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49 Cards in this Set

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What are the symptoms/what is the antidote for benzodiazepine OD?
Sedation and respiratory depression; Antidote= Flumazenil
What are the symptoms of a cholinergic overdose/organophosphate poisoning? What is the antidote?
AChE is inhibited --> Abundance of ACh --> stimulation of skeletal muscle and PNS; SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI upset, Emesis); Antidote = Atropine
What drugs should not be used concomitantly w/ quinolones?
Other drugs that prolong QT interval (eg. azoles, NNRTI's, protease inhibitors, nicardipine, TCA's, anti-arrhythmics, anti-psychotics, SSRI's)
List the ABX that affect protein synth, cell walls, and DNA
Cell Wall: Pen, Ceph, Glycopeptides (van), Bacitracin, Carbapenems,

Protein: Tetracyclines, AGs, Chloramphenicol, Macs,

DNA: Quinolones, Sulfas, Trimethoprim, Metronidazole
What are the DOCs for diarrhea?
Premie: pip + tazobactam or ampicillin + sulbactam

Post-ABX: metronidazole

Travel ass.: FQ or rifampin

Prohylactic Travel: FQ --> imodium w/ first unformed shit

Mild-mod: fluids + lactose free (+ anti-diarrheal w/ 4 loose shits)

Severe: cipro or levo (TMP/.SMX in kids) + metronidazole + fluids/lac free
What are the DOCs for hospitalized CAP?
< 1 mth: amp + gent +/- cefotaxime (van if MRSA suspect)

1-3 mth: erythromycin or azithromycin (+ cefotaxime if febrile)

5-18 yrs: ceftriaxone + azithromycin +/- van

> 18 yrs: ceftriaxone or ertapenem + azithromycin
For what bugs is Pen G the DOC?
Strep. pneumo, GBS for preggo females (during labor), Strep pyogenes, Treponema pallidum, Neisseria menigitidis
Where are the uncovertebral joints of Luschka located and what is their function?
C3-C6 on the lateral body, provide stability to C-spine and prevent disc herniation
Intervertebral discs are located ________ to their respective vertebrae, Nerve roots are located _______
Inferior, superior
what motion would be used to evaluate the AA?
rotation (translation used for all other c-spine)
rotation and sidebending of C2-7 occur in ______ direction
same
What is the cause and key features of hemophilia B?
cause = lack of factor IX

features = prolonged aPTT, normal bleeding time
What test is used to monitor Heparin?
PTT
Heinz bodies are associated with what hemolytic anemia?
G6PD def
what type of Ig are warm Ab?
IgG
Distinguish folate def from B12 def
both are megaloblastic anemias; B12 presents with nuerologic symptoms
When are howell-jolly bodies seen?
post-splenectomy
Pappenheimer bodies indicate what condition?
iron overload
What drugs induce neutropenia?
alkylating agents, chloramphenicol, chlorpromazine, sulfonamides, phenylbutazone
What is the philedelphia chromosome and what is it associated with?
c-abl on chrom 9 translocated to bcr on chrom 22; Associated with Chronic Myeologenous Leukemia
Starry Sky pattern on light microscope is associated with what disease?
Burkitt Lymphoma (high grade non-hodgkin lymphoma)
What Abs are associated with Waldenstroms myeloma?
IgM
what are the key features of Monckeberg's arterioslcerosis?
Media calcific stenosis, "gooseneck lumps", small and medium arteries, asymtpomatic
What is the pathogenesis of aterioslcerosis?
Injury of vascular endo --> Lipid adherence --> Leukocytes and platelets release growth factor --> smooth muscle proliferation --> Macrophages become foam cells --> Foam cells aggregate, forming fatty streaks, atherosclerotic plaque
When does mitral regurgitation occur and what does it sound like?
Occurs in MI, acute rheumatic fever and endocarditis

Sounds like holosystolic murmur transmitting to axilla
What type of shunt is associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
R--> L
What is the tetralogy of Fallot?
Pulmonary stenosis, Overriding Aorta, VSD, RVH
What are the signs and Rx of Prinzmetal's Angina?
happens at rest, ST elevated

Rx= Ca Blockers
How long post-MI does coagulation necrosis occur?
24-72 hrs
What are the causes/consequences of right and left sided heart failure?
Causes:
Left - ischemic heart dz, arterial HTN, valvular dz

Right - left sided failure, lund dz, primary pulmonary HTN

Consequences:
Left - Pulmonary congestion, renal hypoperfusion

Right - Increased venous pressure --> fluid retention
What are the etiologies of infective endocarditis?
Acute: Staph. a. and Streptococci

Subacute: Strep. viridans, gram neg bacilli
What type of pericarditis is associated with Dressler's syndrome?
Fibrinous
What is the Major Jones Criteria?
a/w acute rheumatic fever; polyarthritis, erythema, subQ nodules, chorea, carditis
What are FRC and TLC values in obstructive lung dz?
FRC and TLC are high
What is the REID index?
The ratio between thickness of submucosal mucus secreting glands and wall thickness between epithelium and cartilage of bronchi
What causes neonatal ARDS?
insufficient lecithin synthesis by type 2 pneumocytes
What are the 7 diagnostic criteria for RA? How many to make dx?
Morning Stiffness > 1 hr
Arthritis in >=3 joints
Arthritis in hands
Symmetrical Arthritis
Rheumatoid Nodules
Serum Rheumatoid Factor aka Anti-IgG
Erosions on X-ray

4 required for dx
What vessels are affected by polyarteritis nodosa? What is the tetrad?
medium sized

Fever, HTN, abd pain, renal dz w/o glomerulonephritis
What is the Ab and triad of ITP?
Anti-structural platelet

Thrombocytopenia, petechiae and purpura, mucosal bleeding
What are the signs and symptoms of Wegener's granulomatosis?
Sinusitis, glomerulonephritis, lung lesions

ANCA
What is the antidote for benzodiazapenes?
Flumazenil
Which ABX are the only bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitors?
AGs
What are the 4 normal secretors of alkaline phosphatase?
Bone
Kidneys
Placenta
Biliary System
What is 5'-HIAA a marker for?
carcinoid
what is CA 19-9 a marker for?
colon, pancreatic or breast CA
what is CA 125 a marker for?
Ovarian CA
what is CD 25 a marker for?
hairy cell leukemia; adult T-cell leukemia
What is CD 30 a marker for?
Hodgkin's dz
What is neuron-specific enolase a marker for?
SCLC, neuroblastoma