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180 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment in the face of a fluctuating external environment is called

A. metabolism.
B. cellular respiration.
C. growth and development.
D. homeostasis.
E. functional proteomics and genomics.
D. homeostasis.
2. All of the chemical reactions used to break down nutrients and build up components within the body are collectively known as
A. anabolism.
B. catabolism.
C. metabolism.
D. proteolysis.
E. hydrolysis
C. metabolism.
. Which level of organization is required for all others to form?
A. cell
B. tissue
C. organ
D. organism
E. population
A. cell
4. When cells associate with each other they form
A. atoms.
B. molecules.
C. macromolecules.
D. tissues.
E. populations.
D. tissues.
5. A flower on a plant represents which level of organization?
A. atom
B. cell
C. organ
D. organism
E. population
C. organ
6. Which of the following is True of a genetic mutation?
A. It always produces harmful effects.
B. It never affects protein structure or function.
C. It is not a mechanism through which biological evolution occurs.
D. It happens quite frequently in a population.
E. It generally produces a change in the DNA sequence of a gene.
E. It generally produces a change in the DNA sequence of a gene.
7. New species evolve from pre-existing species by the accumulation of
A. metabolic events.
B. genetic mutations.
C. proteomes.
D. reproductive events.
E. developmental events.
B. genetic mutations.
8. Biologists use nomenclature or the binomial to provide each species with a unique scientific name. Our species is called Homo sapiens. The first word refers to which taxonomical grouping?
A. Kingdom
B. Phylum
C. Order
D. Genus
E. Species
D. Genus
9. The complete genetic composition of an organism is called its
A. proteome.
B. genome.
C. transcriptosome.
D. phenotype.
E. None of these choices are correct.
B
10. An explanation for a biological process that is substantiated by a large body of evidence is called a
A. hypothesis.
B. theory.
C. systems biology.
D. reductionism.
E. prediction.
B
11. Collecting data without a specific hypothesis in mind is called
A. reductionism.
B. hypothesis testing.
C. discovery-based science.
D. theoretical.
E. All of these choices are correct.
C
12. These are the smallest functional units of matter that form all chemical substances and that cannot be further broken down by ordinary chemical or physical means.
A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. atoms
E. molecules
D
13. The atomic number of an atom is
A. the number of protons in the atom.
B. the number of neutrons in the atom.
C. the number of protons and electrons in the atom.
D. the number of protons and neutrons in the atom.
E. None of these choices are correct.
A
14. The first
inner-most energy shell of an atom
A. can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
B. can have a maximum of 2 electrons.
C. is called the 2p orbital.
D. is called the 1s orbital and can have a maximum of 8 electrons.
E. is called the 2p orbital and can have a maximum of 2 electrons.
15. Nitrogen has 7 electrons and can form a maximum of ________ bonds with other elements.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
