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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the defining feature of lipids?
Their insolubility in water due to long fatty acid chains and no double bonds
What are some functions of lipids?
Energy storage lipids, structural lipids in membranes, lipids as cofactors, signals and pigments
What do the fats and oils used as stored forms of energy in living organisms contain?
Fatty acids
What are fatty acids?
Carboxylic acids with hydrocarbon chains ranging from 4-36 carbons long
When fatty acid hydrocarbon chains are oxidized to CO2 and H2O, what occurs?
Energy is released
Name the three types of fatty acids
Saturated, Monosaturated, Polysaturated
Describe what a saturated fatty acid is
Carboxylic acid with hydrocarbon chain that contains no double bonds
Describe what a monounsaturated fatty acid is
Carboxylic acid with hydrocarbon that contains one double bond
Describe what a polyunsaturated double bond is
Carboxylic acid with hydrocarbon chain that contains multiple double bonds
In fatty acid nomenclature, what do the two numbers separated by a colon represent
The two numbers represent chain length and and number of double bonds
Name two characteristics of the most commonly occuring fatty acids
Even numbers of carbon atoms, in an unbranched chain of 12-24 carbons
Where is the double bond located in most monounsaturated fatty acids?
Between C-9 and C-10
True or False:
Double bonds on polyunsaturated fatty acids have alternating single and double bonds
False
What usually separates double bonds in polyunsaturated fatty acids?
A methylene group
What configuration are the double bonds in nearly all naturally occuring unsaturated fatty acids?
Cis configuration
How are trans fatty acids produced?
By fermentation in the rumen of dairy animals. Obtained from dairy products and meat
Describe an omega-3 fatty acid
It's polyunsaturated with a double bond between C-3 and C-4, near methyl end of hydrocarbon chain
Describe an omega-6 fatty acid
It's polyunsaturated with a double bond between C-6 and C-7, near methyl end of hydrocarbon chain
True or False:
Humans require but cannot enzymatically produce the omega-3 fatty acid alpha linolenic acid (ALA)?
True
What other two omega-3 fatty acids can humans synthesize from ALA?
Eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid
What is the optimal dietary ration of omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acids?
Between 1:1 and 4:1
Where can omega-3s be obtained?
Leafy vegetables and fish oils
What largely determines the physical properties of fatty acids and the compounds that contain them?
Length and degree of unsaturation of hydrocarbon chain
What causes fatty acids to have lower solubility in water?
The longer the nonpolar hydrocarbon chain is and the fewer double bonds it contains
The carboxylic acid group in the fatty acid is _________ at neutral pH?
Polar and ionized
True or False:
Carboxylic acid group in fatty acids account for a slight solubility of short-chain fatty acids in water
True
What is the physical property of saturated fatty acids at room temperature from 12:0 to 24:0?
Have a waxy consistency
What is the physical property of unsaturated fatty acids that are 12-24 carbons long?
Oily liquid
What accounts for the difference in melting point between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?
Different degrees of packing in the fatty acid molecules. Unsaturated fatty acids have kinks and therefore cannot be packed tightly together
In fully saturated compounds, where does free rotation occur and what does it do?
Free rotation occurs around each carbon-carbon bond and gives the hydrocarbon chain great flexibility
Define Gibb's free energy
It is the amount energy capable of doing work during a reaction (of constant temperature and pressure)
When the progression of a reaction causes a release of free energy (system goes to a lower energy state), what is the free energy change?
The free energy change is negative
Define enthalpy
Enthalpy describes the change in heat in a reacting system
What is enthalpy when the progression of a reaction causes a release of heat?
Enthalpy is negative and the reaction is exothermic
Define entropy
A quantitative expression for the randomness or disorder in a system
What happens when the products of a reaction are less ordered or complex than the reactants?
There is a gain in entropy (positive)
For any physical or chemical change, the total amount of energy in the universe _______ _______ (1st law of thermodynamics)
Remains constant
Restate the 1st law of thermodynamics
Energy can change form or be transported from one region to another, but it cannot be created or destroyed
The universe always tends toward _________ disorder. In all natural processes, the entropy of the universe _________
Increasing; increases
Define a reacting system
The collection of matter that is undergoing a particular chemical or physical process
Give examples of a reacting system
A cell, an organism, or two reacting compounds
Define an open system
An open system can exchange matter and energy with its surroundings
Give an example of an open system
Living cells and organisms, since they take up nutrients, release waste products, generate work and heat
Define a closed system
A closed system cannot exchange matter and energy with its surroundings
Give an example of a closed system
A chemical reaction happening in a perfectly insulated beaker
If the entropy of the universe is always increasing, how do living systems create more ordered structures (protein, DNA, etc.) out of less structured components?
