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591 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which Cranial Nerves are tested when you look with both eyes directly to the left?
A. Right III/Left III B. Right III/ Left VI C. Right III/ Left IV D. Right VI/ Left III E. Right IV/ Left VI |
B. Right III/ Left VI
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When a physiological system's end product can turn off or inhibit the system what kind of homeostasis is this?
A. Lateral Feedback B. Positive Feedback C. Negative Feed back E. Impulsive |
D. Negative Feedback
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If you fed or injected the end product of a negative feedback system into the system, what effect would it most likely have on the system?
A. No effect B. Speed it up C. Make it work more efficiently D. Slow it down or stop it E. Both B and C |
D. Slow it down or stop it
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The lacrimal gland delivers tears to what space
A. Intra-orbital venous sinuses B. Conjunctival sac C. Caruncle vestibule D. Schlemm's parlor E. Emma Tropia's chamber |
B. Conjunctival sac
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One olfactory tract destination goes via the subcortical route to the
A. Pons B. Nucleus ambiguus C. Navel D. Pituitary gland E. Hypothalamus, amygdale and other limb structures |
E. Hypothalamus, amygdale, and other limb system structures
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The fibrous tunic consists of
A. Lens and ciliary body B. Retina C. Choroid layer and ora serrata D. Lens and Iris E. Sclera and Cornea |
E. Sclera and Cornea
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Looking through your otoscope into your patient's external auditory canal you can view what reflective structure
A. Oval WIndow B. Round Window C. Stapes D. Beetle Scales E. Tympanic Membrane |
E. Tympanic Membrane
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An object in the far right peripheral vision can can just barely be seen by both eyes. The action potentials from the retinal receptors stimulated by this object will mostly go to
A. Left Brain B. Right Brain C. Equally to each side |
A Left Brain
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The advantageous result of On/Off ganglia stimulation in peripheral vision is
A. Reading small fonts B. Strong cone stimulation C. Good color vision D. High contrast resolution E. Strong rod stimulation in response to motion |
E. Strong rod stimulation in response to motion
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What is not an advantage of cones over rods as visual receptors?
A. Color sensitive in bright light B. Good function at night or in dimly lit rooms C. Provides crisp, clear central focus |
B. Good function at night or in dimly lit rooms
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Which cranial nerve does not serve the tongue or oral cavity for taste?
A. Glossopharyngeal IX B. Trigeminal V C. Facial VII D. Vagus X |
B. Trigeminal-V
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Visual tract potentials follow a subcortical route to what reflex center of the midbrain
A. Amygdala B. Hypothalamus C. Superior colliculi D. Postcentral gyrus E. Premotor cortex |
C Superior Colliculi
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What does not occur during dark adaptation when you enter a dark theater from bright sunlight?
A. Switch off the cone system B. Switch on the rod system C. Rhodopsin breakdown D. Rhodopsin formation |
C. Rhodopsin breakdown
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What is the far point for the emmatropic eye beyond which the ciliary muscles may cease to contract?
A. 4 inches B. 20 Feet C. 10 inches D. 50 Feet E. One yard or an arm's length |
B. 20 feet
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A child under the age of 5 may (more easily than an adult) infect their middle ear by what action?
A. Watching TV B. Blowing nose during respiratory infection C. Taking naps D. Enjoying a bath E. Playing Soccer |
B. Blowing nose during upper respiratory infection
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Which cranial nerves are tested when you look diagonally downward and the the right?
A. Right III/ Left III B. Right III/ Left IV C. Right IV/ Left III D. Right VI/ Left III E. Right III/ Left VI |
C. Right IV/ Left III
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The eye's vascular tunic (uvea) consists of
A. Retina and Ora serrata B. Ciliary body and process iris and choricoid C. Cornea and Sclera D. Lens and Retina E. Vitreous Humor |
B. Ciliary process and body, iris and choroid
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Aqueous humor arising from the ciliary process leaves the anterior chamber through what opening?
A. Optic foramen B. Hyaloid Canal C. Canal of Schlemm D. Vitreous Portal E. Pupillary aperture |
C. Canal of Schlemm
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The instructor said what about chemical equilibrium?
A. A system at rest B. A homogenous system without differences in concentration gradients C. Not possible for a living system D. All of these |
D. All of these
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In our 2nd example of positive feedback homeostasis, the stomach's digesting of ingested food, what turned off the homeostatic system?
A. Chewing B. Oxytocin C. Stretch reflex D. Stomach emptying E. Child birth |
D. Stomach emptying
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Which cranial nerve stimulates the lacrimal gland?
A. Opthalmic branch of trigemincal B. Occulomotor C. Abducens D. Vagus E. Facial |
E. Facial
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During our lab dissection of the eye what was the shape of the lens at rest (separated from suspensory ligaments)?
A. Flat B. Oval C. Like a crescent moon D. Spherical (round) E. S-curved |
D. Spherical (round)
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The glands that open just posterior to the eye lashes that secrete an oily secretion to prevent the eyelids from sticking together are called the
A. Lacrimal B. Meibomian or tarsal C. Caruncle D. Parotid E. Ceruminous |
B. Meibomian or Tarsal
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In lecture we listen 7 items which are essential nutrients for cellular life. They include of of these except
A. Oxygen B. Essential amino acids C. Vitamins D. Essential fatty acids E. Protein |
E. Protein
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Which cranial nerves are tested when you look directly to the right?
A. Right III/ Left III B. Right III/ Left IV C. Right IV/ Left III D. Right VI/ Left III E. Right III/ Left VI |
D. Right VI/Left III
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Which cranial nerves are tested when you look diagonally upward and to the right?
A. Right III/ Left III B. Right III/ Left IV C. Right IV/ Left III D. Right VI/Left III E. Right III/ Left III |
A. Right III/ Left III
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Name the muscle that opens the eye
A. Orbicularis oculi B. Orbicularis oris C. Lacrimal widenor D. Levator palpebrae superioris E. Superior rectus |
D. Levator palpebrae superioris
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The retina's fovea centralis of central vision contains ____ receptors, while the retina's peripheral parts outside of the contain ____ receptors.
A. Cones/rods B. Rods/Merkel's discs C. Rods/Cones D. Rods/Rods |
A. Cones/Rods
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What name is given to an elevated aqueous humor intra-ocular pressure?
A. Myopia B. Dipoplia C. Matriculation D. Bell's Palsy E. Glaucoma |
E. Glaucoma
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Hyperopic vision (hyperopia) is corrected by which type of lens?
A. Convex B. Concave C. Perfectly flat |
A. Convex
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Which middle ear ossicle is embedded in the tympanic membrane?
A. Stapes B. Incus C. Malleus D. Pliers E. C-clamp |
C. Malleus
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The smells are experiences in which part of the brain while gustatory cortex is in which lobe of the brain?
A. Frontal lobe/occipital B. Limbic system/ insula C. Insula/Occipital D. Limbic system/Frontal E. Lateral lobe/Parietal |
B. Limbic system/ insula
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The dark current is a constant low level of current for what retinal receptor systems?
A. Rods B. Cones |
A. Rods
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Our text states that there are only five flavors but 80% of the taste of food is experienced as what?
A. Umami B. Smell C. Mom D. Yummy E. Filling |
B. Smell
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The optic chiasma transmits visual signals coming from where?
A. Entire ora serrata B. The ciliary body C. Medial retina of each eye D. Lateral retina of each eye E. Receptors of the anterior segment |
C. Medial retinal of each eye
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The sphincter pupillae muscle circles the pupil in the iris to constrict the pupil and is operated by
A. Parasympathetic system B Sympathetic system |
A. Parasympathetic system
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What receptors and where detect dynamic equilibrium?
A. Maculae of utricles B. Maculae of saccules C. Maculae of vestibular ampullae D. Cristae ampullaris in the semicircular canal ampullae E. Cristae tectorium of the scala media |
D. Cristae ampullaris in the semicircular canal ampullae
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The reflexive eye jerks (tracking) in response to a sudden stop after spinning is called
A. Circadian rhythms B. Vestibular nystagmus C. Macular bump D. Foveal reflexes E. Lingual |
B. Vestibular nystagmus
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Which nerve senses dynamic equilibrium?
A. Vagus B. Facial C. Cochlear D. Vestibular E. Lingual |
D. Vestibular
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Which nerve senses sound?
A. Vagus B. Glossopharyngeal C. Cochlear D. Vestibular E. Trigeminal |
C. Cochlear
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A sounds wavelength (or pitch) can be sensed by inner hair cells stimulated by which structure moving against them?
A. Stapes B. Spiral ganglion C. Tectorial membrane D. Modiolus E. Maculae |
C. Tectorial membrane
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High pitched sounds are picked up by the cochlear duct hair cells that are: A. In the saccule's macula
B. Closest to the helicotrema C. At the cochlear midpoint D. Closest to the oval window E. Closest to the round window |
D. Closest to the oval window
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When you turn your head the the right, the semicircular endolymph moves more slowly than the bony canal and indirectly stimulates reflexive eye jerks (tracking) to the
A. Upward B. Right C. Left D. Down |
B. Right
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After spinning to the right, you suddenly stop and the semicircular canal endolymph keeps moving the the right. This causes the eyes to track to the
A. Right B. Dorsal C. Upward D. Left E. Up and Down |
D. Left
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Static equilibrium is detected by which receptors residing in which structures?
A. Maculae ampulares B. Maculae of the saccule and utricle C. Maculae of the cochlea D. Maculae of the scala tympani E. Both C and D are true |
B. Maculae of the saccule and utricle
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The endolymph of the cochlea resides in which of the following?
A. Scala vestibuli B. Scala media (cochlear duct) C. Scala tympani D. Scala isosceles E. Scala oboe |
B. Scala media (cochlear duct)
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The utricle and saccule are soft tissue (membranous) sacs residing in what bony structure?
A. Semicircular canals B. Cochlea C. Epitympanic recess D. Vestibule E. Scala tympani |
D. Vestibule
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Perilymph has what primary electrolyte?
A. Ca++ B. Na+ C. K+ D. Fe++ E. Mg++ |
B. Na+
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Endolymph has what primary electrolyte
A. Ca++ B. Na+ C. K+ D. Fe++ E. Mg++ |
C. K+
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Endolymph is most like which fluid type?
A. Extracellular B. Intracellular (cellular cytoplasm) C. Aqueous humor D. Blood plasma E. Emma Tropia's broth |
B. Intracellular (cytoplasm)
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Which hormone is synthesized by the hypothalamus but then stored in and released from the posterior pituitary?
A. GH B. Prolactin C. Oxytocin D. TRH E. FSH |
C. Oxytocin
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Growth hormone and the liver's somatomedins (insulin-like growth factors) do not:
A. Stimulate protein synthesis B. Mobilize fat from fat cells C. Stimulates cell growth and proliferation D. Increased glucose uptake from intestines resulting in increased insulin E. Increased cartilage formation and bone growth |
D. Increased glucose uptake from intestines resulting in increased insulin
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What would be the anti insulin actions of growth hormone listed in your text?
A. Mobilizing fat from fat cells B. Increased blood glucose from glycogen stores C. Increased thirst D. Increased math skills E. Both A and B are true |
E. Both A and B are true
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Milk let down caused by hearing one's baby cry is caused by
A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin C. Estrogen D. Growth hormone E. FSH |
B. Oxytocin
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Generally speaking thyroid hormone increases activity of enzymes concerned with
A. Cognitive reason B. Fat synthesis C. Glucose and fatty acid oxidation (energy metabolism) D. Blood synthesis E. Soft stool formation |
C. Glucose and fatty acid oxidation (energy metabolism)
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Which of the following hormones is not synthesized and released from the anterior pituitary?
A. Growth hormone B. Prolactin C. ADH D. Adenocorticotropic hormone E. Leutinizing hormone |
C. ADH
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What dietary requirement would you suspect is lacking in a child with a goiter?
A. Corn fed beef B. Iodine from sea salt or dietary sources C. Ca++ D. K+ E. Fe++ |
B. Iodine from sea salt or dietary sources
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Thyroxine is essential in adequate suppy early in life in order for there to be an adequate metabolic rate to lay down more than 2/3 of the brain's cortex in the first five years of childhood. The childhood disease that results in retardation due to lack of thyroxine is given the name
A. Cushing's syndrome B. Acromegaly C. Exophthalmos of Graves disease D. Cretinism (retardation) E. Hyperactive attention deficits |
D. Cretinism (retardation)
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How do hypothalamic hormones travel inferiorly to stimulate or inhibit anterior pituitary hormones?
A. They travel down neural axons to the anterior pituitary B. They travel in the hypophyseal portal veins C. They travel exclusively in the EC fluid spaces |
B. They travel in the hypophyseal portal veins
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Which of the following is a part of the cocktail of hormones which would support restorative sleep and tissue growth/repair?
A. Growth hormone B. Insulin C. LH D. Liver's somatomedins E. Both A and D |
E. Both A and D
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Which hormones are a part of a cocktail of hormones which would support energetic and mentally lucid daytime activities?
A. Epinephrine B. ADH +ACTH C. Thyroid hormones D. FSH/LH E. Answer A and C |
E. Answer A and C
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Which tissue synthesizes antidiuretic hormone?
A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Posterior pituitary D. Epithalamus E. Anterior pituitary |
B. Hypothalamus
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Acromegaly is the adult hypersecretion of
A. ACTH B. Thyroxine C. Prolactine D. Growth hormone E. Both A and B |
D. Growth hormone
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What hormone helps the kidney draw water back into the interstitial spaces from the forming urine?
A. GH B. ACTH C. ADH D. FSH E. FDA |
C. ADH
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What hormone would not be missing if the entire thyroid gland were removed?
A. Thyroxine B. Parathyroid hormone C. Thyroid stimulating hormone D. Calcitonin |
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
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The skin's hormone directly functions to do what
A. Increase metabolic rate B. Increase Ca++ uptake from the gut C. Increase alertness D. Increase blood pressure E. Increase your GPA |
B. Increase Ca++ uptake from the gut
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The skin's hormone is activated where and under what hormonal influence?
A. Lungs/epinephrine B. Stomach/gastrin C. Brain/Oxytocin and cuddling D. Kidney/PTH E. Liver/Bile |
D. Kidney/PTH
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One hormonal stimulating mechanism is to bind to cellular receptors which release an intracellular 2nd messenger such as
A. ADP B. cAMP C. IP3-CA++ D. Dilithium-crystals E. Both B and C |
E. Both B and C
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What anterior pituitary hormone stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis and secretion
A. Emmatropia's activating tool B. TRH C. Thyroid reducing factor D. Glandular enhancing hormone E. TSH |
E. TSH
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The thyroid parafollicular (clear or C) cells' hormonal secretion has what effect
A. Increase Ca++ storage in bone matrix B. Increase blood Ca++ uptake from gut C. Increase metabolic rate D. Increase release of GH E. Increase tooth decay |
A. Increase Ca++ storage in bone matrix
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The most active form of thyroid is abbreviated ____ and is converted from ___ (thyroxine) by the tissue cells which take it up
A. T4/T3 B. T4/T2 C. T3/T4 D. T3/T2 E. T3/T0 |
C. T3/T4
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Parathyroid hormone does not increase blood Ca++ in which way?
