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129 Cards in this Set

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T/F we rarely are in contact with microorganisms?
True: We Are always exposed to microorganisms
What is the difference between transient and colonist microbes?
Transient microbes - Rapidly lost.
Colonist microbes - Normal, resident flora
T/F All microbes on the body are harmfull?
False - Not all bacteria flora are harmfull. Ex.Lactobacilli ferment glyogen which keeps pH in vagina acidic = prevents bacteriaCandida albicans from growing, (Yeast infection).
What microbial antagonism?
Microbial antagonism is an antagonistic effect of "good" Microbes have on "intruder" microbes.
How or when do populations change on the body? Be able to give an example.
Population can fluctuate with age, diet, hygiene, hormones, and drug therapy. Population make up is different in differnt areas of the body.
Be able to differentiate sterile and nonsterile sites on the body.
Sterile- Heart, liver, blood, kdneys, brain, bladder, spinal cord, muscles, bone, amniotic fluid. NONSTERILE- skin, GI tract, outer ear canal, external genitalia, vagina, external eye.
Disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes or their products. (VOCAB)
Infectious Disease (VOCAB)
Minimum number of microbes needed for and infection. (VOCAB)
Infectious Dose (ID) (VOCAB)
Microbe whose relationship with the host is parasitic and results in infection and disease. (VOCAB)
Pathogen (VOCAB)
Organism's potential to cause an infection or disease. (VOCAB)
Pathogenicity (VOCAB)
White blood cells that engulf and destroy pathogens by enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals. (VOCAB)
Phagocyte (VOCAB)
Type of virulence factor used to avoid phagocytes. (VOCAB)
Antiphagocitic factor (VOCAB)
Degree of pathogenicity determined by the ability to establish itself in a host. Causes damage, single or multiple factors, and causes can be clearly defined or unknown. (VOCAB)
Virulence (VOCAB)
Spread of toxins via the blood. Tetanus (VOCAB)
Toxemia (VOCAB)
Ingestion of toxins - Botulism (VOCAB)
Intoxication (VOCAB)
__________ normal flora is intoduced into a sterile site.
Endogenous infection. Is when normal flora is introduced into a sterile site. - E. coli from GI tract enters teh bladder = Urinary tract infection (UTI)
How are true and opportunistic pathogens different?
TRUE = Primary pathogens, capable or causing disease in healthy persons w/normal immune systems. Specific recognizable disease,(mild colds, fatal rabies, influenza virus, plague bacillus). OPPORTUNISTIC = causes disease when host defense are compromised. Causes disease when established in a part of the body not natural to them. Normal virulence properties are not well established. Ex. Candida albicans
_________ degree of pathogenicity.
VIRULENCE = Degree of pathogenicity.
What is more severe on the CDC level 1 or 4?
Level for is the most severe. The CDC levels indicate serverity on a 1 to 4 scale the degree of pathogenicity and the relative danger in handling them. With one being the least moderate and four being highly virulent posing an extream risk.
What are the basic portals of entery?
Microbes enters tissues of host by characteristic route. Microbes can be EXOGENOUS= outside the cell,(environment, animal, another person), or ENDOGENOUS= already existing in/on the body, (normal flora, latent infection).
What are exoenzymes and be able to give an example.
Exoenzymes are enzymes that breakdown, inflect damage on tissues. EX. Secreted by many bacteria, fungi, protozoans, and worms. Results in tissue damage.
________ specific chemical product of microbes that is poisonous to other organisms.
TOXIN is a specific chemical product of microbes that is poisonous to other organisms.
What is the difference between endotoxin and exotoxin?
Endotoxin is the toxin produced but not released until cell damage or lysis. Exotoxin is toxin produced and excreated by the cell into infected tissues.
What are the main portals of exit?
Usually the sam as portal of entery. Microbes leave host and infect other hosts. Shed or released, secreted, excreted, discharged, sloughed tissues.
The main portals of exit include?
Respiratory, skin, fecal exit, urogential tract, and bleeding.
Skin scales (VOCAB)
Outer layer of skin/scalps shed. Ex. Billions of cells per day shed by every human. (Warts, Boils, smallpox, fungal infections).
