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83 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, “The giraffe stretched its neck
while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result.” Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student’s misconception? a. Characteristics acquired during an organism’s life are generally not passed on through genes. b. Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. c. Only favorable adaptations have survival value. d. Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. e. Overproduction of offspring leads to a struggle for survival. |
A
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2. It has been observed that organisms on islands are different from, but genetically closely related to, similar
forms found on the nearest continent. This is taken as evidence that a. island forms and mainland forms descended from common ancestors. b. common environments are always inhabited by the same organisms. c. the islands were never part of the continent and no migration is occurring. d. island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools. |
A
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3. During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly, large, hardcased
seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what should one expect to result from natural selection? a. Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts. b. Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring have larger beaks c. Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and, consequently, grow larger beaks. d. More small-beaked birds dying than larger-beaked birds. The surviving offspring produced in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks. e. Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive. |
D
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4. Selection that eliminates extreme phenotypes is
a. diversifying b. equilibrating c. directional d. debilitating e. stabilizing |
E
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5. The ultimate source of variation in biological populations is
a. natural selection b. genetic drift c. sexual reproduction d. mutation e. environmental change |
D
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6. Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act
upon that population? a. Genetic variation among individuals b. Variation among individuals caused by environmental factors c. Sexual reproduction d. b and c only e. a, b, and c |
A
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7. An organism that features introns, methionine-initiated protein synthesis, and histone-complexed linear
chromosomes would be place in the Domain/Kingdom a. Bacteria b. Archaea c. Eukarya d. Proteobacteria e. Chlamydias |
C
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8. Which statement about natural selection is most correct?
a. Adaptations beneficial in one habitat also should generally be beneficial in all other habitats as well. b. Different species that occupy the same habitat will adapt to that habitat by undergoing the same kinds of genetic changes. c. Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times as well. d. Well-adapted individuals usually leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation’s gene pool, than do poorly-adapted individuals. e. Natural selection is the only means by which populations can evolve. |
D
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9. In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat plants, exposed to ever-colder
temperatures, would eventually give rise to ever more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko’s attempts in this regard were most in agreement with the ideas of a. Linnaeus b. Hutton c. Lamarck d. Darwin |
C
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10. Escherichia coli bacteria, which live in human intestines, are shaped like tiny, straight sausages. They are
a. spirilla b. spirochetes c. bacilli d. vibrios e. cocci |
C
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11. Gene flow is the exchange of alleles between
a. different species b. males and females c. populations d. chromosomes |
C
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12. Which statement best describes the evolution of pesticide resistance in a population of
insects? a. Individual members of the population slowly adapt to the presence of the chemical by striving to meet the new challenge. b. All insects exposed to the insecticide begin to use a formerly silent gene to make a new enzyme that breaks down the insecticide molecules. c. Insects observe the behavior of other insects that survive pesticide application, and adjust their own behaviors to copy those of the survivors. d. Offspring of insects that are genetically resistant to the pesticide become more abundant as the susceptible insects die off. |
D
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13. The biological species concept is inadequate for grouping
a. parasites b. asexual organisms c. animals that migrate d. sympatric populations |
B
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14. A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
a. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones. b. asexually reproducing populations. c. geographic or physical isolation d. artificial selection e. large populations |
C
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15. Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
a. 6,000 years b. 3,500,000 years c. 6,000,000 years d. 3,500,000,000 years e. 5,000,000,000,000 years |
D
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16. Which of the following steps has not yet been accomplished by scientists studying
the origin of life? a. synthesis of small RNA polymers by ribozymes b. abiotic synthesis of polypeptides c. formation of molecular aggregates with selectively permeable membranes d. formation of protobionts that use DNA to direct the polymerization of amino acids e. abiotic synthesis of organic molecules |
D
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17. Generally, within a lineage, the largest number of shared derived characters should be found among two
organisms that are members of the same a. kingdom b. class c. domain d. family e. order |
D
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18. Which process hinders clarification of the deepest branchings in a phylogenetic tree that depicts the origins
of the three domains? a. binary fission b. mitosis c. meiosis d. horizontal gene transfer e. gene duplication |
D
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19. Orthologous gene duplication events are associated with
a. extinction. b. population growth. c. speciation. d. parasites. |
C
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20. If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one
should expect that a. they live in very different habitats. b. they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms. c. their chromosomes should be similar d. they shared a common ancestor relatively recently e. they should be members of the same genus. |
B
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21. Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to
perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution? a. The two species live at great distance from each other. b. The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical. c. The sizes of the structures in adult members of both species are similar in size. d. Both species are well adapted to their particular environments. e. Both species reproduce sexually. |
B
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22. Which of these is the fundamental unit upon which natural selection directly acts?
