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33 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What blood clotting factors are directly affected by a deficiency in vitamin K?
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2,7,9,10
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Name the 3 things that may trigger sickling in sickle cell anemia?
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hypoxia
dehyrdation acidosis |
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What type of pneumonia may result in the production of cold antibodies?
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mycoplasma pneumonia
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Deficiency in what may result in MEGALOBLASTIC anemia and neurological symptoms?
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Vitamine B12
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What types of cells will you see increase in number in the blood following a severe hemorrhage?
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Reticulocytes
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If a pt were infected with parasites what type of white blood cells would be expected to increase in number?
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eosinophils
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What type of leukemia is associated with Philidelphia chromosome?
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CML
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What type of cell is classic in the Dx of Hodgekins disease?
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Reed-Sternburg cells
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What type of disease is associated with ostylytic lesions in the skull and pelvis and has Bence-Jones proteins in the urine?
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Mutliple Myeloma
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What are the 3 features of Virchow's triad?
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hypercoagualble
slow blood flow endothelial injury all deal with increased clotting |
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What type of arthritis must be Dx early in order to prevent blindness?
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Giant cell - temporal artery
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What kind of aneurysm is associated with polycystic kidney disease?
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Berry
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What kind of murmur is called a continuous machine like murmur?
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patent ductus arteriosus
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What is Eisenmenger Syndrome?
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Cyonotic R to L shunt which then reverses to L to R due to pulmonary hypertension
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In ischemic heart disease what 2 things can an ST segment elevation often represent?
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Prinzmetals angina
or Myocardial infarction |
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what are the 4 major complications that may follow a myocardial infarction?
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arrtythmia
congestive HF cardiogenic shock muscle rupture |
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Is dyspnea and orthopnea a result of left or right sided heart failure?
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left sided
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What kind of endocarditis are people with damage or abnl heart valves more likley to get?
What are the organisms causing these? |
Subacute endocarditis
caused by strep viridans or gram neg bacilli |
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What syndrome involving the pericardium may occur following an MI?
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Dressler's syndrome
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What are the 5 features of the major jones criteria
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1. polyarthritis
2. erythema 3. subQ nodules 4. carditis 5. chorea think: MAJOR JONES HAS PECCS |
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Name the 4 major classifications of lung disease that are Obstructive***
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1. emphysema
2. chronic bronchitis 3. asthma 4. bronchiectasis |
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What RESTRICTIVE lung disease is caused by the inhalation of silica or coal dust?
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pneumoconiosis
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what is the DOC for vaginal candidiasis?
What about systemic? |
vaginal: miconazole
(think sing into the mic haha) systemic: fluconazole (flu affects the whole body) |
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What is the drug of choice for Neisseria meningitidis?
What about N. gonorrheae? |
N. Meningitidis: Pen G
(Inflammation of MeniniGis) N. Gonorrheae: Ceftriaxone (need to TRI not to get this) |
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Name 3 aspects of the cerical vertebrae that differ from the other spinal vertebrae
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C1 - has NO spinous process
C2 - has an Odontoid process (dens) C7 - has a long spinous process called the vertebral prominens |
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What ligament connects the dens to the foramen magnum?
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ALAR LIG***
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Which scalene aid in the elevation of the first rib?
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anterior and middle
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If you are able to induce translation to the left, what type of sidebending is this?
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right
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If the occiput is rotated to the right, in what direction is it sidebent?
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Left
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If you are about to perform OMT on the cervical spine in what area would you start?
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1. Upper thoracics
2. upper ribs 3. OA 4. Cervical spine |
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What is the antidote for acetominophen overdose?
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NAC aka N-acetylcysteine
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What anti-TB drug is known for hepatotoxicity?
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INH aka Isoniazid
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Name the drugs that we learned which induce P450:
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One Pharmacy Brings About Rapid Liver Metabolism
One - oral contraceptive Pharmacy - Phenytoin Brings - Barbituates About - Alcohol Rapid - Rifampin Liver - Levadopa Metabolism - Methadone |
