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20 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
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Restriction enzymes:
A) act at the membrane to restrict the passage of certain molecules into the cell.
B) are highly specialized ribonucleases that degrade mRNA soon after its synthesis.
C) are sequence-specific DNA endonucleases.
D) are very specific proteases that cleave peptides at only certain sequences.
E) catalyze the addition of a certain amino acid to a specific tRNA.
C
The biological role of restriction enzymes is to:
A) aid recombinant DNA research.
B) degrade foreign DNA that enters a bacterium.
C) make bacteria resistant to antibiotics.
D) restrict the damage to DNA by ultraviolet light.
E) restrict the size of DNA in certain bacteria.
B
The size of the DNA region specifically recognized by type II restriction enzymes is typically:
A) 4 to 6 base pairs.
B) 10 to 15 base pairs.
C) 50 to 60 base pairs.
D) 200 to 300 base pairs.
E) about the size of an average gene.
A
Which of the following statements about type II restriction enzymes is false?
A) Many make staggered (off-center) cuts within their recognition sequences.
B) Some cut DNA to generate blunt ends.
C) They are part of a bacterial defense system in which foreign DNA is cleaved.
D) They cleave and ligate DNA.
E) They cleave DNA only at recognition sequences specific to a given restriction enzyme.
D
Certain restriction enzymes produce cohesive (sticky) ends. This means that they:
A) cut both DNA strands at the same base pair.
B) cut in regions of high GC content, leaving ends that can form more hydrogen bonds than ends of high AT content.
C) make a staggered double-strand cut, leaving ends with a few nucleotides of single-stranded DNA protruding.
D) make ends that can anneal to cohesive ends generated by any other restriction enzyme.
E) stick tightly to the ends of the DNA they have cut.
C
In the laboratory, recombinant plasmids are commonly introduced into bacterial cells by:
A) electrophoresis – a gentle low-voltage gradient draws the DNA into the cell.
B) infection with a bacteriophage that carries the plasmid.
C) microinjection.
D) mixing plasmids with an extract of broken cells.
E) transformation – heat shock of the cells incubated with plasmid DNA in the presence of CaCl2.
E
The E. coli recombinant plasmid pBR322 has been widely utilized in genetic engineering experiments. pBR322 has all of the following features except:
A) a number of conveniently located recognition sites for restriction enzymes.
B) a number of palindromic sequences near the EcoRI site, which permit the plasmid to assume a conformation that protects newly inserted DNA from nuclease degradation.
C) a replication origin, which permits it to replicate autonomously.
D) resistance to two different antibiotics, which permits rapid screening for recombinant plasmids containing foreign DNA.
E) small overall size, which facilitates entry of the plasmid into host cells.
B
Which of the following statements regarding plasmid cloning vectors is correct?
A) Circular plasmids do not require an origin of replication to be propagated in E. coli.
B) Foreign DNA fragments up to 45,000 base pairs can be cloned in a typical plasmid.
C) Plasmids do not need to contain genes that confer resistance to antibiotics.
D) Plasmid vectors must carry promoters for inserted gene fragments.
E) The copy number of plasmids may vary from a few to several hundred.
E
A convenient cloning vector with which to introduce foreign DNA into E. coli is a(n):
A) E. coli chromosome.
B) messenger RNA.
C) plasmid.
D) yeast "ARS" sequence.
E) yeast transposable element.
C
In genetic engineering, in vitro packaging is used to:
A) cut a desired region out of the host bacterium's chromosome.
B) ensure that genetically engineered bacteria are not accidentally released into the environment.
C) incorporate recombinant DNA into infectious bacteriophage particles.
D) place an antibiotic resistance gene in a plasmid.
E) splice a desired gene into a plasmid.
C
Which of the following does not apply to the construction or use of a DNA library?
A) Determining the location of a particular DNA sequence in a DNA library requires a suitable hybridization probe.
B) Genomic libraries are better for expressing gene products than cDNA libraries.
C) Many segments of DNA from a cellular genome are cloned.
D) Specialized DNA libraries can be made by cloning DNA copies of mRNAs.
E) The DNA copies of mRNA found in a cDNA library are made by reverse transcriptase.
B
The PCR reaction mixture does not include:
A) all four deoxynucleoside triphosphates.
B) DNA containing the sequence to be amplified.
C) DNA ligase.
D) heat-stable DNA polymerase.
E) oligonucleotide primer(s).
C
Which of the following statements about the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is false?
A) DNA amplified by PCR can be cloned.
B) DNA is amplified at many points within a cellular genome.
C) Newly synthesized DNA must be heat-denatured before the next round of DNA synthesis begins.
D) The boundaries of the amplified DNA segment are determined by the synthetic oligonucleotides used to prime DNA synthesis.
E) The technique is sufficiently sensitive that DNA sequences can be amplified from a single animal or human hair.
B
RFLP is a:
A) bacteriophage vector for cloning DNA.
B) genetic disease.
C) plasmid vector for cloning DNA.
D) protein.
E) variation in DNA base sequence.
E
Current estimates indicate that humans have about ________ genes.
A) 3,000
B) 10,000
C) 30,000
D) 100,000
E) 300,000
C
Current estimates indicate that ________ % of the human genome is translated into protein.
A) less than 0.5%
B) roughly 1.5%
C) roughly 10%
D) roughly 25%
E) more than 50%
B
Rank the following organisms in order from smallest genome (number of base pairs of DNA) to largest genome.
A) Human, fruit fly, E. coli bacterium
B) E. coli bacterium, human, fruit fly
C) E. coli bacterium, fruit fly, human
D) fruit fly, E. coli bacterium, human
E) fruit fly, human, E. coli bacterium
C
Which one of the following analytical techniques does not help illuminate a gene’s cellular function?
A) DNA microarray analysis
B) Protein chip analysis
C) Southern blotting
D) Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
E) Two-hybrid analysis
C
The technique known as two hybrid analysis for detecting interacting gene products depend on:
A) activation of DNA polymerase by the nearby binding of hybridizing protein complexes.
B) direct binding of a Gal4p activation domain to a DNA sequence in the promoter region.
C) having a promoter that responds directly to one of the two proteins whose interactions is being measured.
D) hybridization of DNA segments corresponding to the two genes being examined.
E) stimulation of trasncription by interaction of two Gal4p domains via fused protein sequences.
E
A common cloning strategy for introducing foreign genes into plants with Agrobacterium employs all the following features except:
A) a selectable antibiotic marker such as kanamycin resistance.
B) a shuttle vector with 25 bp T-DNA repeats flanking the foreign gene of choice.
C) a Ti plasmid lacking its T-DNA segment.
D) active vir gene products from the altered Ti plasmid.
E) an ability to induce crown gall formation in infected leaves.
B