C
16. Which of the following is NOT a molecule?
A. H2
B. H2O
C. CH4
D. O2
E. H
E
17. This is formed when an atom loses an electron to another atom.
A. polar covalent bond
B. cations and anions that can form ionic bonds
C. covalent bond
D. hydrogen bond
E. nonpolar covalent bond
B
18. Which of the following chemical bonds is the strongest?
A. hydrogen
B. Van der Waal forces
C. hydrophobic interactions
D. ionic
E. covalent
E
19. What type of bonds form from the unequal sharing of electrons?
A. hydrogen
B. ionic
C. polar covalent
D. nonpolar covalent
E. electrostatic
C
20. Which of the following is TRUE of a chemical reaction?
A. It requires no energy.
B. It rarely occurs with a catalyst present.
C. It changes a substance from one form to another.
D. It is limited to only a few types of organisms.
E. They are usually irreversible.
C
21. Amphipathic molecules
A. possess only hydrophilic properties.
B. possess only hydrophobic properties.
C. possess both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
D. possess neither hydrophilic nor hydrophobic properties.
E. Tend not to interact with other molecules.
C
22. The molarity of a solution is
A. a measure of solute concentration.
B. the weight of a solid substance.
C. often expressed as grams per unit volume.
D. reflects a measure of the amount of oil dissolved in a water.
E. a scientific term for determining the solubility of a substance in water.
A
23. Which of the following is not true of water?
A. It is polar.
B. It has a high heat of vaporization.
C. It has cohesive properties.
D. Its evaporation helps regulate body temperature.
E. It is a relatively poor solvent.
E
24. If orange juice has a pH of 4 then
A. the H+ concentration is 4.
B. it is an acidic solution.
C. it is an alkaline solution.
D. it is an acidic solution with a H+ concentration of 4.
E. None of these choices are correct.
B
25. Which is true about a pH buffer?
A. It increases the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
B. It reduces the amount of H+ in an acidic solution.
C. It reduces the amount of H+ in an alkaline solution.
D. It increases the amount of OH- ions in an alkaline solution.
E. It reduces the amount of OH- in an acidic solution.
B
26. One gram of hydrogen
which has an atomic mass of 1
27. Which of the following are important features of carbon and the diversity of organic molecules?
A. Carbon can form up to 4 covalent bonds with other elements.
B. Carbon bonds may occur in multiple different configurations such as linear
ringlike
28. Which of the following macromolecules are polymers?
A. lipids
B. carboyhydrates
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
29. A monomer is to a polymer
as glucose is to
A. lipids.
B. carboyhydrates.
C. nucleic acids.
D. proteins.
E. None of the choices are correct.
30. This class of macromolecules serves as important energy stores and is a major component of plasma membranes.
A. lipids
B. carbohydrates
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins
E. ions
A
31. What is the main difference between a fat (triglyceride) and a phospholipid?
A. A fat has 4 fatty acids attached to glycerol
whereas a phospholipid has 3.
B. A fat has 3 fatty acids attached to glycerol
32. Which of the following macromolecules is composed of amino acids?
A. lipids
B. carboyhydrates
C. nucleic acids
D. proteins
E. All of the choices are correct.
D
33. With regard to protein structure
which level determines all others?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
E. hepternary
34. Which macromolecule has the highest diversity of functions?
A. carbohydrates
B. proteins
C. nucleic acids
D. lipids
E. glycolipids
B
35. If a specimen contains 30% adenine in its DNA then how much cytosine will there be?
A. 40%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 10%
E. Cannot be determined.
C
36. Which of the following relationships about nucleotide composition in DNA is TRUE?
A. C+G=A+T
B. C+A=G+T
C. C=A
D. G=T
E. C=T
B
37. ___________ are the building blocks of DNA.
A. genes
B. double helices
C. amino acids
D. nucleotides
E. chromosomes
D
38. Which of the following is the highest (or most complex) level of structure for genetic material?
A. nucleotide
B. double helix
C. DNA
D. gene
E. chromosome
E
39. Beginning with the simplest level of structure
which order of organization of genetic material is CORRECT?
A. DNA
40. What is the complement DNA strand to 5′-ATTCGGTGA-3′?
A. 5′-TAAGCCACT-3′
B. 3′-CGGATTGTC-5′
C. 5′-CGGATTGTC-3′
D. 3′-TAAGCCACT-5′
E. 3′-ATTCGGTGA-5′
D
41. DNA is a double helix structure whose strands are held together by hydrogen bonds with A to T and C to G base pairing.
TRUE
42. ________ attaches DNA sequences at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A. Polymerase
B. Ligase
C. Telomerase
D. Topoisomerase
E. Primase
C
43. The function(s) of DNA polymerase includes which of the following?
A. DNA synthesis
B. DNA proofreading
C. removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps
D. DNA synthesis and proofreading
E. DNA synthesis
DNA proofreading
44. Bread mold can grow in a minimal medium without supplements (wild type) while certain mutated strains (mutants) can only grow in a minimal medium that is supplemented with specific intermediates found in the following metabolic pathway for arginine synthesis:
minimal ------> ornithine -------> citrulline ------> arginine
where enzyme 1 converts the precursor to ornithine
45. The process that produces mRNA from DNA is called
A. transcription.
B. translation.
C. replication.
D. processing.
E. post-translational modification.
A
46. The processes of transcription and translation are collectively known as
A. RNA processing.
B. gene duplication.
C. protein synthesis.
D. DNA synthesis.
E. gene expression.
E
47. A(n) ______ is an organized unit of DNA sequences that enables a segment of DNA to be transcribed into RNA and ultimately results in the formation of a functional product.
A. chromosome
B. trait
C. allele
D. gene
E. expression
D
48. Which of the following are products of nonstructural genes
and are therefore never translated?
A. transfer RNA
B. ribosomal RNA
C. messenger RNA
D. transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA
E. ribosomal RNA and messenger RNA
49. Transcription begins near a site in the DNA called the ______
while the terminator specifies the end of transcription.
A. promoter
B. enhancer
C. response element
D. transcription unit
E. regulatory sequence
50. If a DNA template strand has a sequence of 3′ TACAATGTAGCC 5′
then the RNA produced from it will be which sequence?