Syndrome (VOCAB)
Disease indentified by certain complex of signs and symptoms.
___________ primary habitat in the natural world which a pathogen originates.
RESERVOIRS = Primary habitat in the natural world which a pathogen originates. (Human, animal, soil, water, plants).
____________ individuals or objects with infection is actually acquired.
INFECTION SOURCE = individuals or object with infection is actually acquired.
Be able to differentiate the different types of carriers. Which one was Typhoid Mary?
Asymptomatic carrier, incubation carrier, convalescent carriers, chronic carrier, and passive carrier. The CHRONIC carrier is Typhoid Mary.
Indiidual who inconspicuously sheds pathogen without knowing notice, short or long term, may or may not experience disease?
Asymptomatic Carrier
Spread agent during incubation period. AIDS- months/years before symptoms appear.
Incubation Carrier
Recuperating patents without symptoms that continue to spread viable microbes. - Diphtheria- 30d post disease.
Convalescent Carriers
After recovery, but infection is latent. Salmonella typhi- yrs/life in gullbladder, tuberculosis, herpes, hepatitis, typhoid mary.
Chronic Carrier
Persons who mechanically spreads the pathogen without ever being infected. Nurse that doesn't effectively wash hands before a new patient.
Passive Carrier
__________ Live animal that transmits infectious agents from one host to another.
VECTOR is a live animal that transmits infectious agents from one host to another such as the mosquitoes, fleas, flies, birds, mammals.
What is the difference between a biological and a mechanical vector?
A biological vector actively participates in pathogens life cycle where as a mechanical vector it's not necessary to a pathogens life cycle, only transpot it without infection.
__________ inanimate object that harbors or transmits pathogens.
FOMITE is an inanimate object that harbors or transmits pathogens. (Telephones, door knob, toilet seats, shared bed linens, utensils).
__________ infected host can transmit pathogen to another host.
COMMUNICABLE is where an infected host can transmit pathogen to anohter host.
__________ Highly communicable, especially with direct contact.
CONTAGIOUS- Highly communicable, esp. direct contact. Infuenza, measles.
What does noncommunicable mean?
Disease does not arise from transmission from host to host. Own microflora, soil fungal microspores.
What is the difference between horizontal and vertical transmission?
Horizontal transmission spread thru population from on infected individual to another. Vertical transmission spread from parnet to offspring.
Polymirobial disease
Is the disease from primary infection to secondary infection.
signs tend to be more precise than symptoms. Objective evidence of disease noted by an abserver. Bacteria in spinal fluid, inflamed pharynx
Subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient. Headache, sore throat.
How are acute and chronic disease different?
Acute = rapid, but short lived effects.
Chronic - infections in progress and persists over long periods of time.
Be able to recognize the different suffixes.
"Itis" = Inflamation,(hepatitis - liver inflammation). "Emia" Assosiated with blood. (Bactereima- bacteria in the blood). "Osis"/"iasis"= Added to pathogen name to indicate disease caused. (Toxoplasmosis and Trichomoniasis). "Oma"= Tumor (Melenoma- cancer, Tuberculoma- mass due to tuberculosis).
Disease identified by certain complex of signs and symptoms.
What is an example of physical first line defense?
Skin, mucous membranes, vomitting, running nose, urination, coughing, flushing of sweat glands.
What is an example of firt line chemical defense?
Lysozyme- tears and saliva. skin pH, hCL in stomach, vaginal pH. semen antimicrobial chemical. Sweat increase, lactic acid increase. Electrolyte conc.
What is an example of first line genetics?
Species specific- Humans can't get distemper from cats, cats can't get mumps from humans. Genotype= infers resistance or lack of susceptibility, (Malaria).
Inflammatory responses are marked by what four things?
Inflammatory responses are complex reactions that are marked by: Redness (rubor),Heat (calor), Swelling (tumor), Pain (dolor)
Fever (VOCAB)
Occurs in second line of defense. Abnormally elevated body temperature. (VOCAB)
Fever of Unknown Orgin
Lymphocytes (VOCAB)
Small spherical cells, uniformly dark, rounded nucleous surrounded by thin fringe of clear cytoplasm. (VOCAB)
Lymph nodes (VOCAB)
Lymph nodes are filters or traps for foreign particls and contain white blood cells.
