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74 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Quiz 6:

Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of:
Homologous chromosomes.
Quiz 6/7:

Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false?
Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.
Quiz 6/7:

Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating the two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the# 8! Then you realize that this cell is:
undergoing cytokinesis.
Quiz 6/7:

During which stage of meiosis does synapsis and the formation of tetrads occur?
Prophase I
Quiz 6:

The creation of offspring carrying genetic information from a single parent is called:
asexual reproduction.
Quiz 6:

The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called:
cytokinesis.
Quiz 6:

If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would:
have half the genetic material found in the parent cell.
Quiz 6:

Asexual reproduction requires ____ individual(s).
A: one
Quiz 6:

8. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles?
A: metaphase.
Quiz 6:

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?
A: Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
Quiz 6:

The genetic material is duplicated during ____.
the S phase.
Quiz 6:

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false?
A: Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.
Quiz 6:

Which of the following statements is false?
A: Gametes are made by mitosis.
Quiz 6:

Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?
A: interphase.
Quiz 6:

Which of the following options correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?
A: it splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
quiz 6:

The following statements regarding the function of mitosis are true:
a). Mitosis allows organisms to grow.

b). Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually.

c). Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues.

d). Mitosis allows organisms to regenerate lost parts.
quiz 6:

Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true?
Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.
quiz 6:

The following statements are true:
a). Heterozygotes for hypercholesterolemia have blood cholesterols about twice normal.

b). The four blood types result from various combinations of the three different ABO alleles.

c). ABO blood groups can provide evidence of paternity.

d). The impact of a single gene on more than one character is called pleiotropy.
quiz 6:

If the S phase were eliminated from the cell cycle, the daughter cells would
have half the genetic material found in the parent cell.
quiz 6:

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form & the nucleoli reappear?
telophase.
quiz 6:

The vast majority of people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were
not affected at all by the disease.
quiz 6:

At the start of mitotic anaphase ______.
the centromeres of each chromosomes come apart.
quiz 6:

Which of the following occurs during interphase?
Cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes.
quiz 6:

During which stage of meiosis does synapsis & the formation of tetrads occur?
prophase I.
quiz 6:

Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false?
An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive.
Quiz 7:

The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called
Prophase
quiz 7:

Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false?
The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation.
quiz 7:

1. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles?
A: Metaphase
quiz 7:

Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to as ____.
true-breeding.
quiz 7:

Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on ___.
peas.
quiz 7:

A monohybrid cross is ____.
A: a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one characteristic.
quiz 7:

3. The phase of mitosis during which the nuclear envelope fragments and the nucleoli disappear is called ____.
A: Prophase.
quiz 8:

Which of the following statements is false?
A: Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis.
quiz 8:

2. Dr. Smith’s parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith’s parents could have which of the following genotypes?
A: Dd and Dd.
quiz 8:

The alleles of a gene are found at ____ chromosomes.
A: the same locus on homologous.
Quiz 8:

If A is dominant to a and B is dominant to b, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the cross: AaBb x AaBb?
A: 9:3:3:1
quiz 8:

4. Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an ____.
A: incomplete dominance.
quiz 8:

A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of
codominance.
quiz 8:

All the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This means that the allele for red flowers is ________ to the allele for white flowers.
incompletely dominant
quiz 8:

A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring
heterozygous for the trait and able
quiz 8:

5. The expression of both alleles for a trait in a heterozygous individual illustrates ____.
A: codominance.
quiz 8:

Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that ____.
A: the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation.
quiz 8:

Most genetic disorders of humans are caused by ____.
A: recessive alleles.
quiz 8:

Mendel’s law of independent assortment states that ____.
A: each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation.
quiz 9:

The sex chromosome complement of a normal human male is ___.
A: XY.
quiz 9:

2. As a result of the T2 phage’s reproductive cycle, ____. [Activity: Phage T2 Reproductive Cycle 10.1]
A: the host cell’s DNA is destroyed.
quiz 9:

3. (Question 01) This is an image of a ____. [Activity: The Hershey-Chase Experiment 10.1]
A: phage. This is a T2 phage, a type of phage that infects E. coli.
quiz 9:

One type of virus that infects bacteria is called a ____.
A: phage.
quiz 9:

