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49 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the symptoms/what is the antidote for benzodiazepine OD?
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Sedation and respiratory depression; Antidote= Flumazenil
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What are the symptoms of a cholinergic overdose/organophosphate poisoning? What is the antidote?
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AChE is inhibited --> Abundance of ACh --> stimulation of skeletal muscle and PNS; SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis); Antidote = Atropine
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What drugs should not be used concomitantly w/ quinolones?
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Other drugs that prolong QT interval (eg. azoles, NNRTI's, protease inhibitors, nicardipine, TCA's, anti-arrhythmics, anti-psychotics, SSRI's)
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List the ABX that affect protein synth, cell walls, and DNA
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Cell Wall: Pen, Ceph, Glycopeptides (van), Bacitracin, Carbapenems,
Protein: Tetracyclines, AGs, Chloramphenicol, Macs, DNA: Quinolones, Sulfas, Trimethoprim, Metronidazole |
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What are the DOCs for diarrhea?
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Premie: pip + tazobactam or ampicillin + sulbactam
Post-ABX: metronidazole Travel ass.: FQ or rifampin Prohylactic Travel: FQ --> imodium w/ first unformed shit Mild-mod: fluids + lactose free (+ anti-diarrheal w/ 4 loose shits) Severe: cipro or levo (TMP/.SMX in kids) + metronidazole + fluids/lac free |
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What are the DOCs for hospitalized CAP?
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< 1 mth: amp + gent +/- cefotaxime (van if MRSA suspect)
1-3 mth: erythromycin or azithromycin (+ cefotaxime if febrile) 5-18 yrs: ceftriaxone + azithromycin +/- van > 18 yrs: ceftriaxone or ertapenem + azithromycin |
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For what bugs is Pen G the DOC?
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Strep. pneumo, GBS for preggo females (during labor), Strep pyogenes, Treponema pallidum, Neisseria menigitidis
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Where are the uncovertebral joints of Luschka located and what is their function?
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C3-C6 on the lateral body, provide stability to C-spine and prevent disc herniation
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Intervertebral discs are located ________ to their respective vertebrae, Nerve roots are located _______
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Inferior, superior
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what motion would be used to evaluate the AA?
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rotation (translation used for all other c-spine)
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rotation and sidebending of C2-7 occur in ______ direction
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same
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What is the cause and key features of hemophilia B?
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cause = lack of factor IX
features = prolonged aPTT, normal bleeding time |
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What test is used to monitor Heparin?
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PTT
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Heinz bodies are associated with what hemolytic anemia?
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G6PD def
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what type of Ig are warm Ab?
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IgG
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Distinguish folate def from B12 def
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both are megaloblastic anemias; B12 presents with nuerologic symptoms
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When are howell-jolly bodies seen?
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post-splenectomy
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Pappenheimer bodies indicate what condition?
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iron overload
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What drugs induce neutropenia?
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alkylating agents, chloramphenicol, chlorpromazine, sulfonamides, phenylbutazone
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What is the philedelphia chromosome and what is it associated with?
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c-abl on chrom 9 translocated to bcr on chrom 22; Associated with Chronic Myeologenous Leukemia
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Starry Sky pattern on light microscope is associated with what disease?
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Burkitt Lymphoma (high grade non-hodgkin lymphoma)
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What Abs are associated with Waldenstroms myeloma?
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IgM
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what are the key features of Monckeberg's arterioslcerosis?
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Media calcific stenosis, "gooseneck lumps", small and medium arteries, asymtpomatic
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What is the pathogenesis of aterioslcerosis?
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Injury of vascular endo --> Lipid adherence --> Leukocytes and platelets release growth factor --> smooth muscle proliferation --> Macrophages become foam cells --> Foam cells aggregate, forming fatty streaks, atherosclerotic plaque
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When does mitral regurgitation occur and what does it sound like?
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Occurs in MI, acute rheumatic fever and endocarditis
Sounds like holosystolic murmur transmitting to axilla |
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What type of shunt is associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
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R--> L
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What is the tetralogy of Fallot?
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Pulmonary stenosis, Overriding Aorta, VSD, RVH
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What are the signs and Rx of Prinzmetal's Angina?
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happens at rest, ST elevated
Rx= Ca Blockers |
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How long post-MI does coagulation necrosis occur?
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24-72 hrs
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What are the causes/consequences of right and left sided heart failure?
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Causes:
Left - ischemic heart dz, arterial HTN, valvular dz Right - left sided failure, lund dz, primary pulmonary HTN Consequences: Left - Pulmonary congestion, renal hypoperfusion Right - Increased venous pressure --> fluid retention |
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What are the etiologies of infective endocarditis?
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Acute: Staph. a. and Streptococci
Subacute: Strep. viridans, gram neg bacilli |
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What type of pericarditis is associated with Dressler's syndrome?
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Fibrinous
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What is the Major Jones Criteria?
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a/w acute rheumatic fever; polyarthritis, erythema, subQ nodules, chorea, carditis
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What are FRC and TLC values in obstructive lung dz?
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FRC and TLC are high
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What is the REID index?
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The ratio between thickness of submucosal mucus secreting glands and wall thickness between epithelium and cartilage of bronchi
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What causes neonatal ARDS?
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insufficient lecithin synthesis by type 2 pneumocytes
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What are the 7 diagnostic criteria for RA? How many to make dx?
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Morning Stiffness > 1 hr
Arthritis in >=3 joints Arthritis in hands Symmetrical Arthritis Rheumatoid Nodules Serum Rheumatoid Factor aka Anti-IgG Erosions on X-ray 4 required for dx |
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What vessels are affected by polyarteritis nodosa? What is the tetrad?
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medium sized
Fever, HTN, abd pain, renal dz w/o glomerulonephritis |
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What is the Ab and triad of ITP?
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Anti-structural platelet
Thrombocytopenia, petechiae and purpura, mucosal bleeding |
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What are the signs and symptoms of Wegener's granulomatosis?
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Sinusitis, glomerulonephritis, lung lesions
ANCA |
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What is the antidote for benzodiazapenes?
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Flumazenil
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Which ABX are the only bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitors?
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AGs
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What are the 4 normal secretors of alkaline phosphatase?
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Bone
Kidneys Placenta Biliary System |
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What is 5'-HIAA a marker for?
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carcinoid
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what is CA 19-9 a marker for?
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colon, pancreatic or breast CA
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what is CA 125 a marker for?
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Ovarian CA
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what is CD 25 a marker for?
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hairy cell leukemia; adult T-cell leukemia
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What is CD 30 a marker for?
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Hodgkin's dz
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What is neuron-specific enolase a marker for?
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SCLC, neuroblastoma
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