a. an entire species’ gene frequency b. a population’s gene frequency c. an individual’s genome d. an individual’s genotype e. an individual’s phenotype |
E
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23. Which of these is the smallest unit that natural selection can change?
a. an entire species’ gene frequency b. a population’s gene frequency c. an individual’s genome d. an individual’s genotype e. an individual’s phenotype |
B
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24. A phylogenetic tree that is “rooted” is one
a. that extends back to the origin of life on Earth. b. at whose base is located the last common ancestor of all taxa depicted on that tree. c. that illustrates the rampant gene swapping that occurred early in life’s history. d. that indicates our uncertainty about the evolutionary relationships of the taxa depicted on the tree. e. with very few branch points. |
B
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25. Which of the following pairs is the best example of homologous structures?
a. bat wing and human hand b. owl wing and hornet wing c. porcupine quill and cactus spine d. bat wing and bird tail e. Australian mole and North American mole |
A
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26. Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other or to other surfaces?
1. capsules 2. endospores 3. fimbriae 4. plasmids 5. flagella a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 and 4 e. 3 and 5 |
B
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27. Which of the following permits some species to exhibit taxes ( = plural of taxis)?
a. endospore b. sex pilus c. flagellum d. cell wall e. capsule |
C
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28. The theory of evolution is most accurately described as
a. an educated guess about how species originate. b. one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species have come into existence. c. an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time. d. an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed to subsequent generations. |
C
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29. A taxon, all of whose members have the same common ancestor, is
a. paraphyletic b. polyphyletic c. monophyletic |
C
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30. Theoretically, the production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses and male donkeys
should a. result in the extinction of one of the two parental species. b. cause convergent evolution c. strengthen postzygotic barriers between horses and donkeys. d. weaken the intrinsic reproductive barriers between horses and donkeys. e. eventually result in the formation of a single species from the two parental species. |
C
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31. Which of these evolutionary agents is most consistent at causing populations to become better suited to
their environments over the course of multiple generations? a. Mutation b. Non-random mating c. Gene flow d. Natural selection e. Genetic drift |
D
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32. Each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large
populations. Which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? a. Mutation b. Non-random mating c. Gene flow d. Natural selection e. Genetic drift |
E
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33. The scientific discipline concerned with naming organisms is called
a. taxonomy b. cladistics c. binomial nomenclature d. systematics e. phylocode |
A
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34. The various taxonomic levels (e.g., genera, classes, etc.) of the hierarchical classification system differ
from each other on the basis of a. how widely the organisms assigned to each are distributed in space throughout the environment. b. the body sizes of the organisms assigned to each. c. their inclusiveness. d. the relative genome sizes of the organisms assigned to each. |
C
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35. A taxon is equivalent to a clade only if it is
a. paraphyletic b. polyphyletic c. monophyletic |
C
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36. Shared derived characters are most likely to be found in taxa that are
a. paraphyletic b. polyphyletic c. monophyletic |
C
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37. Which of the following illustrates the correct representation of the binomial scientific name for the African
lion? a. Panthera leo b. panthera leo c. Panthera leo d. Panthera Leo e. Panthera leo |
E
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38. Which of the following terms refers to similar environmental pressures and natural selection producing
similar adaptations in organisms from different evolutionary lineages? a. horizontal gene flow b. consistent evolution c. directional selection d. convergent evolution |
D
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39. A rapid method of sympatrtic speciation that has been important in the evolutionary history of flowering
plants is a. genetic drift. b. mutation. c. behavioral isolation. d. polyploidy. |
D
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40. The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic isolation, two populations
meet again and a. their chromosomes are no longer similar enough to permit meiosis. b. a constant number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of all future generations. c. the hybrid zone is completely inhospitable to hybrid survival. d. an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations. e. a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations. |
D
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41. The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which group?
a. ciliates b. oomycetes c. diatoms d. apicomplexans e. dinoflagellates |
B
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42. Tiny, thread-like pseudopods that extend through porous tests and can perform phagocytosis are generally
characteristic of which group? a. radiolarians and forams b. gymnaoebas c. entamoebas d. amoeboid stage of cellular slime molds e. oomycetes |
A
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43. Which of these is the most common chemical compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?