A. Increase kidney reabsorption of Ca++ from filtrate B. Increase osteoblast formation of bone matrix C. Increase osteoclast breakdown of bone matrix D. Increase kidney activation of vitamin D which increases gut uptake of Ca++ |
B. Increase osteoblast formation of bone matrix
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From our general pathology hand out, ___ is the common drug which blocks just prostagladins, while ___ is the hormone (or drug) which blocks both prostagladins and leukotrienes
A. Cortisol/ibuprofen B. Aspirin/somatostatin C. Aspirin/cortisol D. Thyroxine/Tylenol E. Ibuprofen/epinephrine |
C. Aspirin/cortisol
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Increased joyful aerobic activity to treat Metabolic Syndrome increases endothelial nitric oxide (eNO) which has the following protective benefits except:
A. Promotes vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle B. Anti-inflammatory C. Anti-oxidant D. Anti-fibrotic E. Increase adhesions and fibrosis in the endothelial matrix |
E. Increase adhesions and fibrosis in the endothelial matrix
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One molecule of hemoglobin carries how many molecules of oxygen
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 10 |
D. 4
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We learned that pancreatic endocrine tissues are responsible for secreting what hormone?
A. Aldosterone B. Epinephrine C. Insulin D. Glucagon E. Both C and D |
E. Both C and D
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The principle metabolic function of cortisol is
A. Inflammation B. Vit D uptake from gut C. Gluconeogenesis D. Elevated basal metabolic rate E. Clearing glucose from the bloodstream |
C. Gluconeogenesis
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Lecture on type II Diabetes listed what cause as the onset of insulin resistance?
A. Obesity B. Insulin spikes from carbs and no exer C. Aerobic training D. Autoimmunie destruction of Beta cells |
B. Insulin spikes from carbs and no exer
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The adrenal medulla secretes which horome
A. Cortisol B. Epinephrine C. Aldosterone D. Male and female sex hormones E. Erythropoietin |
B. Epinephrine
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During night time sleep what hormones work together with GH tissue growth and repair
A. Insulin B. Aldosterone C. TSH D. Glucagon + low levels of cortisol E. Epinephrine |
D. Glucagon + low levels of cortisol
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Which hormones are part of a cocktail of hormones for daytime activities?
A. Epinephrine B. Cortisol C. Thyroid hormones D. Insulin E. Answers A, C, and D |
E. Answers A, C, and D
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Another day-long effect of aerobic activity is to elevate the amount of glucose stored as ___ rather than fat
A. Muscle mass B. Bone matrix C. Glycogen D. Ferritin E. Hemoglobin |
C. Glycogen
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Which of the following is not an insulin action.
A. increased glycogen formation B. Increased amino acid uptake into cells C. Increased blood glucose D. Convert glucose to fat E. Clear glucose from blood |
C. Increased blood glucose
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What turns off the effects of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade?
A. increase K+ B. Increased blood glucose C. Decreased Na+ D. Anti-diuretic hormone E. ANP |
E. ANP
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Which Adrenal cortex zona produces sex hormones
A. Glomerulosa B. Reticularis C. Fasciculata D. Medulla E. Zona Twilighta |
B. Reticularis
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Why would elevated levels of cortisol lead to decreased bone density and reduced muscle mass
A. Muscles rely on cortisol as a nutient B. Bones need cortisol as a nutrient C. Cortisol blocks secretion of GH and liver somatomedins D. Both A and B are true |
C. Cortisol blocks secretion of GH and liver somatomedins
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Following are a cocktail of hormones which would support restorative sleep and tissue growth/repair except
A. Growth hormone B. Glucagon C. Cortisol, low level D. Insulin E. Liver's insulin like growth factors |
D. Insulin
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Which of the following is the type of anemia that may allow someone to survive a malarial epidemic
A. Hemorrhagic B. Hemolytic C. Aplastic D. Sickle Cell E. Thalassemia |
D. Sickle Cell
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What type of anemia is brought about by deficiencies in intrinsic factor or vit B12
A. Hemorrhagic B. Hemolytic C. Aplastic D. Pernicious E. Thalassemia |
D. Pernicious
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What hormone from the kidney stimulates blood cell formation in the bone marrow?
A. Calcitonin B. PTH C. ATP D. Leptin E. Erythropoietin |
E. Erythropoietin
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Which of the following is not a blood or circulatory system function
A. Delivery of essential nutrients to cells B. Transporting metabolic wastes from cells C. Maintaining appropriate body posture D. Mainting normal pH in body tissues E. Initiation of immune response |
C. Maintaining appropriate body posture
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A micrograph of a pancreatic cell of grouping interlaced with many capillaries called
A. Segmen's Acini B. Obamas glands C. Islets of Langerhans D. Farallones E. Pancreatic colloidal follicles |
C. Islets of Langerhans
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Islets of Langerhans alpha cells produce which hormone
A. Insulin B. Glucogen C. PTH D. Growth hormone E. FSH |
A. Insulin
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In a type I diabetic who doesn't receive insulin, the tissues enter a starvation state and fat gets metabolized for energy. The blood enters acidosis due to what fatty acid metabolite
A. Glucose B. Glycogen C. Essential amino acids D. Keto-acids (keto-acidosis) |
D. Keto-acids (keto-acidosis)
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Sickle cell anemia and Thalassemias are genetically based defects in what?
A. Eosinophil granules B. Mast cell granules C. Hemoglobin D. liver's clotting factors E. Monocyte activity |
C. Hemoglobin
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Which organ hormonally activates T-lymphocytes, peaks in activity by puberty and declines by adulthood?
A. Parotid gland B. Spleen C. Liver D. Thymus E. Palatine tonsils |
D. Thymus
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A hematocrit value measures the percentage of what blood constituent
A. Leukocytes B. Red Blood Cells C. Platelets D. Plasma E. Both C and D |
B. Red Blood cells
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The fate of an erythrocyte as it grows old (over 90 days) is to die, get phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen and have some of its contituents turned over into bile salts in which other organ?
A. Heart B. Brain C. Stomach D. Liver E. Wurlitzer |
D. Liver
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What is not true about erythrocytes
A. No nuclues B. Can carry oxygen C. Can carry carbon dioxide D. About the size of a lymphocyte nucleus E. Transports hormones from endocrine glands |
E. Transports hormones from endocrine glands
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The hemoglobin molecule carries __% of arterial oxygen and __% of venous carbon dioxide
A. 50/20 B. 95/95 C. 95/20 D. 20/95 E. 20/20 |
C. 95/20
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In blood smears that were populated mostly by what small cells devoid of nuclei?
A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Erythrocytes D. Monocytes E. Mast Cells |
C. Erythrocytes
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One molecule of hemoglobin is made up of how many globular proteins with iron centered polyphyrin rings (heme groups)
A. one B. two C. Three D. Four E. Ten |
D. Four
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What type of anemia is brought about by blood loss from a wound
A. Hemorrhagic B. Hemolytic C. Aplastic D. Sickle cell E. Thalassemia |
A. Hemorrhagic
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T-cytotoxic cells have as their main function
A. releasing histamine B. Phagocytosis C. Releasing histamine D. Destroying cancer cells or virally infected cells |
D. Destroying cancer cells or virally infected cells
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Which blood type is the universal donor
A. A B. B C. AB D. O E. Y |
D. O
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Type AB people have which antibodies to the various blood type antigens
A. anti-A B. anti-B C. Both anti A and anti B D. Neither anti-A nor anti-B E. anti-O |
D. Neither anti-A nor anti-B
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Type O blood
A. Has no A and B antigens B. Is the universal recipient C. Is the rarest blood type D. Has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies E. Both answer A and D |
E. Both answer A and D
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The clot buster living inside a formed clot and activated by tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is
A. Thrombin B. Plasminogen activated to plasmin C. Calcium D. Hagemann factor E, Thrombuster |
B. Plasminogen activated to plasmin
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Which of the following cells is an antigen presenting cell and is actively phagocytic during chronic infection
A. Karaokocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Macrophages E. Basophils |
D. Macrophages
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What leukocyte can kill parasitic worms and phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes in allergy attacks
A. Monocyte B. Eosinophil C. Neutrophil D. Basophil E. T-helper cell |
B. Eosinophil
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Which leukocyte allows IgE to seat itself in the membrane causing histamine release when IgE binds to its allergen
A. Monocyte B. Eosinophil C. Neutrophil D. Mast cell E. T-helper cell |
D. Mast cell
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Which leukocyte is chemically attracted first to sites of inflammation and can phagocytize bacteria or kill them by means of a respiratory burst
A. Neutrophil B. Eosinophil C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte E. Basophil |
A. Neutrophil
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T-helper lymphocytes are activated by interleukin IL-I and then secretes other lymphokines to activate what other cells
A. T-cytotoxic cells in cell mediated immunity B. B cells to become plasma cells in humoral immunity C. Macrophages to be less phagocytic D. Platelets to multiply E. Both a and b are true |
E. Both a and b are true
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Which blood clotting factor is missing in classical (type A) hemophilia
A. XII B. Prothrombin C. X D. XI E. VIII |
E. VIII
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Which of the following formed elements is not required for the initiation of the immune response described in lecture
A. Macrophage B. B cell C. Platelet D. T-helper cell |
C. Platelet
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Blood clotting factors are mostly synthesized by what organ or tissue
A. Brains pituitary gland B. Liver C. Bone marrow D. Brain's hypothalamus E. Heart |
B. Liver
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Type O people can safely receive blood from what blood types without agglutination reactions?
A. All types B. AB C. O and AB D. Only type O E. B and O |
D. Only type O
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What genotypes express the phenotype of type A blood?
A. Homozygous AA B. Heterozygous AB C. Heterozygous AO D. Heterozyous BO E. Answers A and C are true |
E. A and C are true
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A woman with genotype BB blood has a child that is phenotype B (genotype not yet known) which of the following men may be the father
A. AA B. AB C. AO D. OO E. Tom Dick or harry (AB, AO, OO) |
E. Tom Dick or harry (AB, AO, OO)
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Diapededesis describes a leukocytes ability to
A. Phagocytize B. Produce antibodies C. exit the circulatory system by squeezing btwn endothelial cells D. Kill infected cells E. Eliminate wastes to external membrane |
C. exit the circulatory system by squeezing btwn endothelial cells
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Name the last stage of clot or scab formation after fibrin polymerization (thread formation)
A. Thrombin activation B. Platelet aggregation C. XII activation D. IX/VIII complexing E. Fibrin cross linking |
E. Fibrin cross linking
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Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin (threads) under the direct influence of
A. Factor XII B. Thrombin C. Factor VIII complex D. Factor VII complex E. Platelet induced serotonin release |
B. Thrombin
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Lymphocytes can mature to which of the following cells
A. T-cytotoxic cells lysing cancer cells B. Plasma producing antibodies C. Phagocytes D. cells that release histamine E. Both a and b |
E. Both a and b
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When a T-helper cell activates a B lymphocyte during an immune response the B cell grows up to become
A. T-killer B. Mast cell C. Plasma cell and /or memory cell D. Monocyte E. President |
C. Plasma cell and/or memory cell
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The coronary sinus resides in which anatomical feature of the heart?
A. Anterior interventricular septum B. Posterior interventricular septum C. Hearts apex D. Atrioventricular groove E. Marginal groove |
D. Atrioventricular groove
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The left coronary artery branches into the circumflex artery and which other artery
A. Anterior interventricular B. Posterior interventricular C. Apical D. Atrioventricular E. Marginal |
A. Anterior interventricular
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The hearts circumflex artery forms an anastomosis posteriorly with with other artery
A. Anterior interventricular B. Right coronary C. Apical D. Atrioventricular E. Marginal |
B. Right coronary
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Whether in the pulmonary or system circuit, veins carry blood that is
A. Oxygenated B. Low in Oxygen C. Moving toward the heart D. Moving away from the heart E. Travelling in a superior direction |
C. Moving toward the heart
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Under normal conditions what is found in the pericardial sac
A. Blood B. the heart C. the great vessels D. Nothing except serous fluid to moisten the membranes E. Both A and B are true |
D. Nothing except serous fluid to moisten the membranes
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Lungs receive blood from which vessels
A. Ascending aorta B. Pulmonary veins C. Pulmonary arteries D. Right coronary artery E. Left coronary artery |
C. Pulmonary arteries
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All of the following are vessels that carry venous blood into the right atrium except
A. Inferior vena cava B. Coronary sinus C. Left superior pulmonary vein D. Superior vena cava |
C. Left superior pulmonary vein
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Which heart chamber has by far the thickest walls in order to move blood the greatest distance
A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle |
D. Left ventricle
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In the aortas most proximal region just behind the septa of the semilunar valve are openings for which arteries
A. Pulmonary B. Left and right coronary C. Intercostal D. Subclavian E. Common carotid |
B. Left and right coronary
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What must blood pass through in order to exit the left ventricle
A. Bicuspid valve B. Infundibulum C. Tricuspid valve D. Pulmonary semilunar valve E. Aortic semilunar valve |
E. Aortic semilunar valve
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Which vessel carries blood that is richly oxygenated
A. Superior vena cava B. Pulmonary veins C. Inferior vena cava D. Coronary sinus E. Pulmonary arteries |
B. Pulmonary veins
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At the time of birth the opening between the left and right atria closes and becomes
A. Interventricular septum B. Ligamentum arteriosum C. Round ligament D. Fossa ovalis E. Bicuspid valve |
D. Fossa ovalis
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Through what valve must blood pass in order to exit the right ventricle
A. Bicuspid B. Pulmonary semilunar C. Conus arteriosus D. Tricuspid E. Aortic semilunar |
B. Pulmonary semilunar
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All valves of the heart open and close due to what
A. sympathetic stimulation B. Parasympathetic stimulation C. Chordae tendinae tension D. Passively due to pressure from the blood E. Small levers in cusps |
D. Passively due to pressure from the blood
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Whats the function of the tricuspid and bicuspids chordae tendinae and papillary muscles
A. Hold valves in position B. Open the valves C. Close the valves D. Prevent prolapse of the closed valves |
D. Prevent prolapse of the closed valves
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How many heart sounds are there in a normally beating heart
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 10 |
B. 2
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The first sound "lub" is caused by which of the following
A. AV valves closing B. Semilunar closing C. Sudden change in aortic arch diamet D. semilunar valve |
A. AV valves closing
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Another name for the bicuspid valve is
A. Left AV B. Right AV C. Mitral D. Papal E. Both A and C |
E. Both A and C
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What must blood pass through in order to enter the left ventral
A. Left AV valve B. Fossa ovalis C. Tricuspid valve D. Coronary sinus E. Conus arteriosus |
A. Left AV valve
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Name the serous membrane that forms the hearts epicardiums external surface
A. Visceral peritoneum B. Parietal pericardium C. Visceral pleura D. Visceral pericardium E. Parietal peritoneum |
D. Visceral pericardium
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The right ventricle pumps blood into what structure next
A. Pulmonary trunk B. Left atrium C. Aorta D. Right Atrium E. Both B and C are true |
A. Pulmonary trunk
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In cardiac muscle action potentials (non-autorhythmic) what increased ion permeability causes the initial depolarization
A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca++ D. Mg++ E. Cl- |
A. Na+
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In cardiac muscle action potentials, what increased ion permeability maintains the plateau of of depolarization
A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca++ D. Mg++ E. Cl- |
C. Ca+
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In the nodal autorhythmic cells what change in ion permeability causes depolarization to threshold?
