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348 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
We studied 5 genera within the FAMilY Actinomycetes... What are they?
What 3 genera of the Actinomycete family are filamentous branching rods?
What shape are Arcanobacterium and Actinobaculum?
Short Club Shaped Rods
What is the gram reaction of Actinomyces, Nocardia, and Dermatophilus?
Gram +
T/F: Morphology is very useful in identification of the Actinomycetes.
True: esp for the filamentous branching rods
*Actinomyces, Nocardia, Dermatophilus
Actinomycetes are morphologically similar to ___.

*extensive filamentation, branching, aerial hyphae, asexual spores
___ and ___ of the actinomycete family look strikingly similar under the scope, but their treatment and prognosis are Different.
Actinomyces and Nocardia
What gram POSITIVE BRANCHING ROD, likes to hang out in the ORAL cavity?
T/F: Actinomyces are acid fast.

*they are NONacid fast
What are the oxygen requirements of actinomyces?
facultatively anaerobic
strict anaerobe
Where are actinomyces found as normal flora?
Oral mucus membranes
tooth surfaces

secondarily-- GIT

*except A. hordeovulneris lives on foxtails
Are actinomycese endogenous or exogenous?
T/F: actinomycosis is a contagious infection.

T/F: gram positive cell walls have endotoxin.

*gram negative
Actinomyces evoke a _____ reaction.
you see a cow with "lumpy jaw" and a draining tract that has granules. What bacteria can cause granule production? (differentials)
1- actinomyces bovis
2- actinomyces viscosis
3- actinobacillus
4- chronic Staph infections
What is a chronic staph infection evokes granule production called?
(Actionmyces/Nocardia) are generally involved in single isolate infections.

*Actinomyces are generally involved in polymicrobial infections
describe the pathogenisis of "lumpy jaw."
A. Bovis (oral cavity) --> alveolar region of jaw following some opportunity --> chronic osteomyelitis --> enlarged porous bone with tracts of pus
What diseases do Actinomyces cause?
lumpy jaw
serositis/ discospondylitis
mastitis/ abortion
What is the main clinical finding in K9 cases of serositis caused by Actinomyces?
respiratory distress
pyogranulomatous mastitis has been reported in SOWS due to infection with ______ spp
T/F: Actinomyces are killed by phagocytes.

*they have no intracellular survival
What is the drug of choice to treat actinomycosis?

*aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones are ineffective
T/F: resolution of the bacterial infection associated with lumpy jaw will allow the body to restore normal bone structure.
If actinomyces spp. have no resistance to penicillin, why are they difficult to treat?
they have a propensity to form cell wall deficient variants
What is the most frequent Nocardia species isolated from cats and dogs?
N. nova
Nocardia has a beaded stained appearance that should NOT be confused with Spores. What causes this beaded appearance?
stains have a difficult time penetrating the cell wall of these bacteria due to the relatively high lipid content. (most strains are aqueous based)

*note that when these are cultured they produce aerial filaments that may form SPORES.
Nocardia infections are difficult to treat due to (2 major factors)
intracellular survival
antimicrobial resistance
What is a short, club-shaped rod called?
what is the oxygen requirement of Nocardia?
strict aerobe
What are the 3 species of Nocardia of veterinary importance?
N. asteroides (N. nova)
N. braziliensis
N. otitidiscaviarum
Name the bacteria that come from SAPROPHYTES in soils, water, and on decaying vegetation. In other words they cause exogenous infections.
Corynebacterium pseudobacteria
Rhodococcus equi
erisipelothrix rhusiopathiae???
What are the 3 main routes of infection for nocardia?
Nocardia require (little/a lot) of host compromise, and (few/ many) bacteria to cause an infection.
a LOT of host compromise

MANY bacteria
Name 3 bacteria with Mycolic Acid in their cell wall.
What are Nocardia's virulence factors?
Mycolic Acid
Cell wall lipids
Superoxide dismutase
Pathogenic Nocardia spp are ______ bacteria that avoid killing by host phagocytes. They do this by inhibiting _____ fusion and inactivating _____ system.
facultative intracellular


What do the exudates of Nocardia look like?
sanguinopurulent-- thick tomato soup
What species is most ccommonly affected by Nocardia infections?

T/F: the case fatality rate of Nocardia infections in dogs and cats is >50%.
What is a cutaneous or subcutaneous abscess of nocardia called?
nocardial mycetoma
Name the bacteria causing this problem:

acute disease is triggered with the onset of lactation, when milk flushes the organism from limited foci through the lactiferous duct system and results in fever, anorexia and abnormal milk (red brown)
What bacteria cause Bonvine Farcy? What regions does it occur in?
Nocardia farcinica
Mycobacterium farcinogenes

How do you distinguish Nocardia from Actinomyces?
Acid fast stain
*nocardia has mycolic acid

Nocardia do NOT grow anaerobically
*Actinomyces will (FA)
T/F: there is no permanent cure for nocardial mastitis.

