA polymerase is believed to be responsible for leading-strand synthesis and which for lagging strand synthesis in eukaryotes?
Leading strand = DNA polymerase delta
Lagging strand = DNA polymerase alpha
4) What proteins are in nucleosomes and why do they bind to DNA?
2 molecules of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 on the inside and H1 on the outside. Because they’re positively charged and DNA has a negative charge.
5) What is PCNA and what role does it play?
PCNA = proliferating cell nuclear antigen (aka cyclin). Forms a clamp around the template DNA and increases the processivity of DNA polymerase delta (activates).
6) What is the arrangement of nucleosomes after DNA replication?
New histones are created at the same time and end up along 1 daughter strand near each replication fork and old histones are on the other new strand. May explain why replication fork movement is slow and the shortness of the Okazaki fragments.
7) What is the model used to describe DNA replication in mitochondria?
Displacement loop mechanism
1) What is the definition of biopharmaceutical? What is the definition of recombinant DNA?
A biopharmaceutical is a drug produced in living cells. Recombinant DNA is DNA that is made by splicing the DNA of 2 different organisms together.
2) Describe how one “recombines” DNA including cutting, hybridizing and ligating it? What enzymes are used for the cutting of DNA?
Restriction enzymes are used to “cut” DNA. The restriction enzymes are chosen based on the desired DNA sequence. The DNA is then hybridized by binding with complementary base pairs of a matching strand in the desired organism. Ligation is the binding of the 2 strands of DNA using a lygase.
3) What is a plasmid? Give an example of a gene found on a plasmid that is naturally occurring.
A plasmid is circular DNA in bacteria. Anthrax toxin occurs naturally on a plasmid.
4) What about insulin causes difficulty in producing it by recombinant DNA (two things)?
Insulin is not a simple polypeptide chain A and B chain and it has 3’ disulfide linkages.
5) What are the advantages of producing insulin in bacteria? What are the advantages of producing it in yeast?
Bacteria secretes product more often are easy to maintain and manipulate, yeast can secrete it as a folded protein and is more mammalian like.
6) What do we mean by calling enebrel (etanercept) a fusion protein? Why does it involve fusing 2 proteins i.e. what properties are due to each part? What do we mean by calling Enebrel a decoy?
Its is fused to IgG1. TNFR is insoluble and degrades quickly. Have the gene for the TNF receptor and IgG1 is soluble and can dimerize. It looks like a TNF receptor (?) so it lures TNF-alpha (a tumor promoter) away from the cell.
7) It might be quicker to go from the idea of inhibiting TNF to a drug by making the drug as a biopharmaceutical than it would be to go from the idea of making a conventional drug, Why? What might be an advantage of a small molecule conventional drug?
You can use the body’s own mechanisms instead of making a drug in a factory.
8) What are the advantages of producing Enebrel in Chinese hamster ovary cells?
Its more like production in humans, the folds of the proteins are more humanlike too.
9) Are drugs on the market more likely to be polyclonal antibodies or monoclonal antibodies or recombinant DNA molecules based on monoclonal antibody sequence information? Why? What is meant by a humanized antibody?
Recombinant DNA based on monoclonal antibody sequence information? Because it’s the easiest to make. A humanized antibody is one people have had an immunogenic response to so they make it in the rat plasmid and then they replace it with human sequence in the plasmid.
10) It might be quicker to go from the idea of inhibiting HER2 to a drug by making the drug as an antibody than it would be to go from the idea of making a conventional drug. Why?
Because its easier and cheaper and it lets the body heal itself? You don’t have to use effort designing stuff.
11) What is the oft-fatal adverse effect of Herceptin? What cancer drugs enhance the chances of this adverse effect?
Blocks recovery of heart leading to Heart failure. Anthrocyclines, Herceptin.
12) What are the reasons biopharmaceuticals all have to be horrendously expensive?
They don’t and they aren’t (insulin). But if this were true it would be because they are complicated to make and research.
13) What would be one avenue to offering a less expensive drug that is often taken for small molecule drugs but is not yet available for biopharmaceuticals under today’s laws and regulations? Why might it be a while before that route is available to biopharmaceuticals?
Biogenerics. Because bioequivalence is hard to prove, that it’s the same
What does PCR (polymerase chain reaction) accomplish?
PCR amplifies a fragment of DNA for things like sequencing and cloning.
15) What does the making of transgenic animals accomplish? What do knockout animals help determine? What are key differences between the procedures to make transgenic and knockouts?
Transgenic animals are for studying gene function. Knock outs are for studying gene transport. ??????????