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79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What term is used to describe weapons that destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of a population?
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Weapons of mass destruction are weapons that can be used to destroy large areas or kill and disable large segments of a population.
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What is the most probable delivery method for chemical or biological weapons?
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The most probable delivery method for chemical or biological weapons is by aerosol.
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List the two types of antipersonnel agents.
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The two types of antipersonnel agents are—
a. Casualty b. Incapacitating |
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The use of nerve agents produces symptoms that are similar to what other, more common condition?
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The use of nerve agents produces symptoms that are similar to heat stress, which is a more common condition.
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What part of the body is most affected by blister agents?
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Moist areas of the body are most affected by blister agents.
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If you are exposed to a blood agent, what action should you take first?
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The first action you should take if exposed to a blood agent, is to don a protective mask.
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True or false. Cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent.
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True, cough suppressant and pain relievers can be given to a victim of a choking agent.
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Biological Warfare is the intentional use of (a) ________________ to disable or destroy (b) _________________.
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Biological Warfare is the intentional use of (a) living organisms, toxins, and micro-toxins to disable or destroy (b) people, domestic animals, crops, or supplies.
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What is the disadvantage an enemy has when using Biological Warfare agents?
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The disadvantage an enemy has when using Biological Warfare agents is that BW agents degrade rapidly when exposed to environmental conditions such as ultraviolet light, radiation, heat, dryness, or humidity.
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List the symptoms of biological disease in its early stages.
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The symptoms of biological disease in its early stages include—
a. Fever b. Malaise c. Inflammation |
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List the four types of nuclear weapon explosion classification.
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The four types of nuclear weapon explosion classification are—
a. High altitude blast b. Air blast c. Surface blast d. Subsurface burst |
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Describe why residual radiation is more dangerous than initial radiation.
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Residual radiation is more dangerous than initial radiation because residual radiation is caused by large amounts of surface material drawn up into the cloud, which falls back to earth as radioactive fallout and affects a large area.
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Describe how a secondary blast can cause injuries.
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A secondary blast can cause injuries by its strong winds that collapse structures and trees.
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List the four nuclear radiation hazards.
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Nuclear radiation hazards include—
a. Alpha particles b. Beta particles c. Gamma rays d. Neutrons |
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List the measures that should be taken to protect electronic equipment from the effects of EMP.
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The measures that should be taken to protect electronic equipment from the effects of EMP are—
a. Metal shielding b. Good grounding c. Surge arresters d. Proper arrangement of electrical wiring |
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A survey team consists of what three members?
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A survey team consists of—
a. a Monitor, b. a Recorder, c. and a Messenger |
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What are the two types of surveys?
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The two types of surveys include—
a. Rapid and b. Detailed |
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Biological markers are (a) what color with (b) what color inscription?
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Biological markers are (a) blue and have (b) a red inscription.
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To calculate safe entry time and stay time in a radiologically contaminated area, you need what two measurements?
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To calculate safe entry time and stay time in a radiologically contaminated area, you need to know the—
a. Dose rate b. Dose |
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Describe the only known method for detecting Biological Warfare contaminants.
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The only known method for detecting Biological Warfare contaminants is to gather samples and ship them to a laboratory.
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To check areas suspected of being contaminated by CW agents, you should use what kit?
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To check areas suspected of being contaminated by CW agents, you should use an M256A1 kit.
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True or false. Eating food after a CBR attack is okay as long as the food was in a sealed container before the attack.
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False, eating food after a CBR attack is not okay.
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Aboard ship, the safest place to be during a nuclear attack is-
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Aboard ship, the safest place to be during a nuclear attack is below the main deck.
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What are the two functions of an MCU-2/P mask?
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The two functions of an MCU-2/P mask are to—
a. Filter air b. Purify |
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How long should it take you to don and adjust an MCU-2/P mask?
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It should take you 10 seconds to don and adjust an MCU-2/P mask.
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List the types of clothing that are useful for CBR defense.
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The types of clothing that are useful for CBR defense are—
a. Wet-weather clothes b. Ordinary work clothes |
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What does the acronym MOPP stand for?
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The acronym MOPP stands for Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
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There are how many levels of MOPP?
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There are four MOPP levels.
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What MOPP level provides the most protection?
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MOPP level 4 provides the most protection.
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At what MOPP level is material condition ZEBRA (modified) set?
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At MOPP level 2 material condition ZEBRA (modified) is set.
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There are how many levels of decontamination?