*generally treated with antibiotics provides temporary relief/ cessation of shedding
What is the only species of Dermatophilus that has veterinary importance?
D. congolensis
Dermatophilus mainly causes ____ infections
What bacteria are harbored in the scabs of a horse with rain scald?
Dermatophilus congolensis
Dermatophilus is gram ____, They have branching, filamentous rods that require a _____ environment.

strictly aerobic
T/F: dermatophilus congolensis is an obligate parasite of the skin, but it can multiply saprophytically.
*it IS an obligate parasite, but if can NOT multiply saprophytically... It can however exist in the environment- or on carrier animals and fomites
What bacteria has a zoospore that develops into a germ tube that divides to form a strand that makes more zoospores?
What kind of conditions promote dissemination of dermatophilus infections?

*think: rain scald
T/F: D. congolensis infections are usually confined to the living epidermis.
T/F: Dermatophilus is more prevalent and more severe in young animals.
T/F:sampling dermatophilus infections does not have to be sterile.

*this grows on the skin and the skin is not sterile
Is Dermatophilus zoonotic?

*people are accidental hosts
What are the 4 genera of Diptheroids?
Coryneform is often used synonymously with ____.
what are the oxygen requirements of arctinobaculum suis?
Strict Anaerobe
Who gets actinobaculum suis infections? Why?

*normal flora of boar prepuce--> infects sow during coitus --> cystitis
What is the morphology of Arcanobacterium? What are their oxygen requirements?
gram +
pleiomorphic Rods

Facultatively Anaerobic
This bacteria has a 58kDa helolytic exotoxin also known as pyolysin.
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
This bacteria can cause "summer mastitis" which is a communicable disease among pastured dairy cows during their dry period.
Arcanobacterium pyogenes
Corynebacterium is a gram positive rod. T/F: infection usually confers no useful resistance.
What bacteria causes "cheesy gland?"
Corynebaterium pseudotuberculosis
Name 2 speces of Corynebacterium that are of veterinary importance.
C. pseudotuberculosis
C. renale
How long can C. Pseudotuberculosis survive in the soil?
8 months
What are the primary residences of Corynebacterium?
C. pseudotuberculosis: GIT

C. renale: lower genital tract
You do a necropsy on a sheep and find an enlarged lymph node that has an onion layered appearance. What is this called?
Caseous Lymphadenitis
T/F: infections with all diptheroids usually produces abscesses.
T/F: Prevalence of Caseous lymphadenitis due to C. pseudotuberculosis is higher in young sheep.

* prevalence increases with age and infx are usually chronic
What are some of the risk factors for Caseous Lymphadenitis?
shearing, docking, dipping, high dust

*Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
What is the difference between lymphangitis and lymphadenitis?
lymphangitis= vessels

lymphadenitis= lymph node
C. renale causes ___ in cattle and ____ in sheep.

"pizzle rot" aka posthitis
T/F: antibiotic treatment is effective in treating C. pseudotuberculosis infections in sheep and goats.

*sometimes used for horses and in early stages of C. renale infx.
Unlike other Diptheroids ____ is a saprophyte and is normally found in the environment.
Rhodococcus equi
What virulence factors are associated with Rhodococcus equi?
Phospholipase C--> lyses RBCs

Capsule--> facultative intracellular survival

Virulence associated plasmid
Rattles in foals is a bronchopneumonia caused by the bacteria ____.
Rhodococcus equi
What is the peak seasonal distribution of Rhodococcus infections in foals?

*relative abundance of foals in summer
Many foals with Rhodococcal infections develop ___ and ____ due to antigen antibody complex deposition (type III hypersensitivity) in the joints and eyes.
Aseptic polyarthritis
Pyogranulomatous skin disease, cellulitis, and lymphadenitis have been observed in CATS associated with ____ infections.
Rhodococcus equi
You do a Fine needle aspirate of a swollen draining paw of a cat. You culture the sample and the growth looks like pink spit. What might it be?
T/F: both cell mediated and humoral immunity are important in fonferring protection against Rhodococcal infx.
Since colostrum does not confer specific immunity to R. equi. How else can a foal get protective immunity?
hyper-immune plasma from horses immunized with R. equi
What is the primary resevoir of Erysipelothrix?
upper GI of Pigs (tonsils)
What is the main route of infection with erysipelothrix?

*but also vector, direct contact
What is neuraminidase?
virulence factor of erysipelothrix

cleaves sialic acid present on cell surfaces, leading to vascular damage and hyaline thrombus formation
Adherence to Endothelial cells

are all virulence factors for __.
T/F: erysipelothrix regularly invades the bloodstream.

*development of disease is dependent on the virulence of the strain and the immune status of the host
What species does erysipelothrix usually localize in the skin?

*Arthus reaction
T/F: pigs between 3 mo and 3 years are most susceptble to erysipelothrix infections.
What causes "Diamond Skin Disease"?