a. mitochondril DNA b. RNA c. DNA d. peptidoglycan e. protein |
D
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44. Natural selection is most nearly the same as
a. diploidy b. gene flow c. genetic drift d. non-random mating e. differential reproductive success |
E
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45. Which is a true statement concerning genetic variation?
a. It is created only by the direct action of natural selection. b. It always arises in response to any change in the environment. c. It must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population. d. It tends to be reduced by gamete production. |
C
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46. A landslide occurs that reduces the size of a population of alpine plants. What has occurred?
a. a bottleneck b. a founder event c. natural selection d. convergent evolution |
A
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47. Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human
evolution by increasing a. non-random mating b. geographic isolation c. genetic drift d. mutations e. gene flow |
E
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48. In their laboratory simulations of the early Earth, Miller and Urey observed the abiotic synthesis of
a. amino acids. b. RNA. c. DNA. d. liposomes. e. complete genetic systems. |
A
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49. RNA molecules can both carry genetic information and be catalytic. This supports the proposal that
a. RNA was the first carrier of hereditary information. b. protobionts had an RNA membrane. c. RNA could make energy. d. free nucleotides would not have been necessary ingredients in the synthesis of new RNA molecules. e. RNA is a polymer of amino acids. |
A
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50. When constructing phylogenetic trees, scientists use mitochondrial DNA to discern
a. extremely old evolutionary lineages. b. dates of divergence. c. recently evolved lineages. d. age of fossils. |
C
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51. How can prokaryotes be considered to be more successful on Earth than humans?
a. Prokaryotes are much more numerous and have more biomass b. Prokaryotes occupy more diverse habitats. c. Prokaryotes are more diverse in metabolism. d. Only b and c are correct. e. a, b, and c are correct. |
E
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52. Photoautotrophs use
a. light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. b. light as an energy source and methane as a carbon source. c. N2 as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. d. Organic compounds as both an energy source and a carbon source. e. H2S, or another inorganic compound, as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. |
A
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53. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using
thousands of tiny hair-like extensions of the cytoplasm to move and feed. It has well-developed organelles and three nuclei, one large and two small. This organism is most likely to be a member of which group? a. foraminiferans b. radiolarians c. ciliates d. kinetoplastids e. slime molds |
C
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54. Why is the filamentous morphology of the water molds considered a case of convergent evolution with the
hyphae (threads) of fungi? a. Fungi are closely related to the water molds. b. Body shape reflects ancestor-descendant relationships among organisms. c. In both cases, their filamentous shape is an adaptation for the absorptive nutritional mode of a decomposer organism. d. A filamentous bodyshape is evolutionarily ancestral for all prokaryotes. e. Both a and b are correct. |
C
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55. Which organisms represent the common ancestor of all photosynthetic plastids found in eukaryotes?
a. autotrophic euglenids b. diatoms c. dinoflagellates d. red algae e. cyanobacteria |
E
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56. Chemoheterotrophs use
a. light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. b. light as an energy source and methane as a carbon source. c. N2 as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. d. Organic compounds as both an energy source and a carbon source. e. H2S, or another inorganic compound as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source. |
D
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57. Protists are alike in that all are
a. unicellular. b. eukaryotic. c. symbionts. d. monophyletic. e. photoautotrophic. |
B
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58. The strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic organelles is the similarity between
extant prokaryotes and which of the following? a. nuclei and chloroplasts b. mitochondria and chloroplasts c. cilia and mitochondria d. mitochondria and nuclei e. mitochondria and pseudopodia |
B
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59. Speciation
a. occurs at such a slow pace that no one has ever observed the emergence of a new species. b. occurs only by the accumulation of genetic change over vast expanses of time (> 1 million years). c. must begin with the geographical isolation of a small, frontier population. d. proceeds at a uniform tempo across all taxa. e. can involve changes involving a single gene. |
E
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60. In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard
seeds, respectfully. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? a. disruptive selection b. directional selection c. stabilizing selection d. sexual selection e. No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. |
B
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61. Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills,
contaminate shellfish, and poison humans? a. red algae b. dinoflagellates c. diplomonads d. euglenids e. golden algae |
B
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62. Which of the following pairs of protists and their characteristics is mismatched?
a. apicomplexans : internal parasites b. golden algae : planktonic producers c. euglenozoans : unicellular flagellates d. ciliates : marine red tide organisms e. entamoebas : infectious heterotrophs |
D
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69. One in 10,000 newborn babies in the United States is born with the phenylalanine enzyme deficiency.