The reactions that are happening in a living organism never go to their equilibrium state, which means less entropy due to the constant influx of energy from nutrients
What defines the equilibrium constant?
The concentrations of the reactants and products at equilibrium
Free energy change is ________ related to the equilibrium constant
Directly
The composition of a reacting system tends to _________ _________ until equilibrium is reached
Continue changing
When a reacting system is not at equilibrium, the tendency to move toward equilibrium is quantified by what?
The free energy change
If a reaction is occurring at conditions other than the standard, what depends on reactant and product concentrations?
Actual free energy change
What happens when actual free energy change of any reaction proceeds spontaneously towards its equilibrium?
It is dynamic and becomes less negative as the reaction proceeds and is zero at equilibrium
In living cells, reactions that would be extremely slow if uncatalyzed are caused to proceed by the use of an ________
Enzyme
What is an enzyme?
It provides an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy
The toral free energy change for a reaction is _________ of the pathway by which it occurs
Independent
What does the total free energy change for a reaction depend on?
The nature and concentrations of the reactants and products
Enzymes cannot change __________ __________, but they increase the ______ at which a reaction proceeds in the direction directed by thermodynamics
Equilibrium constants; rate
Standard free energy changes are _________, since each reaction has its own free energy change and equilibrium constant
Additive
What principle explains how a thermodynamically unfavorable reaction can be driven in the forward direction?
Standard free energy changes are additive, which couples an unfavorable reaction to a highly exergonic reaction through a common intermediate
What does a higher equilibrium constant indicate?
That it is more likely for a reaction to proceed in a forward direction
Enzymes have a high degree of _________ for their substrates
Specificity
What affect do enzymes have on chemical reactions?
They tremendously accelerate them
What type of reactions are enzymes are central to?
Degrade nutrient molecules, transform chemical energy, and make macromolecules from simple precursors
Most enzymes are _________
Protein
What are the additional chemical component called that some enzymes require for their chemical activity?
Cofactors and coenzymes
What are cofactors?
Either one or more inorganic ions, such as Fe2+, Mg2+, Mn2+ or Zn2+
What are coenzymes?
Complex organic or metalloorganic molecules
What do coenzymes act as?
Transient carriers of specific functional groups
Most coenzymes are derived from ___________
Vitamins
Define a prosthetic group
A coenzyme or metal ion that is very tightly or even covalently bound to the enzyme of a protein
Define a holoenzyme
A complete, catalytically active enzyme together with its bound coenzyme and/or metal ions
Define an apoenzyme
It is the protein part of the holoenzyme, also known as the apoprotein
Name the enzyme that catalyzes this reaction ATP + D-glucose---> ADP + D-glucose 6-phosphate
ATP-glucose phosphotransferase
What does ATP-glucose phosphotransferase's name indicate?
That it catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose
How do enzymes work?
They facilitate the transient formation of unstable charged intermediates. They bring together molecules in the proper orientation required for a reaction. They provide a specific environment where the reaction can occur more quickly, some sequester a substrate
Define active site
The pocket of the enzyme where the reaction takes place
Define reaction intermediates
Transient complexes of the enzyme with the substrate and the product, often denoted as ES, EP
Define a reaction coordinate diagram
A picture of how energy changes during the reaction
The starting point for either the forward or reverse reaction is the ____________
Ground state
What does the equilibrium between S and P reflect?
The difference in the free energy of their ground states
What is the rate of a reaction dependent on?
The activation energy
Define activation energy
Energy required for the transformations required for the reaction to proceed in either direction. It is also the difference between the energy levels of the ground state and the transition state
To undergo reaction, molecules must be _________ to a ________ energy level
Raised, higher
At the top of the energy "hill" decay to S or P is ________ ________ because ________________
Equally likely, it is downhill either way
Activation energy is the energy required to attain the __________ _______
Transition state
True or False:
The transition state is a chemical species with significant stability
False, it is the most energetically unstable position and is VERY transient
Describe what the transition state is
A fleeting moment in which events such as bond breakage, bond formation and charge development have proceeded to the precise point at which decay to either substrate or product is equally likely
Higher activation energy results in a ________ reaction
Slower
Enzyme catalysts enhance reaction rates by _________ activation energy
Lowering
True or False:
The reaction reaches equilibrium much faster when catalyst is present
True
True or False:
The enzyme is used up in the process
False
The equilibrium constant K'eq is ___________
Multiplicative K'eq=K'eq1 x K'eq2
Define standard free energy change
Energy change between start, where each reactant and product has a 1M concentration, and end, where reaction is at equilibrium
Define actual free energy change
Energy change between start, which are actual conditions of [S] & [P] at a given point in time (not necessarily "standard conditions" and end, where reaction is at equilibrium
What are the standard conditions of temperature, pressure, pH and concentration of both reactants and products?