A. Rapidly increased Mg++ B. Decreased Na+ C. Increased K+ D. Decreased K+ E. Decreased Ca++ |
D. Decreased K+
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In the nodal autorhythmic cells after reaching threshold what fast ion channels open to cause the action potential
A. H+ B. Ca++ C. K+ D. Fe++ E. Mg++ |
B. Ca++
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What is the pacemaker of the heart
A. Hypothalamus B. Sympathetic nervous system C. SA Node D. AV Node E. Adrenal Cortex hormones |
C. SA Node
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SA node all by itself want to go approximately how many beats per minute
A. 30bpm B.60bpm C.100-110bpm D.70bpm E.40-45bpm |
C. 100-110bpm
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AV node all by itself wants to go how many beats per minute
A. 10 b. 20 C. 160 D. 70 E. 40-45 |
E. 40-45
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What slows does the SA node to normal resting pace
A. Sympathetic stimulation B. AV node C. Chordae tendinae D. Vagus nerve E. Postganglionic release of epinephrine |
D. Vagus nerve
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What speeds up the AV node to the correct rate of depolarization
A. Vagus nerve B. SA node sends depolarization directly through cardiac tissue to the AV node C. Increased K+ permeability |
B. SA node sends depolarization directly through cardiac tissue to the AV node
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In the electrocardiogram tracing the P wave represents __ while the QRS wave represents___
A. Ventricular repolarization/Atrial repolarization B. Atrial repolarization/ Ventricular depolarization C. Atrial depolarization/ Ventricular depolarization D. Ventricular depolarization/Atrial repolarization |
C. Atrial depolarization/ Ventricular depolarization
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If the electrocardiogram wave pattern goes P-QRS-T, P-(flat line)-P-QRS-T with an occasional flat line absence of a QRS-T wave pattern what's wrong
A. AV node has died B. SA node has died C. Some tissue between SA and AV node is not reliably transmitting every SA signal D. bicuspid valve is stuck |
C. Some tissue between SA and AV node is not reliably transmitting every SA signal
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If the P wave is absent and the heart is beating at 40-45 beats per minute
A. SA node is non functional B. AV node is new pacemaker C. Patient may need pacemaker for normal blood flow D. All |
D. All of these are true
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Cardiac output in milliliters per minute is the product of strove volume and
A EDV B. Pulse pressure C. Mean arterial blood pressure D. Heart rate E. Diastolic blood pressure |
D. Heart rate
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What happens when you increase the EDV
A. Decreased attention span B. Increased heart contraction force C. Increased stroke volume D. Both B and C E. Decreased sympathetic tone |
D. Both B and C
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What causes an increase in EDV?
A. Increased urination B. Going from rest to exercise C. Snoozing D. Eating E. Stimulating vagal tone |
B. Going from rest to exercise
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What component of exercise or any excitement (strong emotion) causes increased contractility
A. Stimulating vagal tone B. Increased sympathetic stimulation C. Increased Ca++ influx into cytoplasm due to increased epinephrine or thyroxine D. Both B and C |
D. Both B and C are true
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Just as you are hearing the first heart sound which valves are closed
A. Only AV valves B. Only semilunar C. All of the valves are closed |
C. all valves closed
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When the pressure is greater in the aorta than in the left ventricle what will happen
A. AV valves open B. Semilunar valves close C. Semilunar valves open D. AV valves close |
B. Semilunar valves close
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As you hear the first heart sound which things are true
A. Aorta has highest pressure B. Ventricle has reached EDV C. Decreasing pressure in ventricles D. AV valves are open |
B. Ventricle has reached EDV
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What valve is heard in the 5th intercostal space in the left mid clavicular line
A. Tricuspid B. Bicuspid C. Aortic semilunar D. Pulmonary semilunar |
B. Bicuspid
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What valve is heard in the 2nd intercostal space immediately to the right of the sternum
A. Tricuspid B. Bicuspid C. Aortic semilunar D. Pulmonary semilunar |
C. Aortic semilunar
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The function of an elastic artery is to
A. Prevent prolapse of AV valves B. Maintain arterial blood flow despite changes in pressure C. Direct blood to specific organs D. No special function they're decorative |
B. Maintain arterial blood flow despite changes in pressure
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Total blood vessel length becomes a factor in high blood pressure for which individuals
A. Underweight B. Reclining C. Mental workers D. Obese E. Elderly |
D. obese
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Your patient's arterial blood pressure is 112/73. The 73 mm Hg represents which pressure
A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Hyperstolic D. Atrial E. Endostolic |
B. Diastolic
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What prevents blood from flowing backwards in a vein with 0 mm Hg blood pressure
A. RBCs drawn to oxygen B. Venous valves C. Venous muscle sphincters D. Venous endothelium has cilia E. Both C and D |
B. Venous valves
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A normal diastolic pressure for your patient should have an upper limit of which pressure in mm Hg?
A. 68 B. 70 C. 79 D. 90 E. 119 |
C. 79
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Unlike continuous capillaries which only have small clefts, the kidney's have special capillaries which are
A. Matriculated B. Buff C. Canaliculated D. Fenestrated E. Equilateral |
D. Fenestrated
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The function of muscular arteries is to
A. Maintain blood flow despite pressure changes B. Direct and distribute blood to specific organs or tissues C. Maintain semilunar valve closure D. Increase venous return |
B. Direct and distribute blood to specific organs or tissues
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The function of arterioles is to
A. Reduce heart's contractility B. Maintain arterial blood flow C. Regulate blood flow to capillaries D. Assist autonomic nervous system to match nutrient delivery with waste removal E. Both C and D |
E. Both C and D
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Your patient's blood pressure is 115/75, her approximate mean arterial pressure is
A. 78 B. 98 C. 97 D. 88 E. 101 |
D. 88
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Your patient's blood pressure is 114/75 mm Hg. What is her pulse pressure in mm Hg?
A. 32 B. 80 C. 39 D. 60 E. 50 |
C. 39
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When going from resting to strenuous exercise the skeletal muscles will experience
A. No change in blood flow B. Increased blood flow C. Decreased blood flow |
B. Increased blood flow
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An RBC in the aortic arch on the way to the right side of the face must enter what artery next
A. Right subclavian B. Right Axillary C. Brachiocephalic D. Right common carotid E. Right Vertebral |
C. Brachiocephalic
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An RBC in the internal carotid artery (either side) is going to posterior communicating artery. Which will it enter next?
A. Posterior cerebral B. Anterior cerebral C. Vertebral D. Basilar E. Middle cerebral |
E. Middle Cerebral
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Most of the blood in a resting human body resides in the
A. Spleen B. Arteries C. Heart D. Veins |
D. Veins
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Your microscope view shows a vessel with a tunica intimica that has an elastic pucker to it. Which of these vessels is it?
A. Artery B. Vein C. Capillary |
A. Artery
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Which vessels are defined as capacitance vessels and as blood reservoirs
A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Veins D. Lymph vessels E. Red Bone Marrow |
C. Veins
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Peripheral resistance is a major determinant of blood pressure. According to your text figure, blood pressure declines most quickly in which vessel type
A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Arterioles E. Venules |
D. Arterioles
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Branches of the external carotid include all of these except
A. Occipital B. Lingual C. Superficial temporal D. Opthalmic E. Maxillary |
D. Opthalmic
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The middle meningeal artery residing in the foramen spinosum is a branch of which artery?
A. Internal carotid B. Lingual C. Occipital D. Middle cerebral E. Maxillary |
E. Maxillary
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The basilar artery ends by branching into which arteries in the Circle of Willis?
A. Posterior communicating B. Middle Cerebral C. Anterior communicating D. Posterior cerebral E. Anterior cerebral |
D. Posterior cerebral
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An increased heart rate is an autonomic nervous system short term adjustment to what condition
A. Lying down B. Low blood bp due to low blood volume C. Decreased EDV D. primary hypertension |
B. Low blood bp due to low blood volume
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What long term effect can the kidneys have on blood pressure
A. Decreased bp from Aldosterone release B. Decrease bp from renin release C. Increase BP from increased Na+ and water conservation which will increase EDV which will increase or maintain bp D. Decrease bp from ANP release E. Both A and B |
C. Increase BP from increased Na+ and water conservation which will increase EDV which will increase or maintain bp
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When going from rest to intense exercise which body organ experiences the least change in blood flow
A. Skeletal muscles B. Heart C. Skin D. Digestive tract E. Brain |
E. Brain
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An increased heart rate is an autonomic nervous system short term adjustment to what condition
A. Lying down B. Low blood bp due to low blood volume C. Decreased EDV D. primary hypertension |
B. Low blood bp due to low blood volume
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What long term effect can the kidneys have on blood pressure
A. Decreased bp from Aldosterone release B. Decrease bp from renin release C. Increase BP from increased Na+ and water conservation which will increase EDV which will increase or maintain bp D. Decrease bp from ANP release E. Both A and B |
C. Increase BP from increased Na+ and water conservation which will increase EDV which will increase or maintain bp
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When going from rest to intense exercise which body organ experiences the least change in blood flow
A. Skeletal muscles B. Heart C. Skin D. Digestive tract E. Brain |
E. Brain
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Which of the following is not an artery where pulses can be easily palpated
A. Radial B. Common carotid C. Middle Meningeal artery (in foramen spinosum) D. Brachial E. Femoral |
C. Middle Meningeal artery (in foramen spinosum)
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What nerve carries the signals of the carotid sinus baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
A. Trigeminal B. Glossopharyngeal C. Accessory D. Facial E. Vagus |
B. Glossopharyngeal
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What effect does ANP have on blood pressure?
A. Decrease BP due to increasing renin output B. Increase BP due to kidney sparing Na+ C. Increase BP due to increasing epinephrine levels D. Decrease BP due to decreasing effects of angiotensin and aldosterone so kidney excretes Na+ and water |
D. Decrease BP due to decreasing effects of angiotensin and aldosterone so kidney excretes Na+ and water
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Which cranial nerve receives chemical and pressure signals from the aortic arch baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
A. Trigeminal B. Vagus C. Glossopharyngeal D. Accessory E. Vestibulocochlear |
B. Vagus
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Long term regulation of arterial pressure is performed both directly and indirectly by
A. Liver B. Heart's left atrium C. Spleen D. Kidney's water regulation and renin release E. Upper body's lean mass |
D. Kidney's water regulation and renin release
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An increased heart rate is an autonomic nervous system short term adjustment to what condition
A. Lying down B. Low blood pressure due to low blood volume C. Decreased EDV D. Primary hypertension |
B. Low blood pressure due to low blood volume
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Name the artery at the wrist where pulses are felt
A. Radial B. Carotid C. Brachial D. Wristal E. Femoral |
A. Radial
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Generalized vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure may be caused by
A. Increased parasympathetic activity B. Renin release during angiotensin activation C. Decreased sympathetic activity D. Increased digestive acticity E. Both C and D |
B. Renin release during angiotensin activation
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Epinephrine has which effect
A. Decrease heart rate B. Sodium retention at kidney C. Increased heart rate and contractility D. Increased digestive activity E. Stimulates ANP release |
C. Increased heart rate and contractility
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Which of the following will not increase mean arterial blood pressure
A. Going from sitting to walking B. Kidney conserves water C. Kidney conserves Na+ D. Drink water with electrolytes E. Sit down and rest |
E. Sit down and rest
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Your patient has lost a lot of blood and may experience all of the following events and signs on the way to hypovolemic shock except
A. Tachycardia with weak thready pulse B. Decreased urine output C. Thirst D. Skin becomes cold, clammy, and cyanotic E. Decreased rate of breathing |
E. Decreased rate of breathing
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A pulse can be felt on the medial arm against the humerus or under the biceps muscle at which artery
A. Circumflex humeral B. Radial C. Deep brachial D. Brachial E. Axillary |
D. Brachial
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A pulse can be felt on the top (dorsum or superior aspect) of the foot at which artery
A. Gluteal B. Posterior tibial C. Deep femoral D. Dorsalis pedis E. Fibular |
D. Dorsalis pedis
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When blood pressure decreases due to decreased blood volume and decreased stroke volume, what immediate compensation maintains cardiac output
A. Decreased heart rate B. Decreased basal metabolism C. Increased heart rate D. Decreased breathing rate |
C. Increased heart rate
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An RBC doing laps in the humeral circumflex arteries came from which proximal artery
A. Subclavian B. Common carotid C. Brachiocephalic D. Axillary E. Vertebral |
D. Axillary
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An RBC in the brachial artery on the way to the humerus's spiral groove will enter which artery next
A. Brachiocephalic B. Axillary C. Radial D. Deep (profunda) brachial E. Superficial brachial |
D. Deep (profunda) brachial
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Which of the following is not a compensation for hypovolemic shock (low bp due to low blood volume
A. Decreased urination B. Increased heart rate C. Renin release D. Aldosterone release E. Decreased heart rate |
E. Decreased heart rate
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The femoral artery received blood immediately from which artery
A. Popliteal B. Common iliac C. External iliac D. Abdominal aorta E. Posterior tibial |
C. External iliac
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The digital arteries of the fingers are found on which aspect of the finger
A. The dorsum B. The palmar C. The lateral and medial sides |
C. The lateral and medial sides
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The subclavian artery emerges distally from under the clavicle and then becomes which artery
A. Brachial B. Axillary C. Acromial D. Deltoid E. Trapezial |
B. Axillary
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The dorsalis pedis is a branch of which artery
A. Deep pedis B. Popliteal C. Anterior tibial D. Fibular E. Posterior tibial |
C. Anterior tibial
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The anterior compartment of the brachium (arm) is best served by which artery
A. Radial B. Brachial C. Ulnar D. Posterior interosseus E. Subclavian |
B. Brachial
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You are a drop of blood in the subclavian artery on the way to the subcostal groove of rib #2 near its anterior end. You travel in which artery next
A. Vertebral B. Axillary C. Internal thoracic D. Pulmonary E. Coronary |
C. Internal thoracic
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The anterior compartment of the thigh is best served by which artery