Given this information, what is the estimated frequency of the aa genotype? a. 0.1 b. 0.01 c. 0.001 d. 0.0001 e. 0.00001 |
D
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70. In the country of Hiro, the frequency of the aa genotype among newborns is 0.16. Using this genotype
frequency, what is the frequency of the a allele? a. 0.40 b. 0.04 c. 0.86 d. 0.60 e. 0.06 |
A
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71. What is the estimated frequency of the A allele in the Hiro population?
a. 0.40 b. 0.04 c. 0.86 d. 0.60 e. 0.06 |
D
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72. What is the frequency of carriers (heterozygous individuals) in the Hiro population?
a. 0.24 b. 0.48 c. 0.16 d. 0.36 e. 0.64 |
B
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1. An organism that features introns, methionine-initiated protein synthesis, and histonecomplexed
chromosomes would be place in the Domain/Kingdom a) Bacteria b) Archaea c) Eukarya d) Proteobacteria e) Chlamydias |
C
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2. Escherischia coli bacteria, which live in human intestines, are shaped like tiny,
straight sausages. They are a) spirilla b) spirochetes c) bacilli d) vibrios e) cocci |
C
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3. Which of the following is an example of postzygotic isolation?
a) The surface of a pollen grain has chemicals that are not recognized by the surface of a stigma b) A female is not receptive to sperm at the time that a male is producing sperm c) In a tropical rainforest, a male only occurs in the treetops whereas a female only lives on the forest floor d) Two orchid species are capable of successful cross pollination, but their flowers attract different pollinators, and therefore do not exchange pollen e) When two species mate, offspring are produced but those offspring are reproductively sterile |
E
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4. The wall of a prokaryote that retains a dark stain during the Gram stain procedure has a
a) thick peptidogylcan layer and an extra lipopolysaccharide layer b) thin peptidogylcan layer and an extra lipopolysaccharide layer c) thick peptidoglycan layer and no extra lipopolysaccharide layer d) thin peptidoglycan layer and no extra lipopolysaccharide layer |
C
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8. If you were able to generate ATP through photosynthesis but could not build your
own carbon-based (organic) compounds, you would be a a) chemoheterotroph b) chemophototroph c) photoautotroph d) chemoautotroph e) photoheterotroph |
E
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9. A randomly selected group of organisms from a family would probably show more
genetic variation than a randomly selected group from a a) class b) genus c) kingdom d) order e) phylum |
B
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10. When scientists trace the phylogeny of a species or group of related species, they are
a) constructing the evolutionary history of the species or group b) determining the ecological relationships of the species or group c) studying the mating systems of the species or group d) analyzing the hybrid vigor of the species or group e) dating the fossils of the species or group |
A
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11. The Euglenophyta and the Kinetoplastids may be considered closely related because
both groups have a) chloroplasts b) mitochondria c) cilia d) flagella e) the substance paramylun |
D
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12. Diplomonidia have
a) nuclei only b) nuclei and mitochondria c) nuclei, mitochondria, and chloroplasts d) nuclear DNA similar to that in prokaryotes e) a and d |
B
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13. Why are red algae red?
a) They live in warm coastal waters b) They absorb blue and green light c) They use red light for photosynthesis d) They are related to cyanobacteria e) They lack chlorophyll |
B
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14. The population of Bison (Buffalo) in North America went from many millions before
European colonization, to a few hundred by the beginning of the 20th century. Now the populations of buffalo have recovered, to several thousands. This is an example of a) disruptive selection. b) a population bottleneck. c) runaway selection. d) allopatric speciation e) founder effect |
B
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15. A population’s gene pool is defined by
a) how deep it is b) counting its individuals c) its level of heterozygosity d) its allele frequencies e) its rate of evolutionary change |
D
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16. The type of selection that occurs when environmental conditions are varied in a way
that favors individuals on both extremes of a phenotypic range over intermediate phenotypes is a) directional selection b) diversifying selection c) stabilizing selection d) purifying selection e) artificial selection |
B
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17. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium containing 40 individuals, if the
frequency of the dominant “AA” genotype is 0.25, what is the frequency of the recessive allele (a)? a) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 0.10 d) 0.5625 e) 0.0625 |
B
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18. The ultimate source of variation in biological populations is
a) natural selection b) genetic drift c) sexual reproduction d) mutation e) environmental change |
D
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19. Selection that eliminates extreme phenotypes is
a) diversifying b) equilibrating c) directional d) debilitating e) stabilizing |
E
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20. The geologist who discussed “uniformitarianism” was
a) Charles Lyell b) James Hutton c) Alfred Wallace d) Thomas Malthus e) Francis Crick |
A
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