*red-purple rhomboidal lesions
____ is the most common presentation of erysipelothrix in sheep.
Erysipelothrix infx in DOGS is most commonly septicemia and endocarditis. What species will be isolated in these cases?
E. tonsillarum
What is the pathognomonic sign for erysipelothrix infx in turkeys?
swollen cyanotic SNOOD
____ is the drug of choice to treat erysipelothrix infx.
In HUMANS erysipelas are caused by streptococcal infx whereas ____ are caused by erysipelothrix.
____ is ubiquitous in the environment and carried in a wide variety of humans and animals as asymptomatic enteric carriers. Raw foods are indicated. (t is a gram positive rod)

*salmonella is a gram negative rod
Visceral listeria infx arise from ___.
ingestion of soil
Neural listeria infx arise from entry through ____.
mucous membranes of the eye, nose, or oropharynx
What causes "circling disease?"
Neural form of Listeria
What is the semi pathognomonic posture of neural listeriosis in small ruminants?
"star gazing"--> arched back and head stretched back
T/F: Most advanced cases of Listeriosis respond to penicillin.

*although penicillin is the drug of choice, advanced cases rarely respond.
____ are TRUE acid fast bacteria.
What are the benefits of the high lipid content cell wall of mycobacterium?
they can withstand:
pH extremes
facultative intracellular survival
What is a tubercle?
a granuloma: accumulation of macrophages, lymphocyes, neutrophis, giant cells, and epitheioid cells
diseases caused by obligate mycobacterial parasites include :
johne's disease
what are the localized diseases caused by saprophytic mycobacteria in immunocompetent hosts?
cutaneous/subcutaneous disease (fel. leprosy-like dz, k9 leproid granuloma syndrome)
transmission of Mycobacterium bovis is mainly through ___ in cattle.

*Moraxella bovis- contact (direct/indirect)
M. bovis is extremely difficult to completely eradicate due to ____.
wildlife resevoirs

*deer, buffalo in USA
avian tuberculosis is usually caused by members of the ____. It is usually found in free range birds.

M. avium Complex

*can also cause dz in immunocompromised humans
What is Paratuberculosis aka?
Johne's Dz
T/F: Johne's dz is a chronic, contagious, progressive, and fatal enteritis which can affect domestic and wild ruminants.

* caused by M. avium ss paratuberculosis
how is johne's dz spread?
ingestion of feed or water contaminated with feed (often at an early age)
Cattle diagnosed with Johne's dz (M. paratuberculosis) usually die within ____ of initial detection.
1 year
Mycobaterium skin infections of dogs and cats include
1- feline leprosy
2- mycobacterial paniculitis
3- feline leprosy-like disease
4- ?
k9 leproid granuloma syndrome
what is the difference between a lepromatous and a tuberculoid lesion?
lepromatous lesions are associated with poor immune responses, infiltration of the dermis with large numbers or infompeten macrophages and lots of acid fast bacteria

a tuberculoid lesion develops witha good host immune response, epithelioid histiocytic cells are accompanied by moderate numbers of lymphoid cells and plasma cells
T/F: Mycobacteria love FAT.

*fat provides TGs for growth and protects them from host immune response
Why is tuberculin testing performed in the US?
it is a Notifiable disease
what is ppd?
Purified Protein Derivative--> referring to the mycobacterial tuberculoprotein used in the intradermal tuberculin test
What are the possible outcomes of a TB test?
False negatives to a TB test may occur under what conditions?
early stages of infx (<30d)
early post partum
T/F: culture is the preferred method for diagnosing cutaneous Mycobacterium infections.

*many of these mycobacteria have never been or are difficult to culture
*preferred is direct visualization of acid fast bacteria obtained by FNA of lesions
Antibodies are produced against tuberculosis. Immunity is primarily (cell mediated, humoral)
cell mediated

see page 201 of notes.
Treatment of humans and companion animals with tuberculosis consists of ____ (time frame) with one set of antimicrobials then switch to a different combination. How long are they monitored after that?
6-9 mo

3 years
What is the treatment for cows with tuberculosis?
isolation and slaughter
What is the problem with TB vaccines?
they cause cross reactivity to TB sensitivity tests.
What human disease is similar to Johne's Disease?
T/F: Feline leprosy is contagious to humans.

* the bacteria causing leprosy only infect humans or primates (and armadillos)... feline leprosy does not transfer to humans
What is the gram reaction, morphology, and oxygen requirement of Enterobacteriaceae?
gram -
Facultative anaerobe
What are ETECs?
enterotoxogenic E. coli
Do Enterobacteriaceae invade?

*fimbriae mediated attachment to enterocytes
Why is enterotoxemia age related?
young animals have receptors on their enterocytes for the first week of life.
Donut shaped neutrophils are a baaaad sign, indicative of ___.
_____ is the most common pathogen isolated from most domestic species and humans. It is also a commensal/ normal flora of the GIT.
E. coli
What is the gram rx, morphology, and oxygen requirement of Enterobacteriaceae?
gram negative

LARGE rods

facultative anearobes
T/F: Enterobacteriaceae do NOT have a predictable sensitivity pattern.
Enterotoxin is an important virulence factor for what entire family of bacteria that commonly cause enteritis?
____ and ____ are free-living enterobacteriaceae.
_____ transmission is the primary route of infection for enterobacteriaceae.

*fomites are important
Enterobacteriaceae infx can arise from bacteria already in the host, ____, or more commonly from bacteria in the environment, ___.