A. 3′TACAATGTAGCC5′
B. 5′ATGTTACATCGG3′
C. 5′AUGUUACAUCGG3'
D. 3′AUGUUACAUCGG5′
E. 3′ATGTTACATCGG5′
51. Which protein influences the ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe genes?
A. DNA polymerases
B. DNA helicases
C. transcription factors
D. snRNPs
E. tRNA
C
52. Intervening sequences that are transcribed
but not translated into protein are called
A. exons.
B. introns.
C. splicesomes.
D. transposons.
E. transcription factors.
53. Which of the following would occur if a cell's splicesomes were mutated so they no longer functioned normally?
A. Introns would remain in the mature mRNA.
B. Exons would be missing in the mature mRNA.
C. Transcription would cease.
D. A functional protein would still be produced.
E. RNA processing would remain intact.
A
54. What is the function of the poly A tail?
A. The poly A tail is required for the proper exit of mRNA from the nucleus.
B. The poly A tail allows mRNA to bind to the ribosome.
C. The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes.
D. The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in prokaryotes.
E. The poly A tail serves as a termination sequence for RNA polymerase III.
C
55. How many nucleotides are contained in a single codon?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 9
B
56. Which of the following serves as the 'translator' or intermediary between an mRNA codon and an amino acid?
A. rRNA
B. snRNA
C. tRNA
D. siRNA
E. snRNPs
C
57. What enzyme catalyzes the attachment of amino acids to tRNA molecules?
A. helicase
B. topoisomerase
C. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
D. ribosome
E. translation factor
C
58. A ________ bond holds the amino acids of a growing polypeptide chain together during the elongation stage of translation.
A. hydrogen
B. peptide
C. glycosidic
D. noncovalent
E. lactose
B
59. The term N-terminus refers to the presence of a(n) ________ at the 5′ end of a polypeptide.
A. oxygen atom
B. carboxyl group
C. amino group
D. carbonyl group
E. sulfate group
C
60. Which sequence of events is most CORRECT for the initiation and elongation steps of translation?
(1) initiator tRNA binds start codon on mRNA
(2) small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
(3) large ribosomal subunit binds
(4) tRNA entry and peptidyl transfer reaction
(5) translocation of ribosome and release of tRNA
A. 1
2
1. The ability of cells to control their level of gene expression is called
A. gene transformation.
B. gene regulation.
C. gene splicing.
D. gene addition.
E. gene correction.
B
2. Which of the following could alter the level of expression of a gene?
A. an increase in environmental temperature
B. an increase in salinity
C. exposure to UV radiation
D. presence of a particular energy substrate
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
3. Which of the following are points of control for gene expression in eukaryotes?
A. RNA processing
B. translation
C. transcription
D. post-translational
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
4. Why is the operon arrangement of genes beneficial to certain bacteria?
A. It allows for the differential regulation of individual genes that encode proteins with a common function.
B. It allows the coordinated regulation of a group of genes that encode proteins with a common function.
C. It allows the separate regulation of individual genes that encode proteins with different functions.
D. It allows the coordinated regulation of a group of genes that encode proteins with different functions.
E. It allows for coordinated regulation of a group of proteins involved in numerous cellular activities.
B
5. Which of the following would occur if there were a mutation in the lacO site (lac Operator) of the lac operon?
A. Binding of RNA polymerase could be hindered.
B. Binding of a repressor protein could be hindered.
C. Binding of the activator protein could be hindered.
D. Duplication could be affected.
E. The order in which the genes of the lac operon are transcribed could be altered.
B
6. Which of the following occurs when allolactose levels increase in E. coli?
A. Transcription of genes within the lac operon increases.
B. Transcription of genes within the lac operon decreases.
C. Transcription of genes within the lac operon does not change.
D. E. coli cells replicate rapidly.
E. The tryptophan operon becomes more active.
A
7. Which of the following occurs in E. coli when lactose is absent from its environment?
A. Large amounts of b-galactosidase
lactose permease
8. Jacob
Monod
9. Which of the following molecules is a corepressor for the trp operon?
A. glucose
B. cAMP
C. tryptophan
D. CAP
E. lactose
C
10. Which of the following is a FALSE statement about the difference in gene regulation between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Eukaryotic genes are usually organized individually
while prokaryotic genes are grouped for common functions.
B. Eukaryotic genes are regulated by small effector molecules whereas prokaryotic genes are not.
C. Eukaryotic gene regulation is more intricate than prokaryotic gene regulation.
D. Eukaryotic genes are arranged into operons
11. The core promoter in eukaryotes is usually composed of which two features?
A. transcriptional start site and enhancer
B. transcriptional start site and response elements
C. transcriptional start site and TATA box
D. enhancer and TATA box
E. response elements and TATA box
C
12. An activator is to an enhancer as a(n) _____ is to a silencer.
A. transcription factor
B. inducer
C. repressor
D. mediator
E. RNA polymerase II
C
13. What is the effect of DNA methylation?
A. It increases transcription.
B. It inhibits transcription.
C. It increases crossover events.
D. It decreases crossover events.
E. It promotes post-translational modification of proteins.
B
14. Where is the response element found in eukaryotic genes?
A. 10 to 20 base pairs downstream from the transcriptional start site
B. 50 to 100 base pairs downstream from the transcriptional start site
C. 50 to 100 base pairs upstream from the transcriptional start site
D. 10 to 20 base pairs upstream from the TATA box
E. 500 to 10
000 base pairs from the enhancer site
15. Which of the following are principles of the cell theory or cell doctrine?
A. All living things are composed of one or more cells.
B. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms.