A. Gluteal B. Popliteal C. Common fibular D. Femoral E. Internal iliac |
D. Femoral
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The anatomical snuff box of the hand between extensors pollicis longus and brevis tendons) is best served by which artery
A. Trapezial B. Triceptual C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Deep brachial |
C. Radial
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Which artery best serves the medial aspect of the forearm just proximal to the digiti minimus near the wrist
A. Radial B. Brachial C. Medial carpal tunnelar D. Posterior interosseous E. Ulnar |
E. Ulnar
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In lab we saw that the greater curvature of the stomach was served by an arterial branch of the splenic artery called the
A. Left gastric B. Left duodenal C. Right reverend D. Left gastroepiploic |
D. Left gastroepiploic
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On the way to the palmar arch near the 5th metacarpal, blood travels from the brachial artery to what artery next
A. Radial B. Brachial C. Ulnar D. Posterior interosseus E. Medial carpal tunnelar |
C. Ulnar
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The femoral artery blood flows next into which artery immediately after it
A. Great saphenous B. Posterior tibial C. Anterior tibial D. Common genuflect E. Popliteal |
E. Popliteal
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Blood traveling through the inguinal canal is in which artery
A. Femoral B. Ovarian C. External iliac D. Testicular E. Internal iliac |
D. Testicular
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The abdominal aorta's largest paired branches before ending in the common iliac arteries are the
A. Rectal B. Mesenteric C. Renal D. Suprarenal E. Duodenal |
C. Renal
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The soleus muscle of the leg is best served by which artery
A. Common fibular B. Popliteal C. Superficial fibular D. Anterior tibial E. Posterior tibial |
E. Posterior tibial
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The descending thoracic aorta contributes blood to what small local arteries originating in the posterior thoracic wall
A. Right coronary B. Left coronary C. Left brachiocephalic D. Internal thoracic E. Posterior intercostal |
E. Posterior intercostal
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The internal thoracic artery gives rise to which branches
A. Posterior intercostals B. Anterior intercostals C. Anterior pulmonary arteries D. Left brachiocephalic E. Posterior spinal |
B. Anterior intercostals
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The abdominal aorta's branches include all of the following except
A. Renal B. Inferior mesenteric C. Common iliacs D. Renals E. Obturator |
E. Obturator
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Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta's celiac trunk
A. Left gastric B. Gastroduodenal C. Common hepatic D. Splenic |
B. Gastroduodenal
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The abdominal aorta has 3 large unpaired branches arising from its anterior surface. The next one distal to the celiac trunk is the
A. Right gastric B. Common renal C. Superior mesenteric D. Common colic |
C. Superior mesenteric
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An RBC is in the gastroduodenal artery on the way to the stomach's inferior wall. Next it must go to what artery
A. Left gastric B. Right colic C. Superior mesenteric D. Right gastroepiploic E. Hepatic |
D. Right gastroepiploic
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The dorsalis pedis vein flows next to which vein
A. Posterior tibial B. Popliteal C. Femoral D. Anterior tibial E. Deep femoral |
D. Anterior tibial
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The popliteal vein flows next to which vein
A. Posterior tibial B. Popliteal C. Femoral D. Anterior tibial E. Deep femoral |
C. Femoral
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What 2 veins flowing together form the hepatic portal vein
A. Superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric B. Left gastric and splenic C. Splenic and superior mesenteric D. Right gastric and splenic E. Renal and superior mesenteric |
C. Splenic and superior mesenteric
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The azygos vein receives blood directly from all of the following veins except
A. Posterior intercostals B. Internal thoracic C. Hemiazyogos D. Accessory hemiazygos |
B. Internal thoracic
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The subclavian has which of these as a tributary
A. axillary B. external jugular C. Cephalic D. Brachiocephalic E. Both a and b are true |
E. Both a and b are true
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The pterygoid plexus of veins drains the nasal cavity and sinuses flow posteriorly to the dural sinuses. This gives rise to what upper respiratory complication discussed in lab
A. ear infections B. the need to floss every night C. Rheumatic fever D. Osteoarthritis E. Meningitis |
E. Meningitis
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All nutrients of the small and large intestine flow into the blood of which vessels
A. Inferior vena cava B. Hepatic veins C. Superior and inferior mesenteric veins D. Femoral vein E. Renal veins |
C. Superior and inferior mesenteric veins
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These abdominal veins have blood that will flow through the portal vein before entering the inferior vena cava except for the
A. Splenic B. Left gastric vein C. Inferior mesenteric vein D. Superior mesenteric vein E. Testicular/Ovarian |
E. Testicular/Ovarian
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Blood from the facial vein on the way to the heart may flow next to which vein
A. retromandibular B. Brachiocephalic C. External jugular D. Subclavian E. Superior vena cava |
A. retromandibular
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The common iliac vein delivers blood to which vein next
A. femoral B. External iliac C. Internal iliac D. Hepatic portal E. Inferior vena cava |
E. Inferior vena cava
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The superior vena cava receives blood directly from all of these veins except
A. right brachiocephalic B. left brachiocephalic C. Left internal jugular D. Azygos |
C. Left internal jugular
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Venous blood on the way from the right brachium goes from the axillary vein to what vein next
A. Brachial B. Brachiocephalic C. Common carotid D. Subclavian E. Radial |
D. Subclavian
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Venous blood on the way from the left side of the head goes from the internal jugular to what vein next
A. Vertebral B. Brachiocephalic C. Common carotid D. Axillary E. External jugular |
B. Brachiocephalic
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The brain's veins all empty into dural sinuses which collectively flow into the transverse and sigmoid sinuses and into which vein next
A. external jugular B. Azygos C. Superior vena cava D. Internal jugular E. Brachiocephalic |
D. Internal jugular
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As a phlebotomist you often draw blood from which vein found in the anterior aspect of the elbow that provides collateral circulation between medial and lateral sides of the elbow
A. Basalic B. Cephalic C. Great saphenous D. Median cubital E. Great vein of galen |
D. Median cubital
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Which of the following is not one of the three veins that receive blood from the intercostal veins
A. Azygos B. Brachiocephalic C. Acessory hemiazygos D. Hemiazygos |
B. Brachiocephalic
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The pituitary releases its hormones into venous vessel
A. Confluence of sinuses B. Middle meningeal artery C. Inferior jugular vein D. Superior sagittal sinus E. Caverous sinus |
E. Caverous sinus
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Blood in the left ovarian vein flows next to what vein
A. inferior vena cava B. Left renal C. Internal iliac D. inferior mesenteric E. portal vein |
B. Left renal
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Which of the following veins is a direct tributary of the inferior vena cava
A. Splenic B. Right gastric C. Right gastro epiploic D. Inferior mesenteric E. hepatic |
E. Hepatic
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Which of the following is a direct tributary of the confluence of sinuses
A. great vein of galen B. cavernous sinus C. straight sinuses D. inferior sagittal sinus E. Pterygoid venous plexus |
C. Straight sinuses
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of arteries as opposed to veins
A. follows a tortuous route B. always in the same location C. has pulses D. Thick and ropey E. Location differs between individuals |
E. Location differs between individuals
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Lymphatic fluid arises from
A. venous blood B. Interstitial fluids in tissues C. Part of the kidney's filtrate |
B. Interstitial fluids in tissues
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Lymphatic capillaries have what unique feature
A. powerful Ca++ pumps B. they are high pressure systems C. little mini-valves with flaps that can open and receive cell debris and foreign particles |
C. little mini-valves with flaps that can open and receive cell debris and foreign particles
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Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine's mucosa are called
A. Bob B. pumpillaries C. canaliculi D. Lacteals E. aqueducts |
D. lacteals
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Lymphatic capillaries in the intestinal mucosa differentially absorb which food nutrients
A. amino acids B. starches C. sugars D. nucleic acids E. lipids |
E. lipids
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Lymph vessels guide lymph fluid to that filtering devices
A. kidney's glomeruli B. lymph nodes C. Venous grating screens D. hassal's corpuscles E. gap junctions |
B. lymph nodes
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Lymph fluid from lower extremities ends up pooling in what small reservoir before moving on to the main lymph duct
A. pool of schlemm B. Langerhans reservoir C. Cisterna chyli D. Pool of Oddi |
C. Cisterna Chyli
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What is the name of the main duct receiving lymph from the lower half of the body
A. Right lymphatic duct B. Thoracic duct C. Brachiocephalic duct D. Obama's passageway E. Canal of Clinton |
B. Thoracic duct
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What is the name of the main duct receiving lymph from the upper right half of the body
A. Right lymphatic duct B. Thoracic duct C. Brachiocephalic duct D. Obama's aquedect E. Canal of clinton |
A. right lymphatic duct
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Where do these (Right lymphatic duct) main ducts terminate
A. Heart B. Liver C. Aorta D. Right and left subclavian veins E. Kidneys |
D. Right and left subclavian veins
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Which lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from the ankles
A. Tibial B. Femoral C. Gluteal D. Popliteal E. Inguinal |
E. Inguinal
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Lymph nodes typically enlarged in a head cold are the
A. Acromial B. Axillary C. Aortic D. Cervical E. Lacrimal |
D. Cervical
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The lymphatic vessels of the breast tissue drain to which lymph nodes
A. Sternal B. Brachial C. Axillary D. Pulmonary E. Cervical |
C. Axillary
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Which of the following does not contain lymphatic follicles or nodules
A. Palatine tonsils B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Lymph nodes E. Lingual tonsils |
C. Thymus
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What is the spleen tissue called that surrounds an arteriole with a cuff of lymphocytes
A. Purple pulp B. White pulp C. Wood pulp D. Crypts of Langerhans E. Cords of Bilroth |
B. White pulp
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What is the purpose of white pulp (spleen tissue)
A. Recycling lysed blood cells B. Synthesizing insulin like growth factors C. Immune surveillance D. Storing blood for later usage |
C. Immune surveillance
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What is the name of the small intestine's lymphoid tissue
A. Aortic nodes B. Islets of langerhans C. Isthmus of Magellan D. Cisterna chyli E. Peyers patches |
E. Peyers patches
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The light stain of a lymphatic follicle's center is due to what occurrence
A. RBC recycling B. Extra lymphatic fluid flow C. Decorative variations D. Initiation of immune response |
D. Initiation of immune response
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What name is given to the above follicles with the lighter staining central clearing where ever they are found
A. White pulp B. Lymphatic patches C. Germinal centers D. Afferent cisterna E. Efferent outflows |
C. Germinal centers
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What is the function of the thymus
A. Immune surveillance B. RBC recycling C. Activates B lymphocytes D. Hormonally activates T lymphocytes E. Both A and B |
D. Hormonally activates T lymphocytes
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What is the period during which the thymus is most active
A. Birth to puberty B. Puberty to 25 C. Starts puberty and declines around 50 years of age D. Only active after 50 |
A. Birth to puberty
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What skin feature inhibits bacterial growth
A. High pH B. Low pH C. Tiny spines D. Soap E. Alcohol |
B. Low pH
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Which type of cells lyse and and kill cancer cells and infected cells non-specifically before the immune system is activated
A. Plasma cells B. Natural killer cells C. T cytotoxic cells D. Platelets E. Fibroblasts |
B. Natural killer cells
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What is likely to kill ingested bacteria in the stomach
A. Hydrochloric acid B. Pizza C. Gastric juice enzymes D. Strong alkaline chemicals E. Both A and C |
E. Both A and C
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Complement activation to infected cell has what results
A. Opsonization which attracts phagocytic cells B. Infected cell lysis due to membrane attack complex C. Increasing anaphylaxis D. Decreased prostagladin activity E. Answers A, B, and C are true |
E. Answers A, B, and C are true
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Which phagocyte is capable of a respiratory burst and is part responsible for kidney (lumpy bumpy nephritis) or heart tissue injury during a blood borne bacterial infection
A. Eosiphils B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Mast cells E. T-helper lymphocytes |
B. Neutrophils
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Which of the following can bind to infected cells and bring about opsonization
A. C3a B. C5a C. C3b D. C3456789 E. Both A and B |
C. C3b
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Which complement proteins cause anaphylaxis
A. C1 B. C2 C. C3a and C5a D. C4 E. C3b |
C. C3a and C5a
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When complement proteins C3b, C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9 spontaneously complex together, what is the result
A. Respiratory burst B. Infected cell lysis from MAC attack C. Initiation of humoral immune response D. Initiation of cell mediated immunity E. Both C and D |
B. Infected cell lysis from MAC attack
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Small molecules that are too small initiate an immune response may accidentally bind to the body's own proteins and become antigenic determinants. These troublesome molecules are called
A. Naughty B. Complete antigens C. Insoucian D. Haptens E. Opsins |
D. Haptens
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Which does not exemplify the above Haptens
A. Pollens B. Danders C. Dust D. Plant oleoresins E. Vit B12 |
E. Vit B12
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What strategy was suggested in lab for minimizing pathogenic bacteria in the food supply
A. Eating foods free of dietary fiber B. Eating foods with lots of soluble plant fiber C. Eating cultured foods (miso, yogurt) D. Eating encapsulated live bacteria (probiotics) known to harmoniously inhabit the GI tract E. Answers B, C, and D are true |
E. Answers B, C, and D are true
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What does the above strategy do to minimize pathogenic bacterial infection
A. Activates compliment B Activates B-cell memory cells C. Fills in GI tract's bacterial habitat blocking pathogens D. Both A and B |
C. Fills in GI tract's bacterial habitat blocking pathogens
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Which immunoglobulins have stem cell regions that bind to and activate complement
A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. Both IgM and IgG can do this |
E. Both IgM and IgG can do this
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Which cell supplies the IL-1 activating molecule
A. Platelets B. Macrophage or other antigen presenting cell C. T-helper cells D. T-suppressor cells E. Infected cells |
B. Macrophage or other antigen presenting cell
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Most cells of the body have which class of MHC self antigen
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV |
A. Class I
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After IL-1 activation which cell activates both the B cell and the T cytotoxic cells with a variety of interleukins?