A clear, watery, sometimes faintly yellowish fluid derived from body tissues that contains white blood cells and circulates throughout the lymphatic system, returning to the venous bloodstream through the thoracic duct. Lymph acts to remove bacteria and certain proteins from the tissues, transport fat from the small intestine, and supply mature lymphocytes to the blood.
Lymphatic System
A net work of vessels, cells, and accessory organs that transport lymph fluid, filters lymph fluid, and drains back into the circlatory system.
_________ Circulating substance that initiates a fever.
What is the difference between exopyrogen and endopyrogen? Examples?
Exognous pyrogen comes outside the body. Products of viruses, bacteria, endotoxins, vaccines. Endogenous Pyrogens originate inside the body. Liberated by monocytes, macrophages.
Why are fevers beneificial (3 reasons)?
Fevers are beneficial because the inhibit temperature sensitve microoganisms such as cold viruses and herpes. It increases metabolism, stimulates immune responses, increase naturally protective physiological processes, such as phagocytosis. Fever impedes nutrition of bacteria (reduces iron availability).
T/F The third line of defense is very simple.
FALSE large, complex, diffuse network of cells and fluids in EVERY organ and tissue.
T/F The 3RD line of defense is a broad and non specific action?
FALSE Specific immune response customized to react to specific antigens, immoblilizes and destroys microbial invaders.
T/F Red Blood cells recognize self from non self?
FALSE white blood cells recognize self (body) from non-self (invading foreign cells). Evaluates cells using markers.
T/F Red Blood cells are also known as Leukocytes?
FALSE. White blood cells are known as Leukocytes.
What are the three types of Granulocytes?
Neutrophils, Esoinphils, Basophils.
Which Granulocytes is 55% - 99% of circulating leukocytes?
Which granulocytes destroy large eukaryotic organisms?
Eosinophils, Attatch and destory large eukaryotic pathogens such as helminths worms and fungi.
Which granulocytes is the scarest type of leukocytes~ 0.5% of total circulating WBC?
Which granulocytes is non- motile, bound to blood vessels, and defend against local invasion of pathogens?
Mast cells
What are the two types of agranulogytes?
Monocytes and Lympocytes
Which is the corner stone of the 3RD line defense?
T/F B cells and T cells are Leukocytes?
FALSE B and T cells are Lymphocytes.
T/F B cells are activated and produce memory cells and plasma cells?
TRUE the activate, transform and divide to make plasma and memory cells.
T/F Plasma cells produce antibodies?
T/F T cells kill foreign cells?
T/F Monocytes leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages?
TRUE Monocyts are also the largest of all white blood cells.
What is the difference between artificial and natural immunity?
Natural immunity is acquired as part of normal life experiences and artificial immunity is acquired through medical procedures(immunization).
What is the difference between Passive and active immunity?
Active immunity results when a person is challenged with an antigen which stimulates production of antibodies. (Memory is created for future encounters). Passive immunity performed antibodies are donated to an individual, (doesn't create memory, acts immediately, not long lasting).
_________ provides an antigenic stimulus that does not cause disease, but can produce long lasting, protective immunity.
What are the Two layers of the skin?
Epidermis and the Dermis
Which is outer most, and which has blood vessels and nerves?
The outer most layer is the Epidermis. The dermis is composed of connective tissue, blood vessles and nerves.
__________ seperation between dermis and epidermis.
__________ Sebaceous gland secretion.
SEBUM - Low pH, Antimicrobial effect.
_________ Associated with hair follicles and protect, soften and lubricate the skin.
T/F Acene is transmissible?
FALSE Everyone has it.
What is the difference between a white head and a black head?
The pore is closed in a white head, and in a black head the pore is open, but blocked with dark plug of sebum.
T/F Hormones have nothing to do with Acne?
FALSE Excess hormones (especially male) can cause over production of sebum.
T/F We understand how acne works?
TRUE we understand how acne works but there are no effective treatments as of yet.
Clostridial myonerosis is commonly referred to as _______
Gas Gangrene
Clostridium perfringens causes what disease?
clostridial gas gangrene
T/F Clostridium perfringens is an aerobic, highly invasive, spore forming and has an exotoxin.