C. New cells come only from pre-existing cells by cell division.
D. Cells are the smallest unit of living organisms and new cells form from pre-existing cells by cell division.
E. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells
cells are the smallest units of life
16. Which of the following reflects a primary difference between transmission and scanning electron microscopy?
A. Transmission electron microscopy has high resolution
but scanning electron microscopy does not.
B. Transmission electron microscopy shows contrast
17. Prokaryotes
A. lack a true nucleus.
B. lack true DNA.
C. use the cell membrane rather than ribosomes for making proteins.
D. contain numerous organelles.
E. are relatively benign cells incapable of harming organisms.
A
18. The cell wall is a common feature to
A. prokaryotic cells only.
B. plant cells only.
C. animal cells only.
D. prokaryotic and plant cells.
E. prokaryotic
plant
19. Which of the following might account for the general structural and functional differences between a nerve and smooth muscle cell within an individual?
A. The proteome differs between muscle and nerve cells.
B. The genome (DNA) differs between muscle and nerve cells.
C. The relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
D. The proteome and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
E. The genome (DNA) and the relative amounts of certain proteins differ between muscle and nerve cells.
D
20. Which of the statements about the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) is INCORRECT?
A. Translation is the process of protein synthesis.
B. Proteins are synthesized in the cytosol.
C. The synthesis of proteins is a catabolic process.
D. The synthesis of proteins requires ribosomes.
E. Proteins are synthesized from mRNA template.
C
21. The cytoskeleton and motor proteins are important for which of the following processes?
A. cell motility
B. whipping motion of sperm flagella
C. movement of amoeba by lamellopodia
D. muscle contraction
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
22. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that produce which of the following molecules?
A. steroids
B. lipids
C. glucose
D. starches
E. proteins
E
23. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell?
A. Golgi apparatus→lysosome→vesicles→plasma membrane
B. plasmid→plasma membrane→nuclear envelope→smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. nuclear envelope→vesicles→Golgi apparatus→plasma membrane
D. rough endoplasmic reticulum→lysosomes→vesicles→cell membrane
E. rough endoplasmic reticulum→ Golgi apparatus→vesicles →plasma membrane
E
24. In eukaryotes
which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane?
A. barrier for separating extracellular and intracellular environments of a cell
B. cell-to-cell adhesion
C. selective transport
D. ATP synthesis
E. cell signaling
25. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. lysosome-protein synthesis
B. cytoskeleton-microfilaments
C. nucleus-DNA replication
D. cell membrane-lipid bilayer
E. Golgi apparatus-modification
processing
26. Which of the following organisms is likely to contain biomembranes?
A. plants
B. animals
C. prokaryotes
D. plants and animals
E. All living organisms contain biomembranes.
E
27. A scientist produces an artificial membrane from phospholipids and notices that oxygen
but not glucose readily moves through the membrane. What might account for the inability of glucose to move through the artificial membrane?
A. The artificial membrane lacked a protein needed for glucose transport.
B. The artificial membrane lacked the appropriate types of phospholipids for glucose transport.
C. Oxygen readily passes through the membrane
28. Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma membranes?
A. glycosylated proteins
B. phospholipids
C. glycolipids
D. glycosylated nucleic acids
E. cholesterol
D
29. Which of the following statements is TRUE of membrane phospholipids?
A. The hydrophilic head groups face the interior portion of the membrane.
B. The hydrophobic tail groups face the exterior portion of the membrane.
C. They spontaneously flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other.
D. They freely move laterally within the membrane.
E. They rarely flip-flop across or move laterally within the membrane.
D
30. Cellular membranes are mosaic and
A. fluid.
B. rigid.
C. symmetrical.
D. highly permeable to large molecules.
E. All of the choices are correct.
A
31. Which of the following is important for allowing large
charged molecules to pass through the membrane?
A. peripheral proteins
B. cholesterol
C. glycosylated lipids
D. transmembrane proteins
E. carbohydrate channels
32. The pressure required to stop water from moving across the membrane by osmosis is called
A. transport pressure.
B. crenation pressure.
C. atmospheric pressure.
D. osmotic pressure.
E. mechanical pressure.
D
33. The movement of sucrose and H+ into the cell by a common membrane protein reflects transport through a
A. voltage-gated channel.
B. mechanosensitive channel.
C. uniporter.
D. symporter.
E. antiporter.
D
34. The statements about transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol (low Ca2+ concentration) into the endoplasmic reticulum (high Ca2+ concentration) are true EXCEPT which of the following?