A. Macrophages B. B lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. T-helper cells (T4s) E. Neutrophils |
D. T-helper cells (T4s)
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Which class of antibody crosses the placenta and protects the developing fetus
A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE |
C. IgG
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Which class of antibody usually appears as a dimer (two parts bound together) and is found in the upper respiratory tract, saliva, mother's milk, and intestinal tract
A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE |
D. IgA
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In our lecture on complement activation which immunoglobulin was given as the one whose handle activates phagocytosis when its active sites are bound to an infected cell
A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM |
C. IgG
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T-cytotoxic lymphocytes can destroy which cells
A. Specific tumor cells or specific virally infected cells B. Any tumor cells C. Any foreign cells lacking a self antigen D. Both B and C |
A. Specific tumor cells or specific virally infected cells
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Think about which blood plasma hormone (neurotransmitter) dilates bronchioles when you start running in order to get more oxygen and remove carbon dioxide to match the increase in blood flow. What would then be the drug of choice for treating histamine and leukotriene mediated affects of anaphylactic shock that includes bronchile constriction in asthma
A. aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Beta-blockers D. Claritin E. Epinephrine |
E. Epinephrine
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Contact dermatitis can be caused by lead, other heavy metals, and commonly by what plant oleoresins
A. Mint leaves B. Honeysuckle flowers C. Chrysanthemums D. Poison oak E. Bay laurel |
D. Poison oak
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Recall that type II hypersensitivity involves complement activation. What is an example
A. Asthma B. Exposure to flower pollens C. Poison oak contact D. Antigen antibody complexes E. RBC agglutination due to mismatched blood types |
E. RBC agglutination due to mismatched blood types
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Artificially acquired passive immunity occurs when an individual gets
A. Infected B. Mothers milk C. Vaccinated D. Injection of immune serum (IgG) E. Both answers B and C |
D. Injection of immune serum (IgG)
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After transplant surgery from a non-identical twin what drug is commonly given to suppress immunity and prevent graft rejection
A. Epinephrine B. Rifampin C. Vicodin D. Metformin E. Prednisone (cortisone) |
E. Prednisone (cortisone)
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If your patient has an asthma attack onset for how long will she show sign of the anaphylactic attack? That is for what period of time will she need to meditate calmly in a quiet place in order to let the attack pass or calm down in the absence of medication
A. Just a few seconds B. 15 hours C. It's possible to do it in 20 to 30 minutes D. 3-5 hours E. It will take 3 days |
C. It's possible to do it in 20 to 30 minutes
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Naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual gets
A. Infected B. Mothers milk C. Vaccinated D. Injection immune serum (IgG) E. Both answers B and D |
A. Infected
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Artificially acquired active immunity occurs when an individual gets
A. Infected B. Mothers milk C. Vaccinated D. Injection immune serum (IgG) E. Both answers B and D |
C. Vaccinated
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Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs when an individual gets
A. Infected B. Mothers milk C. Vaccinated D. Injection immune serum (IgG) E. Both answers B and D |
B. Mothers milk
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A complete antigen has which functions
A. Causes proliferation of specific lymphocytes B. Causes antibody generation C. Reacts with the products of the immune response D. All of A, B, and C |
D. All of A, B, and C
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Asthma and seasonal allergies to ragweed pollen are both examples of what kind of hypersensitivity
A. Immediate Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV Delayed |
A. Immediate Type I
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Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation
A. Redness B. Calmness and reduced anxiety C. Pain D. Heat E. Edema |
B. Calmness and reduced anxiety
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Contact dermatitis such as skin rash due to poison is an example of what kind of hypersensitivity
A. Immediate type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV-Delayed E. Atopic insensitivity |
D. Type IV-Delayed
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If your patient contacts poison oak at 12 noon on Saturday when will she show signs of an allergic rash
A. Within seconds B. At 3pm C. Between 6 and 9PM that evening D. Tuesday |
D. Tuesday
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Which type of hypersensitivity triggers mast cell degranulation within seconds which an allergen binds to IgE? Also it may cause anaphylactic shock in some people
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV |
A. Type I
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The concept of antigenic determinant means that only certain parts of an antigen have
A. acidity B. alkalinity C. immugenicity and reactivity D. ability to form haptens E. endocrine capabilities |
C. immugenicity and reactivity
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If a primary infectious exposure results in immunity, secondary exposures will both encounter and will cause an increase in what blood plasma protein
A. Albumin B. IgG C. Thyroxine D. Insulin E. Ferritin |
B. IgG
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Which class of immunoglobulin seats its stem into a mast cell and waits to bind an allergen like ragweed pollen in the spring
A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA E. IgE |
E. IgE
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Which hypersensitivity involves immune complexes which can not be cleared and may lead to disorders like Farmer's lung or to glomerulonephritis Hint: radiographic exam shows lumpy-bumpy accumulations in kidney glomeruli and lung alveoli
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV E. Type V |
C. Type III
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A genetic defect which results in a marked deficit of B and T cells is called
A. AIDS B. ARC C. SCID D. MTV E. HIV |
C. SCID
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The anterior attachment of the vocal ligament is the
A. Cricoid cartilage B. Epiglottis C. Arytenoid cartilage D. Thyroid cartilage E. Trachealis muscle |
D. Thyroid cartilage
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The posterior attachment site of the vocal ligament is the
A. Cricoid cartilage B. Epiglottis C. Arytenoid cartilage D. Thyroid cartilage E. Trachealis muscle |
C. Arytenoid cartilage
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What muscle abducts or pulls apart the vocal folds
A. Abductor vocalis B. Posterior cricoarytenoid C. Thyrocroid D. Laryngreal transductor E. Thyrohyoid |
B. Posterior cricoarytenoid
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What is the space between the vocal folds called
A. Fauces B. Vestibule C. Piriform recess D. Glottis E. Epiglottis |
D. Glottis
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What muscle elevates the soft palate during glutition (swallowing)?
A. Soprano velli uvula B. Lingua franca C. Alto velli pharyngia D. Tensor velli palatini E. Baritone baretta |
D. Tensor velli palatini
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When an alveolar type II cell secretes its product, what is its overall effect on pulmonary ventilation
A. Decreased lung elasticity B. Increased surface tension C. Increased lung compliance (easier breathing) D. Emphysema E. Bronchiolar constriction |
C. Increased lung compliance (easier breathing)
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Turbinates of the nasal cavity serve what function
A. Prevent insects from entering B. They are a mucous reservoir C. They cause turbulence to warm and humidify air D. They house lymphoid tissues |
C. They cause turbulence to warm and humidify air
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Name the serious membrane found immediately on the surface of the lungs
A. Parietal pleura B. Visceral pericardium C. Brochiolar pleura D. Visceral pleura E. Parietal peritoneum |
D. Visceral pleura
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Tertiary bronchi serve specifically what structures in the lungs
A. Individual alveoli B. Lobes C. Lingulae D. Cupulae E. Bronchopulmonary segments |
E. Bronchopulmonary segments
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What nerve innervates the laryngeal muscles
A. Trigeminal B. Occulomotor C. Accessory D. Facial E. Vagus, recurrent branch |
E. Vagus, recurrent branch
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Your 2 year old patient has aspirated a marble and her breathing is labored. What primary bronchus most likely contains the marble
A. Right B. Left C. Lateral D. Superior E. Inferior |
A. Right
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The right lung has __ lobes, while the left lung has __ lobes
A. 3,4 B. 3,2 C. 3,3 D. 2,3 E. 2,2 |
B. 3,2
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The pleural sac contains (under normal conditions) which items
A. Lungs B. Trachea C. Heart D. Nothing except a small amount of serous fluid E. Both a and b |
D. Nothing except a small amount of serous fluid
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The left lung's lobes are separated by which feature
A. Horizontal fissure B. Lateral fissure C. Diagonal fissure D. Isometric fissure E. Oblique fissure |
E. Oblique fissure
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Name the serous membrane surrounding the lungs and most closely related to the inner thoracic wall
A. Parietal pleura B. Visceral pericardium C. Bronchiolar pleura D. Visceral pleura E. Parietal peritoneum |
A. Parietal pleura
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|
Respiratory bronchioles have a feature which is lacking from other bronchioles called
A. Pulmonary arteries B. Alveoli C. Bronchopulmonary arches D. Stratified squamous epithelium |
B. Alveoli
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A secondary bronchus serves what portion of a lung
A. entire lung B. Bronchopulmonary segment C. One lobe D. Only apex of the lung E. Only the lingual of the left lung |
C. One lobe
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Which cartilaginous ring is immediately inferior to both the thyroid and arytenoid carilages
A. Glottic B. Cricoid C. Aryepiglottic D. Subglottic E. Hyoid |
B. Cricoid
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What is the inferior boundary of the nasopharynx
A. Tubal tonsil B. Fauces C. Internal nares D. Uvula of the soft palate E. External nares |
D. Uvula of the soft palate
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|
Name the immediate posterior relation to the trachea
A. Thyroid gland B. Common carotid artery C. Sternocleidomastoid muscle D. Digastric muscle E. Esophagus |
E. Esophagus
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|
The trachealis muscle in the posterior wall of the trachea is flexible and allows for
A. Singing in the deep bass range B. Rapid breathing C. Passage of large food bolus down esophagus D. Shaking head from side to side |
C. Passage of large food bolus down esophagus
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During rest or sleep name the respiratory volume normally employed
A. Vital capacity B. Inspiratory capacity C. Tidal Volume D. Total lung volume E. Residual volume |
C. Tidal Volume
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|
What epithelial tissue type is the alveolar type I cell
A. Simple cuboidal B. Simple squamous C. Stratified squamous D. Pseudostratified columnar with cilia and goblet cells E. Transitional |
B. Simple squamous
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When an alveolar type II cell secretes its product, what is its overall effect on pulmonary ventilation
A. Decreased lung elasticity B. Increased surface tension C. Increased lung compliance (easier breathing) D. Emphysema E. Bronchiolar constriction |
C. Increased lung compliance (easier breathing)
|
|
|
What respiratory volume is employed when a maximal inhalation is taken followed by a maximal exhalation
A. Total lung capacity B. Inspiratory capacity C. Tidal Volume D. Residual volume E. Vital capacity |
E. Vital capacity
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|
Name the serous membrane found immediately on the surface of the lungs
A. Parietal pleura B. Visceral pericardium C. Bronchiolar pleura D. Visceral pleura E. Parietal peritoneum |
D. Visceral pleura
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|
Our text indicates that patients almost invariably have a history of ___ when referring to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A. Overeating B. Smoking C. Alcohol addiction D. Athleticism E. Rubella |
B. Smoking
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Which of the following is an example of a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A. Chronic bronchitis B. Strep throat C. Emphysema D. Primary Hypertension E. Answers A and C |
E. Answers A and C
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|
|
Which muscle is not employed in deep or forced inspiration
A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Scalenes C. Latissimus dorsi D. Pectoralis minor |
C. Latissimus dorsi
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|
How does hyperventilation affect blood gases and pH
A. Decreased O2 with acidity B. Decreased Co2 with acidity C. Increased o2 with acidity D. Decreased co2 with alkalinity E. Decreased o2 with alkalinity |
D. Decreased co2 with alkalinity
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|
Which cranial nerve innervates the aortic arch to sense blood gases and pH
A. Trigeminal B. Vagus C. Facial D. Glossopharyngeal E. Hypoglossal |
B. Vagus
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|
Which nerve innervates the carotid sinus to sense blood gases and pH
A. Occulomotor B. Vagus C. Facial D. Glossopharyngeal E. Answers A and C |
D. Glossopharyngeal
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|
|
Where in the brain are the respiratory centers that regulate rate, rhythm, and volume of breathing
A. Pineal gland B. Pituitary gland C. Cortex of lateral lobe D. Cerebellum E. Pons and medulla |
E. Pons and medulla
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|
|
Under normal conditions name the most powerful respiratory stimulant in arterial blood
A. Rising O2 level B. Rising CO2 levels C. Rising blood pH D. Decreasing O2 levels |
B. Rising CO2 levels
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O2 more readily dissociates from hemoglobin for delivery to tissue cells that are causing what changes in the blood surrounding them
A. Higher than normal temperatures B. More acidity C. More alkalinity D. Lower than normal temperatures E. Both A and B |
E. Both A and B
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|
|
The pleural sac contains (under normal conditions) which items
A. lungs B. Trachea C. Heart D. Nothing except a small amount of serous fluid E. Both A and B |
D. Nothing except a small amount of serous fluid
|
|
|
Name the esophageal epithelium we saw in lab
A. Stratified squamous B. Simple squamous C. Simple cuboidal D. Simple columnar E. Pseudostratified columnar with cilia and goblet cells |
E. Pseudostratified columnar with cilia and goblet cells
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|
|
Besides the diaphragm, what muscle assists normal inspiration
A. Internal intercostals B. Latissimus dorsi C. External intercostals D. External obliques E. Internal phrenics |
C. External intercostals
|
|
|
Name the fatty CT that attaches to both the stomach's inferior margin and to the transverse colon. It helps enclose the lesser sac
A. Renal adipose B. Epiploic appendages C. Faciform ligament D. Greater omentum E. Ligamentum teres |
D. Greater omentum
|
|
|
Name the wave like GI tract contractions that are the major means of food propulsion
A. Segmentation B. Peristalsis C. Sphincter of Oddi contractions D. Myogenic reflexes |
B. Peristalsis
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|
|
What total number of bicuspid premolar teeth are there in the normal adult month (including all four quadrants)
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10 |
D. 8
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|
Name the thin membranous tissue that connects the stomach's lesser curvature to the liver
A. Renal adipose B. Epiploic appendages C. Faciform ligament D. Greater omentum E. Lesser omentum |
E. Lesser omentum
|
|
|
Besides the diaphragm, what muscle assists normal inspiration
A. Internal intercostals B. Latissimus dorsi C. External intercostals D. External obliques E. Internal phrenics |
C. External intercostals
|
|
|
Name the fatty CT that attaches to both the stomach's inferior margin and to the transverse colon. It helps enclose the lesser sac
A. Renal adipose B. Epiploic appendages C. Faciform ligament D. Greater omentum E. Ligamentum teres |
D. Greater omentum
|
|
|
Name the wave like GI tract contractions that are the major means of food propulsion
A. Segmentation B. Peristalsis C. Sphincter of Oddi contractions D. Myogenic reflexes |
B. Peristalsis
|
|
|
What total number of bicuspid premolar teeth are there in the normal adult month (including all four quadrants)
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. 10 |
D. 8
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|
|
Name the thin membranous tissue that connects the stomach's lesser curvature to the liver
A. Renal adipose B. Epiploic appendages C. Faciform ligament D. Greater omentum E. Lesser omentum |
E. Lesser omentum
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|
|
Gastric HCl secretion requires simultaneous stimulation from 3 substances not including
A. Gastrin B. Histamine C. Cholecystikinin D. Acetylcholine from vagus nerve potentials |
C. Cholecystikinin
|
|
|
Name the most abundant active enzyme in the saliva and what it acts upon
A. Trypsin/protein B. Pepsin/fat C. Pepsin/fat D. Amylase/starch E. Lipase/lipid |
D. Amylase/starch
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|
|
The tooth attaches to what structure via its periodontal ligament
A. Gingiva B. Dentin C. Enamel D. Pulp's vein/artery/nerve E. Alveolar processes of the maxilla or mandible |
E. Alveolar processes of the maxilla or mandible
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These are the structural modifications of the small intestine that increase its surface area for digestion and absorption except
A. Plicae circularis B. Microvilli of columnar cells C. Villi D. Haustra |
D. Haustra
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What microstructure divides the digestive mucosa from its next layer the submucosa
A. Mucous glands B. Water C. A layer of fat D. Muscularis mucosa E. Adventitia |
D. Muscularis mucosa
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What structural invagination lies between the small intestinal villi? They are known to secrete mucosal enzymes
A. Grooves of Schlemm B. Oddi's hiatus C. Crypts of Lieberkuhn D. Apses of Altamont E. Meatuses of Mary |
C. Crypts of Lieberkuhn
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Open the abdominal wall, touch the stomach and name the serous membrane you are touching
A. Parietal Pericardium B. Visceral pericardium C. Parietal pleura D. Visceral peritoneum E. Parietal peritoneum |
D. Visceral peritoneum
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What potential space lies behind the stomach
A. Mesenteric window B. Lesser peritoneal sac C. Greater peritoneal sac D. Pancreatic vestibule E. Duodenal chamber quartet |
B. Lesser peritoneal sac
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Which cranial nerve regulates deglutition (swallowing)
A. Trochlear B. Maxillary C. Facial D. Vagus E. Lingual |
D. Vagus
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The parietal cells of the gastric glands secrete what substance
A. HCL and intrinsic factor B. Pepsinogen C. Cholecystikinin D. Mucous E. Gastrin |
A. HCL and intrinsic factor
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What substance prevents the stomach from digesting itself
A. HCl B. Pepsinogen C. Gastrin D. Bicarbonate-rich mucous |
D. Bicarbonate-rich mucous
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The chief cells of the gastric glands secrete what substance
A. HCl B. Pepsinogen C. Gastrin D. Mucous |
B. Pepsinogen
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Which of the following digestive or biological processes is not found in the oral cavity
A. Mastication B. Salts dissolve in saliva C. Protein digestion D. Starch digestion E. Taste sensation |
C. Protein digestion
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Which of the following digestive or biological processes is found in the stomach?