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There are four levels of decontamination.
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Describe the primary purpose of level-1 decontamination.
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The primary purpose of level-1 decontamination is to safeguard you in protective gear that includes mask, over-garment, boots, and gloves.
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What are the two types of contamination hazards?
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The two types of contamination hazards are—
a. Pick up hazards b. Transfer hazards |
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What is the most effective way to remove radioactive particles from the ship?
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Wash down is the most effective way to remove radioactive particles from the ship.
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What is the most effective way to decontaminate areas exposed to Biological Warfare agents?
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Chemical disinfectant is the most effective way to decontaminate areas exposed to Biological Warfare agents.
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Decon stations are divided into what three areas?
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Decon stations are divided into—
a. an Unclean area, b. a Washing area, c. and a Clean area |
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Which of the following are weapons of mass destruction?
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A) Chemical weapons
B) Biological agents C) Nuclear weapons |
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Which of the following warfare agents are used to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach?
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CW
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Generally, antipersonnel agents are divided into how many types?
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Two
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Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea, headaches, convulsions, and contractions of the pupils are all symptoms of which of the following types of contamination?
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Nerve agent
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Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will be serious in which of the following body areas
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Neck, Groin, and Armpits
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A person exposed to a blood agent may experience respiratory paralysis within what length of time?
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Seconds
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Atropine and 2-PAM C1 oxime are used to counteract the effects and relieve the symptoms of which of the following agents?
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Nerve
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What type of agents are used to produce temporary misery and harassment?
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Riot control
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Which of following agents can be used in BW operations?
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A) Living organisms
B) Toxins C) Microtoxins |
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Which of the following diseases can be spread as part of a BW attack?
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Cholera and Anthrax
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In its early stage, which of the following is/are symptons of BW?
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A) Fever
B) Inflammation C) Malaise |
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Nuclear weapons have the capability of destrying areas in which of the following ways?
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A) Blast
B) Shock C) Nuclear radiation |
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Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes?
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Four
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What would be the most effective type of nuclear strike to use against a battle group at sea?
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Air blast
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What type of nuclear strike would be used to destroy satellites and interrupt communications systems through the effects of EMP?
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High altitude blast
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In what type of nuclear strike would the shock wave near ground zero be greater than the blast wave?
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Surface blast
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What are the effects of nuclear weapons?
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Blast waves, incendiary, and radiation
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If a nuclear blast at night causes you to experience flash blindness, you can expect your vision to recover in what length of time?
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45 minutes
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In what type of radiation hazard must enter the body through ingestion to cause bodily harm?
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Alpha particles
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What is TREE?
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The affect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronics systems
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A survey team is made up of what minimum number of personnel?
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Five
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What person is in charge of survey team?
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Monitor
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Areas contaminated by CW, BW or nuclear agents are indentified by markers having what shape?
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Triangular
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True or False. Dose rate is expressed in roentgents, which are gamma ray measurements only.
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True
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What does the acronym radiac stand for?
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Radioactivity detection, indication, and computation
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The nonself-reading, high-range casualty dosimeter measures what maximum amount of gamma radiation?
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600 roentgens
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What kit is used to check areas suspected to have been contaminated by CW agents?
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M256A1 kit
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Which of the following actions should personnel topside take if an airbust occurs?
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A) Close their eyes
B) Drop to the deck C) Cover as much exposed skin as possible D) All of the above |
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Which of the following pieces of protective equipment is/are the most important in protecting you against CBR agents?
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Protective mask
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Protective masks serve how many functions?
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Two
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You should be able to don and adjust your protective mask in what maximum amount of time?
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10 seconds
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The MCU-2/P protective mask has how many voice emitters?
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Two
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The chemical protective over-garment consists of how many parts?
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Two
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True or False. The chemical protective over-garment can be used for protection against radiological contamination.
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True
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Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the mission oriented protective posture (MOPP)?
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Provides a means to establish levels of readiness
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At what MOPP level would all protective equipment be worn with the hood up and secured?
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Four
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How many levels of decontamination are there?
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Four
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A decontamination team usually consists of how many people?
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Six
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What is the most effective way to decontaminate biological agents?
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Using a chemical disinfectant
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Aboard ship, a decontamination station has how many parts?
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Three
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True or False. Showering will destroy nuclear and biological agents.
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False
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The Collective Protection System (CPS) consists of how many protection zones?
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Two
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Which of the following CPS levels provides the maximum operational protection envelope?
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Level III
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