Temperature=25 degrees
Pressure=1 atm
pH=7.0
[S] & [P]=1M
When several steps occur in a reaction, the overall rate is determined by the step(s) with the __________ activation energy, called the ____-________ ______
Highest, rate-limiting step
The rate of any reaction is determined by what two things?
The concentration of the reactant(s) and by rate constant, k
What does the rate of reaction (V) represent?
The amount of S that reacts per unit time V=k[S]
What does the rate constant k reflect?
The probability of reaction under a certain set of conditions (temperature, pH, etc.)
The larger the k, the _________ the reaction
Faster
If it is a second-order reaction, what does the reaction rate depend on?
The concentration of two different compounds or two molecules of the same compound
What is the rate equation of a second-order reaction?
V=k[S1][S2]
What is the relationship between the rate constant and activation energy?
It is inverse and exponential
How do enzymes lower activation energy enough to cause huge rate enhancements?
Rearrangement of covalent bonds and non-covalent interactions between substrate and enzyme
When an enzyme is present, reactions can take place between a substrates' and enzymes' _____________ ________
Functional groups
What forces do the substrate and enzyme interact through? Give examples
Weak forces such as hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic and ionic interactions
What occurs when an enzyme and substrate form a specific ES complex?
A small amount of free energy is released
Define binding energy
The free energy released by all weak interactions formed between enzyme and substrate
Binding energy is a _______ source of free energy used by enzymes to lower activation energies of reactions
Major
What causes the weak interactions to form in an ES complex?
The specificity of an enzyme for a substrate
Weak interactions between enzyme and substrate are ______ in the transition state
Optimal
Enzyme-substrate interaction are like a ______ and ______
Lock and key
Why is an enzyme complementary to the substrate so ineffective?
The stable ES impedes the bending that must occur to reach the transition state, since it has a much lower energy state than S. Thus, from this ES, activation energy is much higher than from S
Why is an enzyme complementary to the transition state so effective?
Interactions are maximized at the transition state, which partially offsets the energy that must go into making the bent state
The weak interactions that are formed only in the __________ ______ are those that make the biggest contribution to lowering activation energy
Transition state
Name one reason why enzymes (and some coenzymes) are so large
The requirement for multiple weak interactions to drive catalysis
When is optimal binding usually achieved?
When the substrate is in an active site where it is effectively removed from water
What occurs if an enzyme active site has functional groups that are arranged so that weak interactions with the substrate are maximized at the transition state
The enzyme will not be able to interact to the same degree with any other molecule, enzyme is specific
What energy can be used to to overcome physical and thermodynamic barriers?
Binding energy
Name the factors that contribute to the activation energy
(1) Entropy of molecules in solution (2) Solvation shell of hydrogen-bonded H2O (3) Distortion of substrate molecules (4) Need for proper alignment of catalytic functional groups on enzyme
How does entropy (freedom of motion) of molecules in solution increase the activation energy?
It reduces the possibility that molecules will come into contact
How does the solvation shell of hydrogen-bonded H2O hinder the reaction?
It surrounds most molecules in aqueous solution
How is binding energy used to overcome barriers to reaching activation energy?
Entropy reduction, formation of a desolvation layer, distorting the substrate molecule(s) and changing the conformation of an enzyme all requires energy
How does decreasing entropy make a reaction much more likely to occur?
Decreasing entropy allows the substrate(s) to be held in place be the enzyme
What do enzyme-substrate interactions replace when a desolvation layer is formed?
They replace many of the hydrogen bonds between the substrate and H2O molecules
Distortion of the substrate molecule(s), esp _________ _____________ may be necessary to achieve the transition state
Electron redistribution
What are enzyme conformation change induced by?
Weak interactions with substrate: "induced fit"
What do enzyme conformation changes do?
They bring enzyme functional groups into the proper position to catalyze the reaction
Enzyme conformation may also open sites for more ______ ________ with the substrate at the transition state
Weak bonding
When can [S] be regarded as constant?