A. Protein denaturing and digestion B. Soluble fiber digestion C. Starch digestion D. Insoluble fiber digestion |
A. Protein denaturing and digestion
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What cranial nerve innervates most of the digestive tract down to the transverse colon
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Abducens D. Trochlear E. Vagus |
E. Vagus
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The stomach's muscularis externa has __ layers, while the esophagus's muscularis externa has __ layers
A. 1&2 B. 2&2 C. 2&3 D. 3&2 E. 3&3 |
D. 3&2
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Through what structure does bile enter the small intestine along with pancreatic juices
A. Rugae B. Pylorus C. Sphincter of Oddi D. Crypts of Lieberkuhn E. Gastro-esophageal sphincter |
C. Sphincter of Oddi
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Name the most abundant enzyme in gastric juices and what it acts upon
A. Trypsin/protein B. Pepsin/fat C. Pepsin/Protein D. Amylase/starch E. Lipase/lipid |
C. Pepsin/Protein
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Which of the following structures is partially or entirely retroperitoneal
A. Pancreas B. Duodenum C. Stomach D. Transverse colon E. Answers A and B |
E. Answers A and B
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The peritoneal sac contains which items
A. Stomach B. Small and large intestines C. Answers A and B D. Aorta and inferior vena cava E. Nothing but a bit of serous fluid, the female ovary and distal end of oviduct |
E. Nothing but a bit of serous fluid, the female ovary and distal end of oviduct
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Serous demilunes are mostly found in which glands and with which cranial nerve innovation
A. Parotid/CN IX B. Sublingual & submandibular/CN X C. Lacrimal/CN VII D. Sublingual & submandibular/ CN VII |
D. Sublingual & submandibular/ CN VII
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Serous demilunes are mostly found in which glands and with which cranial nerve innovation
A. Parotid/CN IX B. Sublingual & submandibular/CN X C. Lacrimal/CN VII D. Sublingual & submandibular/ CN VII |
D. Sublingual & submandibular/ CN VII
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What progressive chronic inflammation of the liver wherein the liver produces increasing levels of connective tissue scar-tissue is called
A. pancreatitis B. Cirrhosis C. Peritonitis D. Claudication E. Colitis |
B. Cirrhosis
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Which is not true about soluble fiber
A. Absorbs water to make soft well formed stools B. Intestinal flora digests it and gives us vitamins C. Nourishes flora and provides flatulence D. An essential protein source |
D. An essential protein source
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Which of the following nutrients is the one that most cells throughout the body rely on for energy
A. Protein B. Polyunsaturated fats C. Glucose D. Essential amino acids E. Vit C |
C. Glucose
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Molecules which can not be made within the cell by interconversions and must be provided by the diet in order to sustain life are called
A. Foodstuffs B. Bolus C. Condiment D. Protein E. Essential nutrients |
E. Essential nutrients
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Which of the following is an essential nutrient from the lipid category of foods
A. Virgin olive oil B. Linoleic (omega-6) and alpha linolenic acids (omega-3) C. Stearic acid D. All triglycerides E. Only monounsaturated triglycerides |
B. Linoleic (omega-6) and alpha linolenic acids (omega-3)
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What progressive chronic inflammation of the liver wherein the liver produces increasing levels of connective tissue scar-tissue is called
A. pancreatitis B. Cirrhosis C. Peritonitis D. Claudication E. Colitis |
B. Cirrhosis
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Which is not true about soluble fiber
A. Absorbs water to make soft well formed stools B. Intestinal flora digests it and gives us vitamins C. Nourishes flora and provides flatulence D. An essential protein source |
D. An essential protein source
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Which of the following nutrients is the one that most cells throughout the body rely on for energy
A. Protein B. Polyunsaturated fats C. Glucose D. Essential amino acids E. Vit C |
C. Glucose
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Molecules which can not be made within the cell by interconversions and must be provided by the diet in order to sustain life are called
A. Foodstuffs B. Bolus C. Condiment D. Protein E. Essential nutrients |
E. Essential nutrients
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Which of the following is an essential nutrient from the lipid category of foods
A. Virgin olive oil B. Linoleic (omega-6) and alpha linolenic acids (omega-3) C. Stearic acid D. All triglycerides E. Only monounsaturated triglycerides |
B. Linoleic (omega-6) and alpha linolenic acids (omega-3)
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Insoluble dietary fiber has what function
A. Intestinal bacteria digest it and provide vitamins B. Increasing GI motility and cleaning out low fiber foods C. Provides glucose for energy D. Contains protein E. Both A and D |
B. Increasing GI motility and cleaning out low fiber foods
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Which food did we name as a higher nutrient dense source of Vit C that others
A. Oranges B. Carrots C. Green peppers and cauliflower D. Pink grapefruit E. Bagels |
C. Green peppers and cauliflower
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What nerve innervates the digestive tract from the descending colon to the anus
A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Abducens D. Pelvic splanchnic E. Vagus |
D. Pelvic splanchnic
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What hepatocytes product can emulsify fat in the small intestine
A. Pepsin B. Bile C. Bilirubin D. Trypsin E. Both answers A and D |
B. Bile
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Through what structure does the above product (bile) enter the small intestine
A. Rugae B. Pylorus C. Sphincter of Oddi D. Crypts of Lieberkuhn E. Pyloric sphincter |
C. Sphincter of Oddi
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What important hormone opens the above structure (sphincter of Oddi)
A. Gastrin B. Vaguein C. Obscurin D. CCK E. SARS |
D. CCK
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What hormone causes the pancreatic secretion of enzymes
A. Renin B. Gastrin C. Secretin D. Somatostatin E. CCK |
E. CCK
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What hormone causes the pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate rich fluid from its duct cells
A. Renin B. Gastrin C. Secretin D. D. Somatostatin E. CCK |
C. Secretin
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What is not a structure found in the portal triad
A. Branch of the hepartic artery (arteriole) B. Branch of the hepatic vein (venule) C. Branch of the bile duct D. Branch of the portal vein (venule) |
B. Branch of the hepatic vein (venule)
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Which of the following a hepatocyte activity
A. Cholesterol synthesis and metabolism B. Glycogen synthesis, storage, and coversion to glucose C. Gluconeogenesis D. Toxin uptake and metabolism E. All of answers A,B,C,D are correct |
E. All of answers A,B,C,D are correct
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What small intestinal mucosal enzyme activates pancreatic trypsinogen causing a cascade of activations
A. CCK B. Secretin C. Pepsin D. Enteropeptidase E. Chymotrypsin |
D. Enteropeptidase
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You see light passing through the translucent epiploic windows of the small intestine's mesentery indicating that you are holding the
A. Cecum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Pyloric sphincter |
B. Jejunum
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Which of the following is not one of the liver's libes
A. Quadrate B. Left C. Right D. Caudate E. Lesser |
E. Lesser
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Prior to birth the liver's round ligament was the fetal
A. Aorta B. Inferior vena cava C. Umbilical vein D. Pulmonary artery E. Chorionic artery |
C. Umbilical vein
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Which of the following is not a use for fat in the body
A. Energy storage B. Protective packing for nerves C. Protective packing around the eyes and kidneys D. Fuel for skeletal muscle E. They serve as enzymes |
E. They serve as enzymes
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Healthy liver tissue is composed of 6 sided lobules with what structure at each hexagonal corner
A. Central vein B. Islets of Langerhans C. Portal triad D. Falciform ligament E. Suspensory ligament |
C. Portal triad
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We voluntarily aid the process of defecation by closing the glottis and contracting the abdominal muscles in a procedure called
A. Bohr effect B. Schlemm's slide C. Oddi's oddity D. Diaperdesis E. Valsava's maneuver |
E. Valsava's maneuver
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Where is glycogen stored in the body for use over the next day or so
A. Spleen's red pulp B. Brain cells C. Adrenal cortex D. Lungs E. Liver, kidney, and all muscle tissue including the heart |
E. Liver, kidney, and all muscle tissue including the heart
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Over ninety percent of dietary water is absorbed by the
A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Large intestine D. Liver E. Pacreas |
B. Small intestine
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The large intestine's mucosa lacks which feature(s) common to the small intestinal mucosa
A. Villi B. Plicae circulares C. Crypts of Lieberkuhn and microvilli D. Both A and B E. Answers A, B, and C |
D. Both A and B
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Name the large intestine's longitudinal bands of muscle along its external surface
A. Haustra B. Ligamentum teres C. Tinae coli D. Rugae E. Epiploic bands |
C. Tinae coli
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Which of the following vitamins represent the anti-oxidant group that we were instructed to learn
A. Folate, ascorbic acid, cobalamin B. Carotenoids, ascorbic acid, tocopherol C. Niacin, thiamin, riboflavin D. Pantothenic acid, biotin E. Phylloquinone, pyridoxine, cholecalciferol |
B. Carotenoids, ascorbic acid, tocopherol
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What large intestine feature appears as billowing folds of gatherings held in place by the tinae coli
A. Haustra B. Epiploic darts C. Epiploic pleats D. Rugae E. Epiploic bands |
A. Haustra
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What uses did we identify for vitamin B1 and pantothenic acid
A. Collagen biosynthesis B. Prevents night blindness C. Prevents scurvy D. Acetyl CoA formation from metabolites E. Both B and C |
D. Acetyl CoA formation from metabolites
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Which food did we identify as one best nutrient dense source of niacin (vit B3)
A. Beef steak B. Mushrooms C. Whole wheat bagels D. Black coffee E. Mozzarella cheese |
B. Mushrooms
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Riboflavin (vit B2) and niacin worked in what capacity
A. Keratin biosynthesis B. Prevents rickets C. Prevents scurvy D. Both A and B E. Links Krebs cycle to oxidative phosphorylation (ATP production) |
E. Links Krebs cycle to oxidative phosphorylation (ATP production)
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What is the best nutrient rich source of folic acid
A. Cantaloupe B. Orange juice C. Spinach and romaine lettuce D. Beef steak E. Cheddar cheese |
C. Spinach and romaine lettuce
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The B complex vitamin folate or folic acid had which use in the body
A. Collagen biosynthesis B. Prevents night blindness C. Prevents rickets D. DNA synthesis E. Both A and C |
D. DNA synthesis
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What is the best nutrient rich source for vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
A. Beef steak B. Whole milk C. Spinach and broccoli D. Swiss cheese E. Peanut butter |
C. Spinach and broccoli
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What is the best nutrient rich sources for vitamin E
A. Whole wheat bagels B. Spinach, almonds, and asparagus C. Apples D. Chocolate easter bunnies E. Milk |
B. Spinach, almonds, and asparagus
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While the large intestine absorbs vitamins from intestinal flora, its main function as identified in the text is
A. Storage and propulsion of chyme B. Water absorption C. Protein absorption D. Fat absorption E. Chocolate easter bunny absorption |
A. Storage and propulsion of chyme
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The pancreatic juice does not have enzymes for the breakdown of
A. protein B. starch C. lipids D. Insoluble fiber E. Maltodextrins |
D. Insoluble fiber
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The pancreas secretes which buffer to change the acidic stomach chime to a pH of about 8
A. Mucous B. Bicarbonate C. Trypsin D. Insulin E. Milk |
B. Bicarbonate
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What is the fate of HDL cholesterol carriers made by the liver
A. Form plaques in arterial walls B. Get eaten by VLDLs C. HDLs scavenge cholesterol from LDLs and get taken back up by the liver D. They end up dying in the spleen where they are turned over to form bile substrates |
C. HDLs scavenge cholesterol from LDLs and get taken back up by the liver
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People can increase their percentage of HDL cholesterol carriers by
A. Aerobic exercise B. Being females from puberty to menopause and having normal menstration C. Getting extra sleep D. Getting a high protein diet E. Both answers A and B |
E. Both answers A and B
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The small intestine's primary functions include all except
A. Nutrient absorption B. Starch metabolism C. Fat metabolism D. Protein metabolism E. Insoluble fiber metabolism |
E. Insoluble fiber metabolism
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The main adult dietary source of carbohydrates is
A. Plants (veg, fruits, grains) B. Meats C. Dairy-milk from mammalian Mom D. Fish E. Poultry |
A. Plants (veg, fruits, grains)
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Once more, how many ATPs are provided by the complete combustion of one molecule of glucose in all of the metabolic pathways together without regard to membrane transfer energies
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 18 E. 38 |
E. 38
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of phosphorous (nutrient per kcal)
A. Oranges B. Beef steak C. 100% bran cereal, zucchini, spinach D. Sweet potatoes E. Apples |
C. 100% bran cereal, zucchini, spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of calcium (nutrient per kcal)
A. Cheddar cheese B. Beef steak C. Whole wheat bagels D. Turnip greens and spinach E. Apples |
D. Turnip greens and spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of iron (nutrient per kcal)
A. Green peas and spinach B. Cheddar cheese C. Whole wheat bagels D. Eggs E. Beef steak |
A. Green peas and spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of potassium (nutrient per kcal)
A. oranges B. spinach and zucchini C. Beef steak D. American cheese E. Oranges |
B. spinach and zucchini
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Once more, how many ATPs are provided by the complete combustion of one molecule of glucose in all of the metabolic pathways together without regard to membrane transfer energies
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 18 E. 38 |
E. 38
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of phosphorous (nutrient per kcal)
A. Oranges B. Beef steak C. 100% bran cereal, zucchini, spinach D. Sweet potatoes E. Apples |
C. 100% bran cereal, zucchini, spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of calcium (nutrient per kcal)
A. Cheddar cheese B. Beef steak C. Whole wheat bagels D. Turnip greens and spinach E. Apples |
D. Turnip greens and spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of iron (nutrient per kcal)
A. Green peas and spinach B. Cheddar cheese C. Whole wheat bagels D. Eggs E. Beef steak |
A. Green peas and spinach
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of potassium (nutrient per kcal)
A. oranges B. spinach and zucchini C. Beef steak D. American cheese E. Oranges |
B. spinach and zucchini
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What foods have the highest nutrient density of magnesium
A. Grapes B. Rice cakes C. Beef steak D. Velveeta cheese E. Spinach and broccoli |
E. Spinach and broccoli
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One molecule of glucose yields how many of ATPs from substrate mechanisms
A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 E. 38 |
C. 4
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The eating right pyramid was brought to us from
A. Physicians for responsible medicine B. AMA C. USDA as a political compromise between the AMA and National academy of sciences D. CIA E. A consensus of scientists |
C. USDA as a political compromise between the AMA and National academy of sciences
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Which of these is not an essential amino acid
A. Phenylalanine B. Tryptophan C. Methionine D. Threonine E. Glycine |
E. Glycine
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What is a use for iron in the body