A. Calcium movement involves the use of a pump.
B. Calcium movement involves active transport.
C. Calcium movement occurs by facilitated diffusion using a transporter protein.
D. Calcium movement requires energy.
E. Calcium movement occurs through a transmembrane protein.
C
35. All of the following have potential energy EXCEPT
A. ATP.
B. nitrogen.
C. an electrical/ion gradient.
D. concentration gradient.
E. NADH
B
36. According to the first law of thermodynamics
A. the transfer of energy increases the disorder of a system.
B. the transfer of energy increases entropy.
C. energy cannot be created or destroyed.
D. once energy is created it can be destroyed.
E. kinetic energy is based on location.
C
37. Which of the following is TRUE for a reaction that has a ΔG<0?
A. The reaction will require energy.
B. The reaction will yield energy.
C. The reaction is spontaneous.
D. The reaction will require energy and is spontaneous.
E. The reaction will yield energy and is spontaneous.
E
38. Which is True of the following reaction: Pi+ADP--> ATP?
A. It has a change in free energy that is less than 0.
B. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0.
C. It can be used to drive endergonic reactions.
D. It yields energy.
E. It has a change in free energy that is greater than 0
and hence can be used to drive endergonic reactions.
39. Which of the following reactions would require the hydrolysis of at least two ATP molecules (ΔG = -14.6 kCal) for it to occur?
A. A reaction that has a ΔG = -8 kCal.
B. A reaction that has a ΔG = +8 kCal.
C. A reaction that has a ΔG = -16 kCal.
D. A reaction that has a ΔG = +16 kCal.
E. A reaction that has a ΔG = -14.6 kCal.
B
40. How does an enzyme work to catalyze a reaction?
A. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction.
B. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state.
C. It lowers the energy of activation of a reaction
D. It supplies the energy to speed up a reaction and lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state.
E. It lowers the energy barrier needed for reactants to achieve the transition state or lowers the energy of activation of a reaction.
E
41. Which of the following would best reflect the general steps of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
A. enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released.
B. substrates bind to enzyme →substrates are converted to products → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → products are released
C. substrates bind to enzyme → enzyme undergoes conformational changes → substrates are converted to products → products are released
D. enzyme undergoes conformational changes →substrates are converted to products → substrates bind to enzyme → products are released
E. substrates bind to enzyme → substrates are converted to products → products are released → enzyme undergoes conformational changes
C
42. Which term most precisely describes the process of building larger molecules from smaller ones?
A. exergonic
B. catabolism
C. metabolism
D. hydrolysis
E. anabolism
E
43. For the generalized equation Ae- +B →A + Be-
where e represents an electron. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Molecule A is reduced.
B. Molecule B is oxidzied.
C. Molecule A is oxidized.
D. Molecule B is reduced.
E. Both molecule A is oxidized and molecule B is reduced.
44. Which of the following statements about feedback inhibition in metabolic pathways is most CORRECT?
A. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by binding reactants in the metabolic pathway.
B. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by competitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enzyme within the metabolic pathway.
C. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively inhibiting the binding of a substrate to the active site of an enyzme within the metabolic pathway.
D. The product of the pathway inhibits its own production by noncompetitively binding to reactants.
E. All of the choices are correct.
C
45. Which of the following structures or molecular machines is important for protein degradation in eukaryotes?
A. cytoskeleton
B. flagellum
C. ribosome
D. ATP synthase
E. proteasome
E
46. Which two are primary complexes for protein synthesis and degradation in eukaryotes?
A. ribosomes and proteasomes
B. ribosomes and lysosomes
C. proteases and lysosomes
D. proteases and proteasomes
E. ribosomes and mRNA
A
47. Which of the following statements about catabolic reactions is FALSE?
A. They recycle organic building blocks.
B. They produce energy like ATP.
C. They produce energy in the form of energy intermediates like NADH.
D. They occur through the oxidation of substrates.
E. They usually require an input of energy.
E
48. Which of the following is NOT true for ATP?
A. It is produced from ATP synthase.
B. It is produced by a rotary machine.
C. Its production requires an exergonic reaction.
D. Its hydrolysis yields energy.
E. Its hydrolysis can drive endergonic reactions.
C
49. Temperature
pH
50. Noncompetitive inhibition within a metabolic pathway prevents excess accumulation of the pathway's product. This occurs when the product binds the active site of an enzyme
reducing its activity
51. The equation
C6H12O6 + 6O2 →6CO2 + 6H2O (ATP + Heat)
52. Which of the following is TRUE of the citric acid cycle?
A. It yields most of the NAD+ in cell respiration.
B. It produces oxygen.
C. It yields ATP
NADH
53. Cellular respiration produces the most chemical in the form of ATP from which of the following?
A. the electron transport chain
B. the citric acid cycle
C. substrate-level phosphorylation
D. glycolysis
E. oxidative phosphorylation
E
54. How many net ATP and NADH molecules are produced from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A. 4 ATP
2 NADH
B. 3 ATP
55. High-energy electrons from molecules of NADH and FADH2 are transferred to a chain of proteins within the electron transport chain. What is the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
C. cytochrome c
D. ubiquinone
E. NAD+
C
56. Which of the following statements is TRUE of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate.
B. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
C. Both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct.
D. Both use glycolysis to oxidize glucose to pyruvate and both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates.
E. Both produce NADH as high-energy intermediates and both produce either lactic acid or enthanol as a bioproduct.
D
57. Which of the following is most directly responsible for driving ATP synthase and the production of ATP in cellular respiration?