Match the antigens to the structures:

Cell Wall, Flagella, Casule, Finbriae

F, H, K, O
Cell Wall = O
Flagella = H
Capsule = K
Fimbriae = F

*strains of enterobacteriaceae are named by the different cell wall structures
If Enterobacteriacea can NOT do this ? then they can NOT cause disease.
Attach to host's epithelial cells

Pili are specific for ______. This means that pili that produce enteric disease will not produce a UTI.
cell surface molecules (receptors)
Capsular antigens and O side chains (somatic antigens) play a key role in _____ resistance by enterobacteriaceae.
Capsules enhance virulence by:
1- prevent activation of complement
2- prevent deposition of MAC
3- prevent phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages
Somatic antigens are ___ (letter) antigens and are an integral part of LPS.
Endotoxin = Lipid A + core sugars + ___.
O side chains
How do hemolysins benefit the bacteria?
lysing RBCs increases the available Fe++ for bacterial growth
What is the unique leucotoxin that is produced by Pasteurellaceae?
RTX toxin
GIT disease caused by Enterobacteriaceae is due to the production of ____, but these can do nothing unless the bacteria is in the right place and can ___.

____ E. Coli do not damage the cell. Therefore disease is characterized as hypersecretory diarrhea.

The action of ETEC is to inhibit uptake of ___ and ____ in the villus, while stimulating secretion of ____ and ___ in the crypt cells.
inhibit uptake of: Na+, Cl-

stimulate secretion of: Cl-, HCO3-
T/F: ETECs are cytotoxin.

*ETECs are cytoTONIC
Cytotoxic Enterotoxins do damage the cells upon which they act. These include ____, or ____.
Enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)
Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (EHEC)
cytotoxins produced by ____ are called Shiga-like toxins.
Describe the host factors associated with highly pathogenic bacteria.
very little host compromise
few numbers of bacteria required
What are 3 major (good) pathogens of Enterobacteriaceae?
E. Coli
What are 3 less common (opportunistic) pathogens of Enterobacteriaceae?
Not all E. Coli is pathogenic. Interpretation of isolates is based on examination of : (3 things)
1- where it came from
2- virulence factors
3- antigenic makeup
You do a necropsy of a piglet that has died of dehydration due to diarrhea. You find distended loops of small intestine. Why?
It was probably ETEC-- hypersecretory diarrhea

*secretes Cl- and HCO3- into the lumen and prevents absorption of Na+ and Cl- so that the lumen is hyperosmotic and pulls water out of the tissue into the lumen.
EPECs are a specific serogroup which cause diarrheal syndromes in what species?
This group of E. Coli uses intimin to adhere to the GI epithelial cells, and cause maldigestion and malabsorption in humans and young animals.

This group of E. Coli causes hypersecretory diarrhea mediated by prostaglandins.

Many EIECs don't have ___ antigens.
EHECs can progres to ____ or ____ which have high mortality rates.
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

Thrombytopenic Purpura
____ are the leading cause of acute renal failure in children.
entero-hemorrhagic E. Coli
____ are involved in Edema disease of pigs. (Ecoli class).
These two classes of E. Coli are non-invasive and only cause disease in humans.
Enteroaggregative E. Coli (EAggEC)
Diffuse Adhering E. Coli (DAEC)
Receptors required for attachment of E. coli fimbiae are only present during the first week of life in ____ and until around weaning in ____. (animals)
1st week: calves

weaning: pigs
T/F: Calves older than a week could potentially develop ETEC infection and clinical disease.

*co-infection with rotaviruses damage the enterocytes. regeneration of cells re-express the receptors.
Effective immunity from E. coli is obtained with Antibody production against ___.

*prevents attachment of E. Coli to the enterocytes
T/F: there is no Ab cross protection between different types of fimbriae.

*Ab can only attach to specific fimbriae
What is the difference in pathogenesis of pre-weaning and post-weaning diarrhea in piglets?
pre-weaning occurs 12-24 hr: due to lack of colostral Ab either due to lack of intake or just no Ab present

post-weaning occurs 1-2 weeks post weaning: due to change in diet (mostly ETECs)
Verotoxin is the badness in EHECs and VTECs. It causes what disease? When?
Edema Disease in Swine

1-2 weeks post weaning
E. coli causes septicemia most commonly in ____ mainly because they are immuno naive.
about 40% of canine cystitis cases are caused by what bacteria?
E. coli
"p" fimbriae are found in ___ and are different from "F" fimbriae which are found in ___.
p- urogenital tract

F- GI tract
E. coli that cause cystitis:
K antigens increase invasiveness and
____ antigens decrease smooth muscle contractions.
T/F: E. coli does NOT produce urease to increase pH in cystitis cases.

*staphs and proteus produce urease
___ is the most efficient natural defense mechanism against UTIs. It is responsible for removing 95% of non-adherent bacteria.
Name 3 mechanisms which help prevent colonization of the urinary tract.
urethral contractions
decreased epithelial receptor sites in proximal and mid urethra
normal flora
mucosal secretions
valve-like nature of vesiculo ureteral jx
Cystic endometrial hyperplasia is involved with what hormone?