5. Which of the following statements regarding DNA is false?
A: DNA uses the nitrogenous base uracil.
quiz 9:

DNA replication ____.
A: uses each strand of a DNA molecule as a template for the creation of a new strand.
quiz 9:

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand?
A: DNA polymerase
quiz 9:

8. Which of the following people conducted the experiments that demonstrated that DNA is the genetic material of bacteriophages?
A: Hershey & Chase
quiz 9:

The following statements are true:
a). DNA uses the sugar deoxyribose.

b). DNA is a nucleic acid.

c). One DNA molecule can include four different nucleotides in its structure.

d). DNA molecules have a sugar-phosphate backbone.
quiz 9:

Scientists have discovered how to put together a bacteriophage with the protein coat of phage T2 and the DNA of phage T4. If this composite phage were allowed to infect a bacterium, the phages
produced in the host cell would have ____.
A: the protein and DNA of T4.
quiz 9:

Who demonstrated the DNA is the genetic material of the T2
phage?
A: Hershey & Chase
quiz 9:

The reproductive cycle of the T2 phage ends with the ____.
A: rupture of the bacterium.
quiz 9:

Which of the following statements regarding RNA is false?
A: RNA uses the sugar dextrose.
quiz 9:

A color-blind woman marries a man who is not color-blind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are color-blind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results?
The gene for color vision is linked to the X chromosome.
quiz 9:

Hershey and Chase were able to differentiate between proteins and nucleic acids using radioactive atoms of elements found only in those macromolecules. Which of the following would be found only in proteins? ( Module 10.1)
sulfur
quiz 9:

Which of the following statements regarding a DNA double helix is always true?
The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.
quiz 9:

The radioactive isotope 32P labels the T2 phage's _____. Activity: The Hershey-Chase Experiment (10.1)
DNA

The T2 phage consists of a protein coat and DNA. It is the DNA that contains P.
quiz 9:

Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA? ( Module 10.2)
an additional hydroxyl group

Correct. RNA's sugar, ribose, has an additional OH group in the 2′ position (lower right on Figure 10.2C). This OH group is missing in deoxyribose.
quiz 9:

The information carried by a DNA molecule is in _____. ( Module 10.7)
the order of the nucleotides in the molecule.

A DNA nucleotide can contain one of four bases.

General Feedback: Please consider the following recommendations for help with this content:
- Try BioFlix: Protein Synthesis.
- Listen to MP3 Tutor: DNA to RNA to Protein (10.6).
quiz 9:

Which of the following describes a complete nucleotide? ( Module 10.2)
a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.

Each nucleotide unit of DNA consists of a nitrogenous base (A, G, C, or T), the sugar deoxyribose, and a phosphate group.
quiz 9:

The shape of a DNA molecule is most like
a twisted rope ladder.
quiz 9:

During replication, the original "parent" DNA _____. ( Module 10.4)
serves as the template for the creation of two complete sets of DNA.

As replication occurs, each side of the double helix acts as a template. Thus, each new DNA molecule includes one parent strand and one new strand.
quiz 9:
-may be duplicate-
Hershey and Chase were able to differentiate between proteins and nucleic acids using radioactive atoms of elements found only in those macromolecules. Which of the following would be found only in proteins? ( Module 10.1)
sulfur.

Proteins contain sulfur, but nucleic acids do not.
quiz 9:

Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because
men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed.
quiz 9:

During replication, the original "parent" DNA _____. ( Module 10.4)
serves as the template for the creation of two complete sets of DNA.

As replication occurs, each side of the double helix acts as a template. Thus, each new DNA molecule includes one parent strand and one new strand.
quiz 9:

After allowing phages to grow with bacteria in a medium that contained 32P and 35S, Hershey and Chase used a centrifuge to separate the phage ghosts from the infected cell. They then examined the infected cells and found that they contained _____, which demonstrated that _____ is the phage's genetic material. Activity: The Hershey-Chase Experiment (10.1)
E. labeled DNA ... DNA 100% Since the phage DNA entered the infected cell, it makes sense that DNA is the genetic material.
quiz 9:

The way that genetic material of a bacteriophage enters a bacterium is most like the way that
a drug is injected with a hypodermic needle.
quiz 9:

If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, the corresponding strand would be
GCCATG.
quiz 9:

The individual features of all organisms are the result of
genetics and the environment.