A. The electron transport chain pumping H+ from the mitochondrial matrix into the intermembrane space.
B. The flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
C. The loss in free energy that occurs as an electron moves down the transport chain.
D. The H+ electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondria membrane.
E. The ability of oxygen to rapidly capture an electron and energize ATP synthase.
E
58. Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain in cell respiration is CORRECT?
A. Electrons move from NADH to a chain of proteins with lower electronegativities.
B. The electron transport chain of proteins uses ATP to pump H+ across the inner mitochondria membrane against its electrochemical gradient.
C. The loss in free energy of the electron initially donated by NADH is used to transport H+ across the inner mitochondrial membrane against its electrochemical gradient.
D. The electron transport chain of proteins contains pores that are leaky to H+.
E. The ATP synthase pump generates a H+ gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
C
59. Where are the protein complexes associated with the electron transport chain located?
A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol
C
60. The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by
A. substrate-level phosphorylation.
B. electron transport.
C. photophosphorylation.
D. chemisosmosis.
E. oxidation of NADH to NAD+
A
1. Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary metabolite?
A. glucose
B. flavonoids
C. terpenoids
D. alkoloids
E. polyketides
A
2. The ability of bread to rise is mainly a function of the CO2 produced during oxidative phosphorylation rather than that produced from fermentation.
FALSE
3. Secondary metabolites like caffeine are produced mainly from plant sources.
TRUE
4. These organisms most specifically utilize light energy to make organic molecules from inorganic molecules.
A. photoautotrophs
B. photoheterotrophs
C. photoisotrophs
D. photohemitrophs
E. heterotrophs
A
5. Which of the following organisms produce organic matter from inorganic molecules?
A. photosynthetic bacteria
B. plants
C. algae
D. autotrophs
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
6. The equation
6CO2 + 6H2O →C6H12O6 + 6O2
7. In what portion of the plant does photosynthesis takes place?
A. mesophyll
B. chloroplast
C. thylakoid membrane
D. grana
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
8. Which of the following statements would be most INCORRECT if there were a sudden decline in plants on Earth?
A. Oxygen levels in the environment might decline.
B. The rate of photosynthesis in existing plants would decline.
C. There would be less organic matter on Earth.
D. A decline in the population of herbivores would likely occur.
E. Heterotrophic organisms would be significantly impacted.
B
9. Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?
A. NADPH
B. ATP
C. oxygen
D. carbon dioxide
E. energy intermediates
C
10. Which of the following statements about chlorophyll is correct?
A. It appears green because it absorbs light in the green light spectrum.
B. It reflects all colors in the light spectrum except green.
C. It reflects light in the green light spectrum.
D. It reflects high-energy electrons.
E. All of the choices are correct.
C
11. Which of the following is mismatched with its location?
A. light reaction; grana
B. electron transport; thylakoid membrane
C. Calvin cycle; stroma
D. ATP synthase; intermembrane space
E. splitting of water; thylakoid space
D
12. Which of the following produces NADPH
A. light reactions alone
B. the Calvin cycle alone
C. both light reactions and the Calvin cycle
D. neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle
E. NADPH production is not a part of photosynthesis.
A
13. Which of the following molecules directly converts NADP+ to NADPH?
A. ferrodoxin
B. cytochrome complex
C. NADP reductase
D. plastocyanin
E. RUBISCO
C
14. During noncyclic electron flow of the light reaction
which molecule is the final acceptor of the high-energy electron?
A. oxygen
B. P700
C. NADP+
D. P680
E. ATP synthase
15. During photosynthesis
the energy given up by electrons as they move through the electron transport chain is used to
A. produce glucose.
B. fix CO2.
C. generate an electrochemical H+ gradient across a membrane.
D. oxidize water.
E. boost energy levels of pigment electrons.
16. What is the main role of the pigment molecules within the antenna or light-harvesting complex?
A. Oxidize water and release oxygen to the reaction center chlorophyll.
B. Absorb photons and transfer light energy to the reaction center chlorophyll.
C. Synthesize NADPH.
D. Pass electrons to the electron transport chain and then to NADPH.
E. Increase H+ concentration in the stroma.
B
17. Which of the following statements regarding photosystem II is FALSE?
A. Photosystem II encompasses a series of redox reactions.
B. Photosystem II contains a chlorophyll molecule that absorbs light at 680 nm.
C. Photosystem II strips an electron from water for direct transfer to the electron transport chain.
D. Photosystem II oxidizes water to form oxygen.
E. Photosystem II contains a series of pigments where energy is transferred by resonance energy transfer.
C
18. Which of the following contributes to the electrochemical gradient that exists across the thylakoid membrane during photosynthesis?