A. Helps uptake of calcium from the gut B. Used at center of porphyrin rings of hemoglobin proteins C. Increases metabolic rate D. Synthesis of collagen |
B. Used at center of porphyrin rings of hemoglobin proteins
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What is a use for magnesium in the body
A. Antioxidant B. Used in hemoglobin at porphyrin ring C. Coenzyme in the synthesis of collagen D. increases rate of breathing E. Activates renin |
C. Coenzyme in the synthesis of collagen
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Liver and muscle cells metabolize fatty acids one acetate (2 carbons) at a time is a process called
A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenolysis D. Beta oxidation E. Greasidation |
D. Beta oxidation
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What is the end product of gluconeogenesis
A. Protein B. Fat C. Glucose D. Glycogen E. Gatorade |
C. Glucose
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The liver performs gluconeogenesis from what substrate
A. Glycogen B. Fructose C. Lactose D. Fat and Protein E. Sucrose |
D. Fat and Protein
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Juxtaglomerular (granular) cells contain and secrete what important enzyme
A. Angiotensin B. Aldosterone C. Epinephrine D. Trypsin E. Renin |
E. Renin
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Which of the following structures is an anatomical landmark separating the renal cortex from the medulla
A. Glomerulus B. Arcuate artery C. Henle's loop D. Distal convoluted tubule E. Efferent Arteriole |
B. Arcuate artery
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The glomeruli reside in what part of the kidney
A. Hilus B. Medulla C. Pelvis D. Cortex E. Left lobe |
D. Cortex
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When filtrate proceeds down the collecting ducts to the pyramid's papilla, the filtrate exits into what location next
A. Minor calyx B. Captain calyx C. Major calyx D. Renal pelvis E. Ureter |
A. Minor calyx
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On either side of the glomerular capillaries are afferent and efferent arterioles. So the glomerular capillaries experience elevated levels of
A. Osmosis B. Blood pressure C. Waste products D. Infections E. Both C and D |
B. Blood pressure
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That which is filtered through the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed by the nephron eventually becomes
A. Blood B. CSF C. Aqueous humor D. Waters of metabolism E. Urine |
E. Urine
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The kidneys are supported in their anatomical position by what
A. Powerful ligaments looped over the shoulders B. A boney shelf C. Concentric "seas" of fat D. Anterior abdominal wall muscles |
C. Concentric "seas" of fat
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The kidneys are protected by what posterior relation
A. Sacrum B. Lumbar vertebrae C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Ribs 11 & 12 E. The ileum |
D. Ribs 11 & 12
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The juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by the ascending limb of Henle's loop and the
A. Bowman's capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Arcuate artery D. Afferent arteriole E. Collecting duct |
D. Afferent arteriole
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The danger of very low blood pressure would result in
A. Too much urine formed B. No glomerular filtration (renal failure) C. Slow heart rate D. High cholesterol E. Elevated blood glucose |
B. No glomerular filtration (renal failure)
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The nephron is formed by all of these structures except
A. Bowmans capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Arcuate artery D. Distal convoluted tubule E. Henle's loop |
C. Arcuate artery
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Reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts is potentiated when that biochemical stimulates aquaporin synthesis
A. oxytocin B. Epinephrine C. ADH D. Urea E. Renin |
C. ADH
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The juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by the ascending limb of Henle's loop and the
A. Bowman's capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Arcuate artery D. Afferent arteriole E. Collecting duct |
D. Afferent arteriole
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|
The danger of very low blood pressure would result in
A. Too much urine formed B. No glomerular filtration (renal failure) C. Slow heart rate D. High cholesterol E. Elevated blood glucose |
B. No glomerular filtration (renal failure)
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The nephron is formed by all of these structures except
A. Bowmans capsule B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Arcuate artery D. Distal convoluted tubule E. Henle's loop |
C. Arcuate artery
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|
Reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts is potentiated when that biochemical stimulates aquaporin synthesis
A. oxytocin B. Epinephrine C. ADH D. Urea E. Renin |
C. ADH
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Angiotensinogen is activated by what molecule from where
A. Renin/Liver B. Renin/Kidney C. Aldosterone/Adrenal cortex D. ACE/lungs E. Epinephrine/Adrenal medulla |
B. Renin/Kidney
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What molecule and where activates angiotensin I to angiotensin II
A. renin/liver B. Renin/kidney C. Aldosterone/Adrenal cortex D. ACE/lungs E. Epinephrine/Adrenal medulla |
D. ACE/lungs
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Macula densa cells are found in what structure
A. Bowman's capsule B. Glomerulus C. Ascending loop of Henle part of JGA D. Afferent arteriole part of JGA E. Collecting ducts |
C. Ascending loop of Henle part of JGA
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The macula densa cells activate what cells that release renin
A. Mesangeal cells B. Chief cells of collecting ducts C. Afferent arteriole's granular cells D. Descending Henle's loop cells E. Glomerular cells |
C. Afferent arteriole's granular cells
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The macula densa cells use what molecule for communicating changes in tonicity in the filtrate
A. CIA B. ATP C. AMA D. Calcium ion E. Ionized iron (Fe++) |
B. ATP
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The kidney controls blood oxygen levels during increased aerobic exercise by releasing what molecule to increase RBC production
A. Renin B. EPO C. ABC D. ACE E. CIA |
B. EPO
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|
What are the monomers of maltose
A. Sucrose B. Fructose C. Ribose D. Glucose E. Galactose |
D. Glucose
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A good source of complex carbs would include what items
A. soluble fiber B. Insoluble fiber C. Long chain polysaccharides D. Healthy plant cells E. All of these |
E. All of these
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What are the monomers of lactose
A. Glucose/fructose B. Glucose/glucose C. Galactose/fructose D. Glucose/galactose E. Ribose/fructose |
D. Glucose/galactose
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Since the glomerulus is a capillary network bounded by an afferent arteriole and a efferent arteriole it is a system that requires what kind of capillaries
A. Continuous B. Sinusoidal C. Fenestrated D. Articulated E. Collateral |
C. Fenestrated
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Name the veins associated with the convoluted tubules
A. Inguinal veins B. Pterygoid plexus of veins C. Peritubular veins D. Collecting veins E. Supra-renal veins |
C. Peritubular veins
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|
Name the veins associated with the loop of Henle
A. Paminiform plexus of veins B. Mesenteric veins C. Vasa recta D. Glomerular veins E. Portal veins |
C. Vasa recta
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|
A serving of a particular food contains 100 calories and 4 grams of fat. This food has what percentage of its calories coming from fat
A. 60% B. 36% C. 12% D. 4% E. This item is pure fat or oil |
B. 36%
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Which is not a cause of respiratory acidosis
A. Holding the breath B. Impaired lung function like cystic fibrosis or emphysema C. hypoventilation due to painful rib fracture D. hyperventilation due to panic attack E. Both A and B |
D. hyperventilation due to panic attack
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What molecule and from where decreases ADH release, aldosterone release, and renin release
A. ANP/Liver B. EPO/Kidney C. ACTH/Anterior pituitary D. ACE/Lungs E. ANP/Heart atria |
E. ANP/Heart atria
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|
What is the most powerful stimulant of aldosterone release
A. Renin B. Epinephrine C. ACE D. Angiotensin II E. ADH |
D. Angiotensin II
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|
Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ at the kidney's cortical collecting ducts by what means
A. Passive diffusion B. Diapedesis C. Exchanging Na+ for K+ thus excreting K+ D. Exchanging 2 Na+ for Ca__ thus excreting Ca++ E. Solvent drag |
C. Exchanging Na+ for K+ thus excreting K+
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If you breathe faster than is necessary to remove CO2 from the bloodstream and obtain oxygen in the absence of exercise
A. Respiratory alkalosis (blood becomes alkaline) B. Respiratory acidosis (blood becomes acidic) C. You get hiccups D. Metabolic acidosis E. Metabolic alkalosis |
A. Respiratory alkalosis (blood becomes alkaline)
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What would be an example of respiratory alkalosis
A. Effects of alcohol B. Effects of narcotics C. Panic attack or high altitude breathing due to hypoxia D. Both A and B |
C. Panic attack or high altitude breathing due to hypoxia
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All of these trigger renin release except
A. Low bp B. Sympathetic stimulation C. Macula densa cells responding to too low Na+ D. Low K+ E. Blood borne epinephrine |
D. Low K+
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Normally all of the glucose, lactate, and amino acids are reabsorbed in the
A. DCT B. Ascending loop of Henle C. Descending loop of Henle D. Collecting ducts E. PCT |
E. PCT
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Urine exits the female urinary bladder into the
A. Ureter B. Urethra C. Renal pelvis D. Calyces E. Papilla |
B. Urethra
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Urine enters the urinary bladder via a dual opening in what posterior feature
A. Trigone B. Urethra C. Renal pelvis D. Calyces E. Papilla |
A. Trigone
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Urine exits the male urinary bladder into the
A. Penile urethra B. Membranous urethra C. Prostatic urethra D. Pelvic urethra E. Inguinal urethra |
C. Prostatic urethra
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If the normal inulin clearance value is 125 mg/ml what is the normal glucose clearance rate
A. 125 B. 250 C. 65 D. 0 E. 1,000 |
D. 0
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Creatinine has a higher clearance rate than inulin because
A. Creatinine is not blood borne B. Inulin is highly reabsorbed C. Creatinine is filtered at the glomerulus and also secreted in the PCT and DCT D. Both A and B E. Inulin is not filtered at the glomerulus |
C. Creatinine is filtered at the glomerulus and also secreted in the PCT and DCT
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Reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts is potentiated when what biochemical stimulates aquaporin synthesis
A. Oxytocin B. Epinephrine C. ADH D. Urea E. Renin |
C. ADH
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Urine exits the male urinary bladder into the
A. Penile urethra B. Membranous urethra C. Prostatic urethra D. Pelvic urethra E. Inguinal urethra |
C. Prostatic urethra
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If the normal inulin clearance value is 125 mg/ml what is the normal glucose clearance rate
A. 125 B. 250 C. 65 D. 0 E. 1,000 |
D. 0
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Creatinine has a higher clearance rate than inulin because
A. Creatinine is not blood borne B. Inulin is highly reabsorbed C. Creatinine is filtered at the glomerulus and also secreted in the PCT and DCT D. Both A and B E. Inulin is not filtered at the glomerulus |
C. Creatinine is filtered at the glomerulus and also secreted in the PCT and DCT
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Reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts is potentiated when what biochemical stimulates aquaporin synthesis
A. Oxytocin B. Epinephrine C. ADH D. Urea E. Renin |
C. ADH
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The kidney's interstitial fluid has what 2 main solutes that create sufficient tonicity to stimulate water diffusion from kidney collecting ducts
A. K and Cl B. Urea and Na+ C. Fe and creatinine D. Ca and Mg |
B. Urea and Na+
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In the absence of other factors, the JGA's granular cells have what response to very low blood pressure
A. Constricting afferent arteriole sphincter B. Dilating afferent arteriole sphincter and release of renin C. Releasing aldosterone D. Resting E. Stimulating macula densa cells to release angiotensinogen |
B. Dilating afferent arteriole sphincter and release of renin
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The JGA's glomerular cells secrete renin in response to what stimuli
A. High blood pressure B. Sympathetic NS stimulation C. Epinephrine from adrenal medulla D. High Na+ E. Both B and C |
E. Both B and C
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During low blood pressure with sympathetic stimulation and renin-angiotensin activation what will keep afferent arterioles dilared while other arterioles are constricted
A. ATP B. Beta receptor binding of potassium C. Alpha receptor binding of norepinephrine D. High Na+ concentration E. Somatostatin |
C. Alpha receptor binding of norepinephrine
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How do macula densa cells respond to a high blood pressure and an increased glomerular filtration rate that causes a decrease in all reabsorption and an increased Na+ concentration at the MD cells
A. They like it B. They send ATP to afferent arteriole cells to constrict C. Signal afferent arteriole granular cells to secret ACE D. Signal mesangial cells to secrete EPO |
B. They send ATP to afferent arteriole cells to constrict
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The descending loop of henle has which unique feature
A. Increased H20 permeability B. Increased Na pumping C. Increased Cl pumping D. Sensitivity to oxytocin E. Both B and C |
A. Increased H20 permeability
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The ascending loop of henle thick portions has what unique feature
A. H20 permeability B. H20 impermeability no aquaporins C. Na+ pump D. H20 active transport E. Answers B and C |
E. Answers B and C
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Inside the cell what anion is found in the greatest concentration
A. Na+ B. Cl- C. HPO42- D. K+ E. Mg++ |
C. HPO42-
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A person becomes thirsty and seeks a drink when there is a decrease in
A. atmospheric pressure B. Extracellular fluid volume C. Urinary bladder volume D. Large intestinal volume |
B. Extracellular fluid volume
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Thirst is regulated by the
A. Cerebral thirst center B. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors and thirst centers C. Pons aqua ninja mutants D. Midbrain aquanodes E. Cerebral aqua association commisure |
B. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors and thirst centers
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Under normal conditions most water exits the body by way of
A. Feces B. Sweat C. Insensible loss D. Unsensible loss E. Urine |
E. Urine
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The female sex hormone estrogen enhances Na+ reabsorption and water retention because it is chemically similar to
A. Renin B. Angiotensin C. Epinephrine D. Aldosterone E. Caffeine |
D. Aldosterone
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Declining blood pressure and blood volume triggers all of the following except
A. Increased ADH release B. Increased renin release C. Increased insulin release D. Increase sympathetic tone E. Activation of angiotensinogen |
C. Increased insulin release
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While aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption it simultaneously increases secretion and excretion of
A. Ca++ B. Water C. K+ D. Glucose E. HPO42 |
C. K+
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Urine passes distally through the ureter to the bladder via what mechanism
A. Gravity B. Muscular waves of peristalsis C. Wave like motion of the ciliated transitional epithelium D. Partial vacuum in bladder E. hydrostatic pressure from the renal pump |
B. Muscular waves of peristalsis
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Aldosterone's increased Na+ reabsorption has what results
A. Increased blood volume B. Increased blood pressure C. Increased GFR D. Increased diuresis E. Answers A, B, and C |
E. Answers A, B, and C
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A decreased rate of breathing results in what blood pH change
A. Increased B. Decreased C. No change |
B. Decreased
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Excessive vomiting___the blood pH, while excessive diarrhea ___ the blood pH.