FALSE Clostridium perfringens is not highly invasive.
What is the main difference between: Anaerobic celluitis and True Myonecrosis?
Anaerobic celluitis remains localized and doesn't spreed to healthy tissue. True myonecrosis diffuse into nearby healthy tissue causing necrosis.
What does alpha toxin rupture? Why is this important?
Alpha toxin ruptures red blood cells. This is important because it results in edema adn tissure destruction.
How does Hyperbolic oxygen therapy help eliminate gas gangrene?
Hyperbolic oxygen therapy is the best treatment plan for gas gangrene. Prevents surgical removal, amputation, and helps clean wounds of dead tissues.
What is the Hansen's diseas also know as?
"PC" term known as Leprosy, used to be called the "Divine Curse".
What does mycobacterium leprae cause?
Only bacteria known to infect nervous tissue. Nerve damage, loss of pain and feeling.
What other animal can carry mycobacterium leprae?
T/F Transmission of leprosy is verified?
FALSE Transmission is UNVERIFIED
What bacteria is the only bacteria know to infect nerve cells?
Mycobacterium Leprae
What bacteria has the slowest doubling time, (13 Days)?
Mycobacterium Leprae
T/F Leprosy has a low virulence?
Leprosy is known to colonize ears, noses, chins and tests. How does this correlate with it's optimum temperature?
Optimum temperature is 30 celc. Which is th cooler regions of the body in which the bacteria likes to grow.
What is considered the least contagious communicable disease?
Lepromatous Leprosy (LL)
What disease is caused by the enveloped DNA virus known as Varicella- Zoster virus (VZC) or (HHV-3)?
Chicken pox
T/ Chickin pox is not very communicable?
FALSE - Very communicable. Exposure = Infection
How are chickin pox and shingles the same? How are they different?
Both remain latent in Ganglia and both leave rashes and bumps on the body. You get chicken pox from someone, but can't get shingles from someone. Developes psychological stress and surgery may be involved.
T/F You can get shingles from someone with shingles?
T/F Individuals are most contagious to chicken pox 1-2 days prior rash developement?
T/F There is treatment and a vaccine for chicken pox?
T/F Papillomas are caused by only one type of HPV?
FALSE There are 80 varieties of Papillomas.
What are the three types of warts and how are they different?
Common or Seed Wart, Plantar warts, and flat warts. They are different in the areas that they possess themselves on the body, Plantar warts are painfull.
How can warts be transmitted?
Autoinoulation, direct contact, indirect contact,(showers, towels,...) 1 to 8 month incubation period.
T/F Ring worm is caused by Helminth?
FALSE Caused by dermatophytes (fungi).
T/F Tinea Describes the genus of ringworm?
TRUE IT describes the location of the ring worm
Cutaneous mycoses is commonly known as what disease?
How does ring worm treatment work?
Topical antifungal, takes weeks, blocks replication, natural exfoliation will slough fungal infection.
T/F Ringworm is easily avoidable.
FALSE Nearly impossible to avoid contact.
Superficial mycosis is which type of tinea?
Only the most superficial layer of the epidermis. Yeast: Malassezia furfur.
What is the most common name for conjunctivitis?
Pink Eye
What causes River Blindness?
Chronic Helminth infection, transmitted by black flies.
What are Wolbachia and where do they live?
Wolbachia are bacteria that live inside the worm that lives and is often visible inside the eye/
Chlamydia trachomatis causes what disease?
Ocular Trachoma. Infection of the epithelial cells of the eyes and a major cause of blindness.
What are the two components of the nervous system?
(CNS) Central Nervous System, and the (PNS) Peripheral Nervouse System.
T/F There is no normal flora in the CNS or PNS?
Name a wild reservoir for rabies?
Foxes, skunks, raccoons.
What are the two forms of Rabies? And how are they different?
Furius and dumb. The furious form has acute sings, spasms and patient is fully coherent and alert. Dumb form is when the patient is paralyzed, disoriented, and stuporous.
Which disease has the sardonic grin?
Tetanus, "Lock Jaw"
What disease does Clostridium tetani cause?
Nueromuscular disease.