A. The electron transport chain.
B. The splitting of water to produce H+ and oxygen in the thylakoid lumen.
C. The depletion of H+ in the stroma during NADPH production.
D. The pumping of H+ into the thylakoid lumen by electron transport proteins.
E. All of the choices are correct.
E
19. What are the primary functions of both photosystems I and II?
A. produce ATP and NADP+
B. produce CO2 and ATP
C. produce ATP and NADPH
D. produce O2
ATP
20. Which portion of the photosynthetic apparatus absorbs light?
A. photosystem I
B. photosystem II
C. NADP reductase
D. both photosystem I and photosystem II
E. both photosystem I and NADP reductase
D
21. Which order of events for the Calvin cycle is correct?
I. Reduction
II. Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor (RuBP)
III. Carbon fixation
A. I
II
22. Where does the Calvin cycle occur?
A. chloroplast inner membrane
B. thylakoid membrane
C. thylakoid lumen
D. chloroplast stroma
E. chloroplast outer membrane
D
23. Which of the following requires both ATP and NADPH?
A. electron transport through the thylakoid membrane
B. the light reaction only
C. the Calvin cycle only
D. both the light reaction and Calvin cycle
E. neither the light reaction nor the Calvin cycle
C
24. All of the following are required for the Calvin cycle EXCEPT
A. CO2.
B. H2O.
C. ATP.
D. NADPH.
E. rubisco.
B
25. Which of the following statements about photorespiration is INCORRECT?
A. Photorespiration tends to occur under dry and hot conditions.
B. It utilizes oxygen to produce a 3-carbon sugar precursor.
C. It liberates CO2.
D. It occurs in C3 plants.
E. It utilizes the enzyme PEP carboxylase rather than Rubisco to produce 3-phosphoglycerate.
E
26. Which of the following has the highest photosynthetic efficiency in hot and dry environments?
A. C3 plants
B. C4 plants
C. plants undergoing photorespiration
D. plants that use oxygen to produce sugars
E. plants that only produce sugar in the dark
B
27. ________ is the process through which cells can detect and respond to signals in their extracellular environment.
A. Cell sensation
B. Cell communication
C. Reception
D. Transduction
E. Sensory response
B
28. A substrate binds an enzyme as a signal molecule binds a
A. second messenger.
B. kinase.
C. receptor.
D. transcriptional factor.
E. G-protein.
C
29. What type of signaling occurs when insulin is secreted from the pancreas and acts on muscle cells to increase glucose uptake?
A. contact-to-contact signaling
B. intercellular signaling
C. autocrine signaling
D. paracrine signaling
E. endocrine signaling
E
30. What do we call molecules involved in long-distance signaling?
A. kinases
B. transcription factors
C. hormones
D. response elements
E. receptors
C
31. What do synaptic signaling and paracrine signaling have in common?
A. Cells release a signal that affects it and neighboring cells.
B. Cells release a signal that affects cells at long distances.
C. Cells release a signal through gap junctions to affect neighboring cells.
D. Cells bind a membrane bound signal on a neighboring cell.
E. Cells release a signal that affects neighboring cells.
E
32. Which of the following is not a common way signals are relayed between cells?
A. Contact-dependent signaling
B. Autocrine signaling
C. Direct intercellular signaling
D. Paracrine signaling
E. All of the above are ways signals are relayed between cells
E
33. The KD or dissociation constant between a receptor and its hormone/ligand is
A. a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone.
B. the hormone concentration where half the receptors are bound to hormone.
C. the hormone concentration where all of the receptors are bound to hormone.
D. both a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone and the hormone concentration where half the receptors are bound to hormone.
E. both a measure of the binding affinity the receptor has for the hormone and the hormone concentration where all the receptors are bound to hormone.
D
34. A key is placed into a keyhole then turned and the door opens. Which of the following components of cell signaling would best correspond to the keyhole?
A. the hormone
B. the receptor
C. conformational change in the receptor once bound to the hormone
D. signal transduction
E. the cell response
B
35. Once bound to a hormone
this receptor becomes active and catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group to itself or intracellular proteins.
A. G-protein coupled receptor
B. enzyme-linked receptor
C. ligand-gated ion channel receptor
D. mechanoreceptor
E. thermoreceptor
36. Following its initial activation
how does a G protein become inactivated?
A. It spontaneously loses activity within a few seconds.
B. The G-protein a subunit containing a GTP eventually reassociates with the G-protein bgdimer.
C. The G-protein a subunit GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP allowing reassociation of the G-protein asubunit and bgdimer.