A. Increases/decreases B. Decrease/Increase C. No change/no change |
A. Increases/decreases
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Your patient has a blood pH of 7.48, CO2 of 46 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 33 her condition is
A. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated B. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated C. Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated D. Metabolic alkalosis, compensated |
D. Metabolic alkalosis, compensated
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Your patient has a blood pH of 7.6, PCO2 of 24mm Hg and HCO3- of 23 her condition is:
A. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated B. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated C. Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated D. Metabolic alkalosis, compensated |
C. Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated
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Angiotensin II causes increased levels of
A. Aldosterone B. Ca++ C. Insulin D. Growth hormone E. EPO |
A. Aldosterone
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What is the principal cation in arterial blood plasma
A. K+ B. Ca++ C. phosphate D. Sulfate E. Na+ |
E. Na+
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What is the principle anion in arterial blood plasma
A. Cl- B. Ca++ C. Na+ D. Fl- E. Br- |
A. Cl-
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What is the principle electrolyte in the interstitual fluid
A. K+ B. Ca++ C. Phosphate D. Cl- E. Na+ |
E. Na+
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In nature potassium is an easy nutrient to find and sodium is hard thus the renal regulation of potassium is to
A. Reabsorb it B. Excrete it C. Answers D and E D. Keep it in blood E. Keep it in bones |
B. Excrete it
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Inside the cell what cation is found in the greatest concentration
A. Na+ B. Cl- C. Ca++ D. K+ E. Mg++ |
D. K+
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What fluid compartment contains the highest percentage of the body's water
A. Interstitial fluid B. Blood plasma C. ECF D. Intracellular fluid E. Aqueous humor |
D. Intracellular fluid
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The glans penis is formed by which erectile tissue
A. Corpus Cavernosum B. Glans cavernosum C. Corpus spongiosum D. Frenulum spongiosum E. Prepuce cephalis |
C. Corpus spongiosum
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Which male tissue is homologous with (forms in place of) the female's uterus
A. Epididymis B. Prostate gland C. Vas deferens D. Scrotum E. Spermatic cord |
B. Prostate gland
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Name the cells that protect and feed the developing in the seminiferous tubules
A. Leydig B. Macrophages C. Bulbourethral cells D. Sertoli (sustenacular) E. Lieberkuhn's cells |
D. Sertoli (sustenacular)
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Sperm and seminal fluid entering the ejaculatory duct are just inside of what tissue or organ
A. Testis B. Glans C. Scrotum D. Ureter E. Prostate gland |
E. Prostate gland
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The parasympathetic nervous system regulates which portion of the sexual cycle
A. Ejaculation B. Arousal and recovery C. Meeting the parents D. Orgasm (climax) E. Both answers A and D |
B. Arousal and recovery
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How many sperm are there in a healthy young adult male ejaculation
A. 4 B. 50 C. 100 D. 1,000 E. Over 100,00,000 |
E. Over 100,00,000
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What molecule appears to play important roles as the basis of the sex drive in males and females
A. Progesterone B. Prolactin C. Estrogen D. Testosterone and DHEA E. Cortisol |
D. Testosterone and DHEA
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Chromosomal distribution in meiosis results in how many chromosomes in each of the gametes
A. 2 B. 46 C. 23 D. 92 E. 1 chromosome in the egg and 45 in the sperm |
C. 23
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Which hormone stimulates the seminiferous tubules to produce sperm
A. Insulin B. Growth hormone C. Oxytocin D. Prolactin E. FSH |
E. FSH
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Which muscle surrounding the spermatic cord can pull the testis closer to the body when the temp is too cold
A. Pyramidal B. Testicular C. Diaphanous D. Cremaster E. Epididymal |
D. Cremaster
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The sympathetic nervous system regulates which portion of the secual cycle
A. Recovery B. Arousal C. Meeting the parents D. Orgasm (climax) E. Flirting |
D. Orgasm (climax)
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The serous membrane surrounding the male testis are called
A. Pleural sac B. Pericardium C. Pelvic serosa D. Tunica vaginalis (visceral and parietal) E. Tunica testis |
D. Tunica vaginalis (visceral and parietal)
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The spermatic cord does not contain which of the following
A. Testicular artery B. Pampiniform venous plexus C. Autonomic nerve fibers D. Ductus deferens E. Seminal fluid |
E. Seminal fluid
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While sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules where do they go through their final maturation and storage
A. Ejaculatory duct B. Epididymis C. Seminal vessicles D. Testis E. Prostate gland |
B. Epididymis
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The penile urethra passes through what erectile tissue
A. Corpus urethrum B. Corpus cavernosum C. Corpus spongiosum D. Corpus erectorium E. Corpus unsureum |
C. Corpus spongiosum
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Which gland contributes 60% of the volume of semen including fructose, alkaline fluid, and ascorbic acid
A. Prostate B. Seminal vesicles C. Thymus D. Bulbourethral glands E. Corpus spongiosum |
B. Seminal vesicles
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During a vasectomy and you have opened the spermatic cord's outer layers. You correctly select the ductus deferens because
A. Making you feel like your insurance premiums are going up B. A muscular tube with a pulse C. A flimsy tube D. A muscular tube with out a pulse E. A thin plexus of tubes with venous blood |
D. A muscular tube with out a pulse
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Which cells of the testis secrete testosterone
A. Spermatids B. Thecal cells C. Spermatogonia D. Interstitial Leydig cells E. Granulosa cells |
D. Interstitial Leydig cells
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Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates the production of testosterone in the testis?
A. LH B. FSH C. ACTH D. Growth hormone E. Prolactin |
A. LH
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Name the dual erectile tissues of the dorsal penis which do not contain the urethra
A. Prepuce cephalis B. Corpus spongiosum C. Glans cavernosum D. Frenulum spongiosum E. Corpus cavernosum |
E. Corpus cavernosum
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During the period before ovulation the uterine endometrium is in which phase
A. Menstrual B. Follicular C. Secretory (cliff bars) D. Proliferative growing up quickly E. Luteal |
D. Proliferative growing up quickly
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What ovarian structure is secreting most of the estrogen and progesterone after ovulation
A. Primary follicle B. Graafian follicle C. Mesonephric ducts D. Corpus albucans E. Corpus luteum |
E. Corpus luteum
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During the first 3 months of pregnancy what is the source of most of the estrogen and progesterone
A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albucans C. Adrenal cortex D. Placenta E. Hypothalamus |
A. Corpus luteum
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What ovarian structure is secreting most of the estrogen and progesterone before ovulation
A. A group of developing follicles B. Leydig cells C. Mullerian duct cells D. A group of elderly corpus albucans E. Corpus luteum |
A. A group of developing follicles
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In the ovarian cycle which phase tends to be the least variable in length
A. Follicular B. Ovulatory C. Secretory D. Luteal E. Uterine |
D. Luteal
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The female perineum includes 3 openings. Which of these is not one of them
A. Rectum B. Birth canal or vagina C. Oviduct or uterine tube D. Urethra |
C. Oviduct or uterine tube
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After ovulation the uterine endometrium enters into which phase
A. Menstrual B. Follicular C. Secretory (luna bar) D. Proliferative (growing up quickly) E. Luteal |
C. Secretory (luna bar)
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Name the portion of the peritoneal sac between the uterus and the bladder
A. Rectouterine pouch B.Hysterical pouch C. Vesicouterine pouch D. Antral pouch E. Intraperitoneal pouch |
C. Vesicouterine pouch
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Which ovarian cells secrete progesterone and estrogen cooperatively
A. Ovum and peritoneum B. Theca and granulosa C. Ovum and pellucidal D. Antral and Graafian E. Albucans and Luteal |
B. Theca and granulosa
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If the fimbrae of the female's uterine tube did not catch the ovum during ovulation inside of what structure would the ovum be
A. Rectum B. Uterus C. Peritoneal sac D. Urinary bladder E. Small intestine |
C. Peritoneal sac
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The endometrium glands glycoprotein secretions have what purpose
A. Stimulates menses B. Feeds embryo before implantation C. No purpose D. Provides nonspecific immunity to sperm |
B. Feeds embryo before implantation
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The male gonads after 8 weeks of gestation follow which male ducts from the upper abdomen to the pelvis
A. Mullerian (paramesonephric) B. Wolfian (mesonephric) C. Lieberkuhn D. Karatkoff's ducts |
B. Wolfian (mesonephric)
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The female gonads after 8 weeks of gestation follow which female ducts from the upper abdomen to the pelvis
A. Mullerian (paramesonephric) B. Wolfian (mesonephric) C. Lieberkuhn D. Karatkoff's ducts |
A. Mullerian (paramesonephric)
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Which hormone causes the synthesis of milk
A. Oxytocin B. Estrogen C. Progesterone D. Prolactin |
D. Prolactin
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Which hormone binds myoepithelial cells to cause milk let down
A. Prolactin B. Estrogen C. Oxytocin D. Myolactinogen E. Distractinogen |
C. Oxytocin
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What is the Graafian follicle
A. corpus luteum degeneration scar after menses B. Antral follicle that ovulates the egg C. Uterine implantation spot D. Part of the clitoris E. Part of the male testis that the sperm travel across |
B. Antral follicle that ovulates the egg
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Milk collects or pools in what mammary structure prior to suckling of the baby
A. Myoepithelial cells B. Areolar vestibule C. Lactiferous sinuses D. Alveolar anterooms E. Suspensory chambers |
C. Lactiferous sinuses
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The serous membrane covering the oviduct's fimbrae and female ovary is called
A. Parietal peritoneum B. Visceral peritoneum C. Tunica vaginalis D. Tunica uterus E. No covering they are inside peritoneal sac |
E. No covering they are inside peritoneal sac
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Name the portion of the peritoneal sac between the uterus and the rectum
A. Rectouterine pouch B. Hysterical pouch C. Antral pouch D. Intraperitoneal pouch |
A. Rectouterine pouch
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The anterior pituitary secretes which hormone which stimulates the development of the ovarian follicles
A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone C. TSH D. FSH E. Ambiguous stimulating factor |
D. FSH
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In the ovarian cycle which phase tends to be the most variable in length
A. Follicular B. Ovulatory C. Secretory D. Luteal E. Uterine |
A. Follicular
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What hormone is capable of causing positive feedback at high concentrations or negative feedback at low concentrations on the female anterior pituitary
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin E. Estrogen |
E. Estrogen
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What triggers the shedding of the endometrium's stratum functionalis
A. Spiral artery spasms remove blood supply B. Ovarian artery shut down C. Low estrogen levels D. Low chocolate E. Thyroid gland secretions |
A. Spiral artery spasms remove blood supply
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Name the portion of the peritoneal sac between the uterus and the rectum
A. Rectouterine pouch B. Hysterical pouch C. Antral pouch D. Intraperitoneal pouch |
A. Rectouterine pouch
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The anterior pituitary secretes which hormone which stimulates the development of the ovarian follicles
A. Prolactin B. Growth hormone C. TSH D. FSH E. Ambiguous stimulating factor |
D. FSH
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In the ovarian cycle which phase tends to be the most variable in length
A. Follicular B. Ovulatory C. Secretory D. Luteal E. Uterine |
A. Follicular
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What hormone is capable of causing positive feedback at high concentrations or negative feedback at low concentrations on the female anterior pituitary
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin E. Estrogen |
E. Estrogen
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What triggers the shedding of the endometrium's stratum functionalis
A. Spiral artery spasms remove blood supply B. Ovarian artery shut down C. Low estrogen levels D. Low chocolate E. Thyroid gland secretions |
A. Spiral artery spasms remove blood supply
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After the first 3 months of pregnancy what is the source of most of the estrogen and progesterone
A. Corpus luteum B. Corpus albucans C. Adrenal cortex D. Placenta E. Hypothalamus |
D. Placenta
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The endometrium gland's glycoprotein secretions have what purpose
A. Stimulates menses B. Feeds embryo before implantation (like powerbars) C. No purpose D. Provides non specific immunity |
B. Feeds embryo before implantation (like powerbars)
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Which hormone mainly causes development and secretion of uterine glands in the endometrium
A. FSH B. Progesterone from the corpus luteum C. Angrogens from adrenal cortex D. LH E. Only estrogen from the developing follicles |
B. Progesterone from the corpus luteum
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Where is it best for fertilization to take place
A. Cervical canal B. Ovaries C. Uterine tubes D. Rectouterine sac E. Vaginal fornix |
C. Uterine tubes
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The endoderm gives rise to the
A. Heart and kidney B. Lining of the GI tract and trachea C. Kidney and gonads D. Brain and spinal cord E. SKin and peripheral nerves |
B. Lining of the GI tract and trachea
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Which of the following germ layers gives rise to the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
A. Endoderm B. Ectoderm C. Neuroderm D. Mesoderm E. Syncytioderm |
B. Ectoderm
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What is it that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete elevated levels of LH just prior to ovulation
A. FSH B. Prolactin C. Positive feedback from Progesterone D. Oxytocin E. Positive feedback from high levels of estrogen |
E. Positive feedback from high levels of estrogen
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Which negative feedback regulated hormone is being elevated (when LH and FSH elevate)
A. Cholecalciferol B. Insulin C. Growth hormone D. Acetylcholine E. Progesterone |
E. Progesterone
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What luteal phase hormone helps differentiate the endometrium and also helps maintain the stability of the placenta during pregnancy
A. Testosterone B. Progesterone C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin E. Estrogen |
B. Progesterone
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If implantation occurs what LH like hormone keeps the corpus luteum viable past 14 days
A. Estrogen B. Prolactin C. Human chorionic gonadotropin HCG D. Progesterone E. Cortisol |
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin HCG
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At first the blastocyte floats freely in the uterus for 2-3 days receiving nutrients from where
A. It carries its own B. It ingests left over sperm C. Ovarian secretions D. Endometrial gland secretions E. Vaginal secretions |
D. Endometrial gland secretions
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Estrogen and progesterone must prepare the endometrial mucosa so that the blastocyst can implant ideally where
A. High uterine wall B. Low uterine wall near cervix C. Cervical wall D. Oviduct wall E. Rectal wall |
A. High uterine wall
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Which tissues contribute to the placental formation
A. Fetus's chorionic villi B. Maternal endometrial tissues C. A group of industrious sperm synthesize it D. Both A and B |
D. Both A and B
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Once a sperm passes through the oocyte membrane, what happens to prevent polyspermy
A. A little window open to let it in and then closes B. Ca++ released from the oocyte causes cortical reaction C. Oocyte nucleus digests other sperm trying to enter D. Lysozomes digest other sperm which enter |
B. Ca++ released from the oocyte causes cortical reaction
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If the sperm reach the oocyte too soon what must they wait for
A. Corona radiate self digests B. Increased fragility of sperm membrane (capacitance) C. Maturation of sperm enzymes D. Increased alkalinity of uterus E. Increased acidity of oviduct |
B. Increased fragility of sperm membrane (capacitance)
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Name the cell (with 46 chromosomes) formed when a sperm fertilizes the oocyte
A. Blastocyst B. Morula C. Cyncytiotrophoblast D. Embryo E. Zygote |
E. Zygote
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What is monospermy? Why is it important?
A. Many sperm enter vagina/assures pregnancy B. Fertilization by one sperm/chromosomal dosage regulation C. Many sperm fertilize egg/one lives |
B. Fertilization by one sperm/chromosomal dosage regulation
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In lecture we learned that how many sperm cells are required at minimum to digest the oocyte's corona radiata and zona pellucida
A. Just one B. 10,000 C. 50-100 D. 1,000 E. 1,000,000 |
C. 50-100
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Name the first mammary secretion after birth
A. Skim milk B. Prolactinase C. Lactaide D. Colostrum E. Yogurt |
D. Colostrum
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What newborn feature replaces the umbilical vein
A. Kidney's fossa arteriosum B. Ligamentum teres attaching to the liver C. Fossa ovalis D. Ligamentum arteriosum E. Ligamentum umbilicum |
B. Ligamentum teres attaching to the liver
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What newborn feature replaces the fetal ductus arteriosus between the pulmonary trunk and aorta
A. Round ligament B. Umbilical ligament C. Fossa ovalis D. Ligamentum fossa E. Ligamentum arteriosum |
E. Ligamentum arteriosum
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Name the part of the blastocyst (pre-embryo) that digests the mother's endometrium in order to form the placenta
A. Zygotium B. Yolk sac C. Mesodermium D. Allantois E. Syncytiotrophoblast |
E. Syncytiotrophoblast
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Which female hormone is most responsible for maintaining the placenta and preventing early contractions leading to miscarriage
A. Estrogen B. FSH C. DHEA D. Prolactin E. Progesterone |
E. Progesterone
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