*stimulates the growth and secretory activity of endometrial glands
Why does estrogen followed by progesterone result in a more severe pyometra than progesterone alone?
estrogen increases the expression of progesterone receptors on endometrial cells
___ is usuallly the first organism to invade and cause pyometra, after it damages the uterine epithelium-- other normal flora bacteria (anaerobes) can become involved.
E. coli
what are 2 complications (renal) associated with E. coli pyometras?

medullary washout-- due to toxins
how do chicks that have been kept in an incubator get E. coli septicemia?
the incubator is infected: penetration of the egg shell and yolk sac due to aerosolization of the organism
T/F: Salmonella is normal flora in the GIT.

* there are carriers
Salmonella can survive up to ____ in the environment if it is damp and cool.
9 months
What does host adapted implicate?
hot adapted serotypes are more likely to develop into a CARRIER state
the virulence of salmonellae relates to their ability to invade ___, replicate in them and resist both _____ by phagocytes and destruction by ____ in plasma.
invade host cells

digestion by phagocytes

destruction by complement
Why is salmonella difficult to treat?
Facultative Intracellular-- allows them to avoid antibodies, complement, and antibiotics
what are the 3 syndromes associated with salmonella infx?
carrier state
T/F: Salmonella causes septicemia with localization predominantly in host adapted species that are young.
how does salmonella cause abortion?
What are the bird species of salmonella?
S. pullorum
S. gallinarum
___ is the main source of salmonella contamination for the environment
carrier state animals
What is recrudescence?
is the reappearance of a disease after it has been quiescent.
T/F: anaerobes are often involved in cystitis cases.

*anaerobes are rarely involved because urine has O2
___ is commonly a secondary invader in pulmonary disease ( Bordetella bronciseptica).
Klebsiella pneumonia
T/F: Klebsiella is not a great pathogen and is therefore easy to treat with antimicrobials.

* they have widespread antimicrobial resistance
T/F: Klebsiella may be transmitted venereally.
Proteus and Klebsiella elevate urine pH, ___ does not because it does not have urease.
E. Coli
On culture, ___ has swarming colonies due to high motility.
T/F: you should collect sterile GI samples to diagnose infections.

* ummmm hellooo. its POOP.
T/F: a fecal smear is vital to diagnosis of enterobacteriaceae are suspected.

*useless: you will only observe normal flora which include E. coli
____ media is required to isolate specific Enterobacteriaceae from sitees with normal flora.
Antibody mediated immunity to enterobacteriaceae neutralizes infections, but the immunity is ____.
serotype specific.
Cell mediated immunity is important for what genera of enterobacteriaceae?
Salmonella--> facultative intracellular
When are antibiotics considered essential for an enterobacteriacea infx? when are they not warranted?
DO: systemic dz (septicemia)
*but do sensitivity testing first

do NOT: enteric dz
*fluids essential
Should fluids be administered orally to a patient with enteritis?
it depends on the form.

ETECs: yes
cells are not damaged
need to administer fluids and electrolytes with glucose or amino acids in order for the electrolytes to be absorped (substrate-linked absorption of Na+)
Why do you have to be careful with oral fluids in foals?
can NOT be given with milk
will interfere with milk clotting in abomasum/ stomach
Klebsiella is a poor pathogen, but it has MANY virulence factors. Name 4.
Exotoxin A, S, T
Pigments (pyocyanin)
bacteriocins (pyocins)
___ likes BURNS due to the severe host compromise and the moist environment.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ps. aeruginosa usually contaminates areas of the body that have a reduced ______ due to use of antimicrobials.
Normal Flora

*since Ps. aeruginosa is resistant it persists and replaces Normal Flora
____ colonies have a characteristic odor of "fruity" or corn tortilla, as well as a GREEN color.
the fact that pseudomonas is oxidase positive allows you to distinguish it from ____, whereas the ___ test helps to distinguish it from other oxidase + bacteria.

unless ___ is corrected, antimicrobial therapy for pseudomonas will fail.
underlying host compromise
Pasteurella are normal flora of the ___ in many species.
Upper Respiratory tract
T/F: most pasteurella infx are endogenous.
An exotoxin produced by P. multocida type D, plays a role in production of lesions observed in _________ in pigs.
atropic rhinitis
infections with pasteurella are usually characterized by ______ inflammation
T/F: P. multocida can be a primary invader, but it is more commonly a secondary invader.
What are the 4 general classes of disease associated with pasteurella?
Wound infx
Which capsule types of P. multocida cause hemorrhagic septicemia?
type: B & E are virulent
T/F: hemorrhagic septicemia cause by P. multocida is native to the US.

fowl cholera is most commonly caused by P. multocida capsule type ____.
respiratory tract infx cause by P. multocida are associated with capsule types ___ and ___.
A and D
Pasteurella commonly causes atrophic rhinitis in pigs and ____ and rabbits.
Atrophic rhinitis in pigs is a result of a combined infection of the ____ with bacteria ____ and ____.
nasal turbinates