D. The receptor becomes internalized.
E. The G-protein a subunit is digested and recycled.
37. Which of the following is capable of dephosphorylating molecules?
A. phospholipase C
B. protein kinase A
C. Grb2/Sos/Ras complex
D. phosphatase
E. IP3
C
38. Estrogen is most likely to exert its effects by regulating
A. protein kinases.
B. phopholipase C.
C. expression of genes and production of specific proteins.
D. cyclic AMP.
E. Ca2+.
C
39. A hormone binds a receptor and activates the cAMP signal transduction pathway ultimately leading to the cell response. Which of the following is NOT a likely mechanism for reversing (or shutting off) cAMP transduction?
A. The hormone dissociating from the receptor.
B. The GTP on the alpha subunit of the G protein is hydrolyzed to GDP.
C. Activate phosphodiesterase.
D. Activate adenylyl cyclase.
E. Protein phosphatases remove phosphates from proteins initially activated by protein kinase A.
D
40. The production of second messengers in signal transduction offers at least two advantages
speed and
A. specificity.
B. amplification.
C. one-to-one stochiometry.
D. reversibility.
E. affinity.
41. Phospholipase C hydrolyzes a membrane phospholipid to produce
A. IP3 only.
B. protein kinase C only.
C. diacylglycerol only.
D. both IP3 and protein kinase C.
E. both IP3 and diacylglycerol.
E
42. Various cells in the body respond to the hormone epinephrine in various ways due to _____.
A. cellular respiration
B. metabolism
C. phosphodiesterase
D. protein kinases
E. differential gene regulation
E
43. During metaphase
A. heterochromatin is converted to euchromatin.
B. chromosomes are about 30 nm wide.
C. chromosomes are much shorter than they were in interphase.
D. chromosomes undergo gene transcription.
E. the 'beads on a string' structure is visible.
44. Which of the following statements is correct about the cell cycle?
A. The cell cycle is a sequence of replication and division that produces a new cells.
B. The phase of the cell cycle are G1
S
45. Consider an organism whose karyotype shows it to have a total of 60 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be contained in the sperm of this organism?
A. 23
B. 30
C. 46
D. 60
E. 90
B
46. Place the following events of mitosis in the correct order.
I. Sister chromatids align on the metaphase plate.
II. The cleavage furrow forms.
III. The nuclear membrane breaks up.
IV. Sister chromatids condense.
V. Sister chromatids separate.
A. I
II
47. The formation of the bivalent during meiosis
A. is required for the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
B. contributes to the genetic diversity of a species.
C. ensures that the resulting haploid cells will have the same combination of homologous chromosomes as the original diploid cell.
D. aids the alignment of sister chromatids in a single row along the metaphase plate.
E. occurs during meiosis II.
B
48. The major way that meiosis II differs from mitosis is that
A. in meiosis II
the homologous sister chromatids align at the metaphase plate as a tetrad.
B. in meiosis II
49. Consider a diploid species where n=5. If an individual of this species was found to have 11 chromosomes
it would be categorized as
A. polyploid.
B. aneuploid.
C. trisomic.
D. monosomic.
E. both aneuploid and trisomic.
50. Polyploidy in plants
A. is very common.
B. allows for adaptation to diverse environments.
C. may alter the levels of gene expression.
D. allows humans to create plants with unusual flowers.
E. All of these statements are true regarding polyploidy in plants.
E
51. Most human embryos that are aneuploid
A. result in Down's syndrome.
B. result in sterility.
C. are spontaneously aborted in the first trimester.
D. can develop and survive to adulthood.
E. are usually the result of increased nondisjunction in the gametes of older men.
C
52. What does not happen in the cytokinesis of plant cells?
A. Vesicles friom the golgi apparatus move along the microtubules and fuse form cell plate.
B. Cell wall formes between the two daughter cells..
C. The two nuclei are segregated into separate daughter cells.
D. When the vesicles fuse
their membranes contribute to the formation of plasma membrane on either side of the cell plate.
E. Formation of cleavage furrow to separate the cells.
53. In mitosis
the main difference between plant and animal cells is that
A. plants do not undergo cytokinesis.
B. plants produce a cell plate to segregate the daughter nuclei
54. Meiosis I produces ________
and meiosis II produces _________ cells.
A. two diploid
55. A chromosome with the centromere located two-thirds of the distance from its end could be classified as
A. metacentric.
B. submetacentric.
C. acrocentric.
D. telocentric.
E. either submetacentric or acrocentric.
E
56. Chromosomes are replicated during the ______ phase.
A. G1
B. G2
C. S
D. M
E. meta-
C
57. A chromosome with the centromere located two-thirds of the distance from its end could be classified as
A. metacentric.
B. submetacentric.
C. acrocentric.
D. telocentric.
E. either submetacentric or acrocentric.
E
58. In a tetraploid species
a euploid individual would have __ sets of chromosomes.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 2n+2
59. The life cycle of a sexual reproducing organisms includes:
A. mitosis and meiosis.
B. mitosis
meiosis
60. Homologous chromosomes are identical copies of each other.
FALSE