When the very beginning of a reaction is being monitored, since changes in [S] are limited to a few percent
When is the increase in initial velocity the highest?
When [S] is low
How do we know when Vmax is achieved?
When increasing the [S] does not increase the Vo anymore
At any point in time, what two forms do enzymes exist in?
Free enzyme E and the complex ES
What does the Michaelis-Menten equation describe?
A one-substrate enzyme-catalyzed reaction
Which equation gives a more accurate determination of Vmax?
The Lineweaver-Burk equation
The Michaelis-Menten equation show the relationship between Vo and [S] when a reactions is under what type of conditions?
Steady state
When does Km=[S]?
When Vo= 1/2Vmax
Define Kcat
It is a more general rate constant that describes the limiting rate of any enzyme-catalyzed reaction at saturation
What does Kcat incorporate when a reaction doesn't have only one clear rate-limiting step?
It incorporates rate constants of all partially rate-limiting steps
Kcat is a useful parameter in comparing ________ _________
Enzyme activities
What does a competitive inhibitor do?
It competes with the substrate for the active site of an enzyme
How can the competition be biased to favor the substrate?
By adding more substrate
What does an uncompetitive inhibitor do?
It binds at a site distinct from the enzyme active site, and only binds to the ES complex
What does a mixed inhibitor do?
It binds at a site distinct from the enzyme active site, but it can bind to E or ES
What do irreversible inhibitors do?
They bind covalently with or destroy a functional group on an enzyme that is essential for the enzyme's activity
Suicide inhibitors are relatively ___________ until they bind to the active site of a specific enzyme
Unreactive
What happens to a suicide inactivator after it undergoes the first few steps of normal enzymatic reaction?
It is converted to a very reactive compound that combines irreversibly with the enzyme
Suicide inhibitor are also known as what?
Mechanism-based inhibitors
What do regulatory enzymes exhibit in response to certain signals?
Increased or decreased catalytic activity
How do allosteric enzymes function?
Through reversible, noncovalent binding of regulatory compounds
Allosteric enzymes generally have one or more __________ _____ for binding modulators
Regulatory sites
True or False:
Allosteric enzymes generally have large and multiple subunits
True
Describe feedback inhibition
It occurs when a regulatory enzyme is specifically inhibited by the end product of a pathway
True or False:
Allosteric enzymes exhibit the same kinetic properties as mixed and uncompetitive inhibitors
False
_____________ is a common reversible covalent regulatory modification
Phosphorylation
Allosteric enzymes generally have one or more __________ _____ for binding modulators
Regulatory sites
True or False:
Allosteric enzymes generally have large and multiple subunits
True
Describe feedback inhibition
It occurs when a regulatory enzyme is specifically inhibited by the end product of a pathway
True or False:
Allosteric enzymes exhibit the same kinetic properties as mixed and uncompetitive inhibitors
False
_____________ is a common reversible covalent regulatory modification
Phosphorylation
What does phosphorylation introduce to the regulatory enzyme?
A bulky negatively charged group, whose oxygen atoms can hydrogen bond with other groups (like amide groups)
What do multiple phosphorylations allow?
Tight regulation
What is the name of the inactive precursor that is cleaved to form the active enzyme?
Zygomen
Proteolytic cleavage is an _____________ reaction
Irreversible
What kinds of protein bind tightly to the enzyme's active site after it is exposed from cleavage?
Inhibitor proteins
Why are carbohydrates important?
They are the most abundant biomolecules on earth, sugar and starches are dietary staples
Oxidation of carbohydrates is a central __________-_________ pathway
Energy-yielding
Carbohydrate polymers (glycans) serve as structural and protective elements in what?
The cell walls of bacteria and plants and in connective tissues of animals
What do monosaccharides consist of?
A single polyhydroxy (two or more hydroxyl groups) aldehyde or ketone units
In an aldehyde, where is the carbonyl located?
At the end of the carbon chain
In a ketone, where is the carbonyl located?
Between two carbon atoms
Describe what type of solid monosaccharides are
Colorless and crystalline
Monosaccharides are freely soluble in _____ but insoluble in _______ ___________
Water, nonpolar solvents
Describe the backbones of common monosaccharides
Unbranched carbon chains in which all carbon atoms are linked by single bonds
When do monosaccharides tend to form a cyclic structure?
When they have 5 or more carbons in their chains
True or False:
Many of the carbon atoms to which hydroxyl groups are attached are chiral centers
True
Most naturally occurring sugars are in what isomer form?