Bordetella bronchiseptica
Pasteurella mltocida type D
what species of pasteurella other than multocida is common in bite wounds of dogs?
P. canis
How do you differentiate Pasteurella from Pseudomonas (ignoring the fact that they don't cause similar diseases)?
They are both oxidase POSitive

Pasteurella are NONmotile
Pseudomonas are MOTILE
T/F: penicillin is he drug of choice to treat pasteurella infx.
true and false

*ruminant strains are resistant, but other species have strains that are generally susceptible to penicillin
____ is the major cause of Shipping Fever in cattle.
Mannheimia haemolytica
Mannheimia is a commensal of the ____ an ___ of normal cattle and sheep.
nasopharynx and tonsilar crypts
Mannheimia has all the same virulence factors as P. multocida, as well as ____ which is a powerful exotixin that belongs to a group of exotoxins known as ____.
Leucotoxin--> RTX toxin
Leucotoxin can kill alveolar macrophages... or in low concentrations it can activate them to release TNF and IL-1 which leads to the release of ____ .
H2O2--> converted to radicals that kill cells --> fluid and fibrin
Mannheimia haemolytica causes ____ in cattle and _____ in sheep and goats.
Bronchopneumonia (cattle)

enzoonotic pneumonia (s & g)
____ and ____ are the major contributors( although often secondary invaders) to Shipping fever which is the most common cause of mortality on beef cattle feedlots in North America.
Mannheimia haemolytica
Pasteurella multocida
M. haemolytica causes _____ in nursing lambs.
_____ causes severe necrotizing gangrenous mastitis in ewes which is also called "?".
Mannheimia haemolytica

blue bag
Actinobacillus are normal flora of the ____,____, and ____.
oropharynx, nasopharynx, and GIT
Actinobacillus infections can appear anywhere from suppurative to granulomatous. do not confuse them with actinomycosis. how can you distinguish actinobacillus from actinomyces microscopically?
actinomyces are gram positive rods

actinobacillus are gram negative coccobacillus
_____ causes "wooden tongue" in cattle.
Actinobacilus lignieresii
T/F: Wooden tongue in cattle contains club colonies.

*staphs, actinomyces, and ACTINOBACILLLUS (ligniersii) all produce club colonies
____ is a major cause of pneumonia in young grower and finisher pigs. it is not normal flora.
Actinobaciluus pleuropneumoniae
T/F: actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae can be isolated from the nasal mucosa of healthy pigs in infected herds.

*there is a carrier status, but this bug is still not considered normal flora
The main route of infection of Actinobacillus equuli is via ingesiont or through the ____ or ____.
umbilicus or placenta

*sleepy foal syndrome... septicemia
Sleepy foal disease of Navel ILL is due to septicemia caused by hematogenous dissemination of ___(bacteria)_ that results in ____ throughout the body including the kidney.
Actinobacillus equuli

A. suis is normally found where and in what species?
tonsils of pigs
Name some differential diagnoses of Actinobacillus suis infecions.
actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
haemmohilus parasuis
erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
what is chocolate agar and who grows best on it?
blood agar with lysed RBCs

haemophilus and avibacterium
T/F: Haemophilus species are commensal in the respiratory tract
T/F: histophilus species are commensal in the GI tract.

Virulent strains of Histophilus somni are resistant to killing by complement proteins due to the presence of _____ which interferes with complement.
Immunoglobulin binding proteins
haemophilus infections may be either endogenous or exogenous. which one is most common?
exogenous--> inhalation
_____ is part of the normal flora of he nasopharynx of pigs. it can cause boncopneumonia or glasser's disease.
Haemophilus parasuis
Who is affected by Glasser's disease and what causes it?
polyserositis in nursery piglets

haemophilus parasuis
you have a client with a pet japanese quail that has nasal discharge, sneezing, and swelling of the infraorbital sinuses annnnd WATTLE. you ascult the lungs and hear rales indicating air sacculitis. what bug is causing this?
avibacterium paragallinarum
Histophilus somni is part of the normal flora of the genital tract of cows. What are the 4 main syndromes associated with infection?
Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
respiratory disease (shipping fever like)
arthritis (dt septicemia)
reproductive failure (abortions)
_____ require increased CO2 for isolation by culture but not x or v factor for growth like haemophilus.
histophilus somni
pasteurelleaceae are gram ___ rods. They require a ____ o2 environment and can cause ____ infections because they are part of the normal flora.
facultative anaerobe
Both pasteurella or bordetella are coccobacilli. which one is motile?
____ are pleomorphic MOTILE coccobacilli that are strict aerobes. They commonly cause tracheitis.
Bordetella bronchiseptica is maintained in the respiratory tract for up to ___ in dogs and up to ____ in cats.
3 mo in dogs

5 mo in cats
T/F: bordetella infections can occur either endogenously or exogenously .
Bordetella avium affects ____ and is spread by ___ and ____.

water/ litter
T/F: Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida both have dermatonecrotic toxin.

sort of. they both have A dermatonecrotic toxin, but they are different.
The fimbriae of bordetella bind to ____ on the ciliated epithelium and allow bordetella to colonize the respiratory tract.
sialic acid residues

* B. bronchiseptica has an affinity for respiratory mucus
Which virulence factor of bordetella causes ciliostasis?
adenylate cyclase
What is the major role of Bordetella bronchiseptica?
provides conditions that allow other, more significant pathogens to colonize the lower respiratory tract and therefore cause more serious disease.
What is the medical term for kennel cough?
canine infectious tracheobronchitis
___ is one of the most common infectious diseases of dogs worldwide. It is an acute contagious respiratory infections.
Canine Infectious Tracheobronchitis

Kennel cough
T/F: Kennel cough shows clinical symptoms associated with systemic illness.

* gagging, retching, nasal discharge
what is the difference between a mild and severe case of kennel cough?
single agent infection vs multiple agent infection (more severe)

* canine parainfulenza virus, mycoplasma, streptococcus, pasteurella, E. coli, Klebsiella
How long can Bordetella remain in the airways after the dog is ecovered and shows no clinical signs of disease.?
3 months
What disease does bordetella cause in pigs?
atrophic rhinitis

* pasteurella multocida type D
T/F: Pigs can develop atrophic rhinitis with a single agent or multiple agents (as with kennel cough in dogs).

*pasteurella multocida is required to produce the severe lesions that are observed in atrophic rhinitis.
Describe the physical changes of atrophic rhinitis..
severe distortion of the nasal septum

erosion of the turbinates
Bordetella causes___ in dogs, ___ in pigs, and ____ in rabbits, guinea pigs, cats, and horses.
kennel cough - dogs

atrophic rhinitis-- pigs

pneumonia-- other
____ causes Turkey Coryza.
Bordetella avium.
since bordetella is so easily diagnosed based on clinical presentation, why would you bother culturing respiratory secretions?
if the animal is severely ill and you need to determine particular bacterial species involved-- for antimicrobial sensitivity patterns.
T/F: It is okay to swab the nasal cavity of a pig with atrophic rhinitis as your sample collection method.
T/F: dogs that have recovered from kennel cough are highly resistant to reinfection for the subsequent year and half.

*6 months
T/F: atrophic rhinitis in pigs is not treatable.
T/F: the intranasal bordetella vaccine requires a booster series after the original vaccination.

* one initial dose and then annually.
Your dog recieves his bordetella vax annually. It has been 9 months since his last vax. When should a bordetella booster be given if you are going to board your dog next month?
at least 5 days prior to exposure.
Who gets vaccinated for bordetella in pigeries?
Sows-- to transmit colostral immunity to the piglets
Name some environmental factors that would aid in reducing the risk of spreading kennel cough.
isolate active cases
adequate ventilation
cleaning/ disinfecting
isolate new dogs for 4 weeks
clean/ dry bedding
clean equipment (air systems)
store feeds in appropriate containers
what environmental factors play a role in the onset of bovine infectious keratoconjunctivitis?
UV irritation, fliies, dust, woody pasture plants, white/ pink skin,
how soon can you see a corneal ulcer after the initial discomfort to the eye?
within 48 hours
T/F: bovine pink eye is most common in dairy cows.

*beef cattle
What does blepharospasm mean?
trying to shut the eye repeatedly/ continuously
what would you see on a slide if you took a swab of the lacrimal fluid of a cow with pink eye?
gram negative coccobacilli

* you don't know it's M. bovis until you culture it.
What is the common treatment of bovine pink eye?
none. it is a self- limiting disease.

* a subconjunctival deposit may be administered (topicals are not very realistic)
Is there a vaccine against IBK? what is the target?

*pili based ::: serotype specific and no cross protective immunity
___ is a gram negative, curved bacilli, requiring microaerophilic conditions. It is also an OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR, motile bacteria.

*causes disease in pigs
Lawsonia intracellularis
What does PPE stand for? Who is affected and how?
porcine proliferative enteropathy: proliferation of immature enterocytes which don't differentiate into absorptive cells as they move up the villous = extension and crowding of the villus-crypt = loss of digestive function


diarrhea and decreased weight gains
How is PPE different from PHE?
porcine proliferative enteropathy

proliferative HEMORRHAGIC enteropathy =sudden death
T/F: Lawsonia can be culture only on TSA media.

it is an obligate intracellular bacteria and cannot be cultured on routein media... must do histopath or DNA/PCR/Sero testing
Pigs infected with L. intracellularis when young develop mild clinical disease, clear the organism and develop immunity for how long?

*some piggeries use this as a strategy to prevent disease
The most common route of infection of brucella is ___.
This genera of bacteria was almost eradicated and is proving difficult to get rid of completely due to wildlife reserves. It is a gram negative coccobacillus, nonmotile, oxidase positive, strict aerobe, and zoonotic potential.
Name one of the mechanisms employed by Brucella to allow for survival and multiplication intracellularly.
inhibit phagolysosomal fusion

suppress myeloperoxidase H2O2-halide system

produce SOD and catalase = oxidative killing
T/F: if you are handling an aborted brucella fetus, annnnd you pick ur nose without thinking about what is on your hands. you are okay as long as there are no breaks in your epidermis.