D-isomer
What are two sugars that differ only in the configuration around one carbon called?
Epimers
Which group forms a covalent bond with an oxygen of the hydroxyl group for a monosaccharide to have a cyclic structure?
The carbonyl group
What is produced when the carbonyl group forms a covalent bond with the oxygen in the hydroxyl group?
An additional chiral carbon (alpha form and beta form)
What does the alpha form in cyclic structures indicate?
That the hydroxyl group at the anomeric center is in the opposite direction (trans) as the hydroxyl on the farthest chiral carbon
What does the beta form in the cyclic structures indicate?
That the hydroxyl group at the anomeric center is in the same direction (cis) as the hydroxyl on the farthest chiral carbon
What are the alpha and beta form of the ring structures called?
Anomers
What is the difference between conformations and configurations?
Conformations are interconvertible without the breakage of covalent bonds, while configurations are isomers and covalent bonds would have to be broken
True or False:
Interconversion of ring structures happen readily because it doesn't stress the ring
False
Why is conformation important?
Important for determining the biological properties and functions of some polysaccharides
In the synthesis and metabolism of carbohydrates, what are the intermediates?
Sugars phosphorylated derivatives
Sugar phosphates are relatively _______ at neutral pH and bear a __________ charge
Stable, negative
What is one effect of sugar phosphorylation within cells?
To trap the sugar inside the cell since most cells do not have plasma membrane transporters for phosphorylated sugars
What do disaccharides consist of?
Two monosaccharides joined covalently by an O-glycosidic bond
What is the end of chain with a free anomeric carbon called when describing disaccharides or polysaccharides?
Reducing end
True or False:
Most carbohydrates in nature occur as disaccharides
False. They occur as polysaccharides
Describe polysaccharides
They are polymers of medium to high molecular weight
How do polysaccharides differ from each other?
Identity of their recurring monosaccharide units, the length of their chains, and their degree of branching
What is the difference between homo and heteropolysaccharides?
Homo contain only a single monomeric species while hetero contain two or more species
Which polysaccharide serves as a storage form of monosaccharides that are used as fuel?
Homopolysaccharides
Which polysaccharide serves as structural elements in plant cell walls and animal exoskeletons?
Homopolysaccharides
Which polysaccharide provides extracellular support for organisms of all kinds?
Heteropolysaccharides
Why do polysaccharides generally do not have a defined molecular weight?
There is no template for polysaccharide synthesis and there is no specific stopping point in the synthetic process
What are the most important storage polysaccharides in pant cells and in animal cells?
Starch in plant cells and glycogen in animal cells
Starch and glycogen molecules are heavily _________, because they have many exposed __________ ________ available to hydrogen bond with water
Hydrated, hydroxyl groups
Starch contains which two types of glucose polymers?
Amylose and amylopectin
Describe amylose
Consists of long unbranched chains of D-glucose residues
Describe amylopectin
Highly branched
Which starch glucose polymer is glycogen similar to?
Amylopectin
Which carbon becomes the anomeric carbon when a ring structure is being formed?
The former carbonyl carbon
The alpha and beta anomers of D-glucose can interconvert in a process known as what?
Mutorotation
What are glycosaminoglycans?
Linear polymers of repeating disaccharide units with a helical 3-D structure. Found in ECM
What are proteoglycans?
Marcromolecules of the cell surface or ECM in which one or more sulfated glycosaminoglycan chains are joined covalently to a membrane protein or secreted protein
What are glycoproteins?
Proteins with one or more oligosaccharides covalently attached
Where are glycoproteins found?
On the outer face of the plasma membrane, in specific organelles (golgi), in the ECM, and in blood
What are glycolipids?
Membrane sphingolipids with oligosaccharides as their hydrophillic head group
Where are glycolipids located?
On the outer face of plasma membrane
What are lectins?
They are carbohydrate-binding proteins
What does the oligosaccharide portion of glyoproteins and glycolipids do?
They form highly specific sites for lectin recognition
Cells use specific oligosaccharides for what?
Intracellular targeting proteins, cell-cell interactions, extracellular signaling and cell differentiation and tissue development
Lectins are often _________, which enable crosslinking of ligands
Polyvalent
Binding of lectins can affect the stability of ___________
Glycoproteins
True or False:
Analysis of oligosaccharides is more complicated than for proteins
True
How are the positions of glycosidic bonds determined?
By methylating the free hydroxyl groups and then hydrolyzing the polysaccharide