*brucella can penetrate intact mucosal surfaces
what specific mechanisms of brucella infection cause abortion? ie: Why does the fetus get out of dodge?
1- interference with fetal circulation due to existing placentitis
2- direct effect of endotoxin
3- fetal stress from inflammatory response of fetal tissues
When is abortion due to brucella abortus likely to occur?
month 5 of gestation or later

*usually the cows first pregnancy
Do cows become immune to Brucella?
yes, they may abort the first pregnancy but they usually have immunity after that.

*they are carriers for life
What can you get from eating goat cheese?
Brucella melitensis

*acute mastitis due to above

When does abortion due to brucella canis generally occur in bitches?
around day 50
___ may cause hygromas in cattle in addition to abortion.
Brucella abortus
____ may cause meningoencephalitis, osteomyelitis, discospondylitis, glomerulonephritis, prostatitis, or anterior uveitis in addition to abortion in bitches.
Brucella canis
T/F: Brucella canis is a notifiable disease.
B. abortus causes ____ in horses. It is a combination of desmitis, osteomyelitis, and spondylitis.
Fistulous withers

*can also be poll evil

infection of the ligamentum nuchae and vertebrae
What is the preferred sample site of fluid collection for brucella in aborted fetuses?
abomasal fluid, placenta
What is the standard procedure for treating brucellosis in pigs and cattle?
test and slaughter
What is RB51? Who developed it? what are the stipulations for using it?
Brucella abortus vaccine for cattle

*G. Schurig

*must be administered by a USDA accredited DVM
In which species is there no brucella vaccine?

____ are the only bacteria that can colonize the harsh environment of the stomach.
Where can helicobacter colonize besides the stomach?
stomach- mucus layer

liver-- bile canaliculi

intestines-- crypts (colon, cecum)
gastric helicobacter is transmitted by feco-oral and oro-oral routes. intestinal helicobacter is transmitted by ___ route only
____ is a virulence factor of helicobacter. it is an irritant to the gastric mucosa and may damage adjacent cells. it is required to sustain colonization.
T/F: diagnosis of helicobacter is generally made via culture.

rarely cultured, generally direct visualization of the organism or the product (urease)
What is the oxygen and temperature requirements of leptospira?
Strict aerobe

Cooler (30 C)
What is the natural resevoir of leptospira?
lumen of th ePCT in the kidney
How long can leptospira survive out of the host?
6 mo once it's peed out
T/F: endotoxin of E. coli is more potent than endotoxin of leptospira.
T/F: one of leptospiras virulence factors is facultative intracellular survival.

* they can go through cells to reach the PCT but not live in cells
T/F: Leptospirosis can be transmitted venereally.

*mucus membrane contact
____ adapted serovars of leptospira tend to be relatively mild and sporadic while ____ adapted serovars are more likely to produce catastrophic infections with abortion storms.
host adapted - mild

non-adapted - severe
which serovar of lepto is least severe in cattle: hardjo, pomona, grippityphosa, cannicola?
hardjo-- host adapted

all others are non-adapted * fever, anemia, jaundice, agalactia, hemoglobinuria
most serovars of lepto can cause ___, a common ocular dz in horses.
equine recurrent uveitis
*periodic opthalmia
*moon blindness
Who's more likely to get a lepto infx: a junkyard rottie or a purse poodle?
*large breed outdoor dogs
how many days post infection before you see leptospira in the urine?
about 7 days
___ is the major antigen to which antibodies are produced for leptospira infections.
T/F: recovery from a lepto infx awards immunity for life.

*ONLY to that specific serovar.
If vaccination does not prevent transmission of lepto then why do we vaccinate cattle?
reduces economic looses to mastitis and abortion
____ causes endometritis and abortion in cows due to infection by bull. Eventually the cow will become immune and go to term.
Campylobacter fetus spp venerealis
Campylobacter fetus fetus is transmitted to sheep and goats by ___.
What major diseases are associated with campylobacter?

repro tract disorders
Why is campylobacter a public health risk?
* it is a major cause of diarrhea in people
You go to a sheep farm to deliver an early lamb/ possible abortion. The lamb is dead. You do a PM: the liver has donut shaped lesions. What might this be?
Campylobacter fetus fetus

*C. jejuni abortion in cattle occurs early in term whereas C. fetus fetus occurs late in term
How much of the herd should be tested for campylobacter jejuni? who should be tested and where do u collect the samples?
10% or 20 head whichever is less

bulls: prepuce
cows: vagina/ cervix
aborted fetus: abomasum, liver

T/F: abortion storms in sheep herds due to campylobacter may be stopped by using antibiotics.
Should you treat Campylobacter jejuni infections (enteritis) with antibiotics? Why or why not?

they are usually self-limiting

*can if it is really severe (erythromycin)
What preventative measures can be made to reduce C. fetus spp venerealis in your herd?
young virgin bulls-- less susceptible to infection


Vaccines: short lived immunity
Where can people likely get infected with Campylobacter?
puppies and kittens with diarrhea
raw chicken
unpasteurized milk