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88 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Colonisation is mediated by external structures called adhesins. what are some egs of adhesins?
pili/fimbriae
afimbrial adhesins
capsules
the tip of pilus can be made up of ____________ or _____________ which confers host specificity
pilin
proteins
pili can be found either at one end of cell (___________) or ____________
(polar)
petrichous
afimbrial adhesins are organised protein structures
t/f
false. afimbrial adhesins are proteins structures that are not organised into pili/fimbriae.
what is an example of afimbrial adhesin?
bordetella pertussis
what is the bordetella adhesin made up of
filamentous haemagglutinin
casules adhere to cell surfaces because....?
they have a sticky surface
what are capsules made up of
polysaccharide
what are the 4 functions of bacterial invasions
1/ they are obligate intacellular parasites, meaning they have to infect cell to replicate
2/escape normal flora so they dont have to compete for nutrients
3/hide from immune response
4/disseminate into deeper tissues (find niche)
Giardia lamblia is transmitted by ....?
zoonosis
giardia lamblia has two stages in its life cycle what are they
cyst- infectious and dormant
trophozoite - actively growing, disease causing
how does trophozoite attach to cell surface
surface lectins
bacteria always invades host cell true or false
false
infectivtiy assay is the method of quantitating infectious virus by plaque formation. what are the steps involved
growing cells in dish
adding virus and agar layet
wait several days
wash and stain
what are the steps involved in assembly and release for non-enveloped and enveloped viruses?
non-enveloped:spontaneous assembly of capsi poteins around nucleic acid genome, proteolytic cleavage, virions accumulate in cytoplasm/nucleus and cell lyses.
what are involved in assembly and release of enveloped virus?
1) budding from cell surface. viral envelope glycoproteins accumulate in plasma membrane, capsid proteins and nucleic acid condense directly adjacent to cell membrane, membrane surrounding nucleocapsid then bulges out and becomes 'nipped off'
2) cellulor secretory pathway virus particles bud into golgi-derived vesicles and are released to outside of cell when transport vesicle fuses with cell membrane.
what can halt the infectious process of viruses?
antibody, killing of infected cell by CTL, Nk cells , Ab mediated mechanisms, blocking replication cycle by antiviral drugs, IFN- anti-viral cytokines
what cytopathic effects are commin in virally infected cells?
1) inclusion bodies which represent accumulated virions or unassembled viral components
2) syncytia- fusion of neighbouring cells, formation of multi-nucleate cells
3) some viruses encode oncogenes: uncontrolled proliferation of infected cell and tumour devt
what properties do viruses which infect intestinal tract have?
1) hardy- can withstand bile and acid
2) no envelope
3) can replicate extensively in intenstinal tract and cause diarrhea or use this site to gain entry to body to cause generalised disease.
an example of a virus that infects the alimentary tract and goes on to spread systemically is...?
Hep A virus
What are the steps involved in PCR?
1. target DNA containing the sequence to be amplified is heat denatured to make it ss
2. temperature is lowered so that primers can anneal via H bonds to the DNA on both sides of target seq
3. DNA pol extends the primers and synthesizes copies of the target DNA seq using dNTPs.
what cytocidal effects do viruses have on cells?
1. necrosis- cell death due to viral replication
Rotavirus kills enterocytes while poliovirus destroys the neurons in spinal cord.
2. viruses can trigger apoptosis- programmed cell death to prevent viral replcation
what non-cytocidal effects do viruses have on cells?
some viruses do not directly kill cells but lead to persistent and latent infections. cells may lose their ability to perform particular functions (rhinovirus and cilial stasis).
cells may become transformed, virus replication may affect cellular version of oncogene- tumor devt
why do viruses make us feel sick?
1. viral damage to tissues and organs
2. immunopathology(fever, inflammation, kill infected cells eg liver damage in hepatitis) and immunosuppression. (HIV)
how does bacteria avoid complement factors?
1. capsules to prevent complement activation
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae generate serum resistance. these bacteria have modified lipooligosaccharides on their surface that interfere with the proper formation of MAC during complement cascade.
3. bacteria can bind to AB at Fc end so complement cannot bind to Fc. Staphylococcal protein A and G of S. pyogenes interferes with AB mediated opsonization by binding to Fc part of Ig
how does bacteria avoid detection of ABs?
1. remain inside host cells.
2. host mimicry eg N. meningitidis capsule type B is made up of sialic acid
3. coat with host proteins- allowing binding of Fc end of AB with FcR
4. colonise priveldged site that has poor access of ABs. - conceal antigens
5. antigenic variation- mutation and gene switching
how does bacteria avoid phagocytosis?
1.prevent opsonisation
2. prevent contact with phagocyte - capsule
how does bacteria prevent opsonisation?
1. prevent complement activation (S. pyogenes breaks down C5a)
2. prevents AB binding
3. coating with host proteins (S.aureus produce protein A interfering with AB mediated opsonization by binding to Fc portion of Ig)
what two ways are used by bacteria to survive in phagocytes?
inhibit phagolysosome fusion
escape into cytoplasm
resist killing by producting antioxidants and inhibiting respiratory cell burst.
what is an example of bacteria that can inhibit phagolysosome fusion?
chlamydia
salmonella tryphimurium
how do pathogens resists killing by the respiratory burst?
1. produce catalase- breaks down toxic products
2. prevent activation of respiratory burst
eg salmonella tryphymurium prevents assembly of NADPH oxidase
define epidemiology
the study of occurrence and distribution of disease in a population
a disease that occurs occasionally and at irregular intervals
sporadic disease
when a disease is maintained at a low level, steady frequency at a moderately time interval
endemic ( common cold)
Whats the difference between pandemic and epidemic?
Pandemic is when there is an increase in disease occurrence within a large population over a very wide region (H1N1) while an epidemic is an outbreak affecting many people at once eg influenza
how may animals transmit diseases (zoonosis) to humans?
1. when animals come into direct contact with diseased animal flesh- inoculation of infected animals to human's broken skin
2. drinking contaminated cow's milk
3. inhaling duct particles contaminated by animal excreta or products
4. eat insufficiently cooked infected flesh
what is a mechanical vector
pathogen is carried on the body surface of a vector. carriage is passive with no growth during transmission eg shigella and Yersinia pestis
what is a biological vector?
pathogen goes through a morphological / physiological change within the vector - malarial parasite
what are some indirect contact ways of transmission of pathogens?
fomites, vectors, water/food
staphylococcal food poisoning has short/long incubation period
short. food poisoning is due to preformed toxin in food while infection is due to bacteria multiplying in host/food
salmonella food infection has a __________ incubation period
long
norovirus is transmitted by......?
contaminated food or liquids, aerosols and fomites
how is rotavirus transmitted?
1. mether to fetus
2. person to person
3. water and food (resistant to chlorination)
4. faecal-oral route
5. asymptomatic shedding
6. nosocomial
there is a vaccine for norovirus but not for rotavirus t/f
false. there is a vaccine for rotavirus as immunity follows after infection but no long term immunity for norovirus.
immunity from rotavirus can be attained after 2 years old.
true
how do you differentiate staphylococcal aureus from staphylococcal
it is positive for a slide coagulase test. oxalated plasma is added to one of the two saline suspensions prepared on both sides of a slide. positive reactions show clumping
streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococcus aureus. which test differentiates between the two
catalase test which is positive in staphylococci (bubbles seen) while shown -ve
how do you identify streptococcus pneumoniae?
sensitive to optochin. when incubated aerobically at 37 degree celcius, greening or parial haemolysis results
is S. aureus and streptococcus pyogenes sensitive to penicillin
S. aureus is resistant but strep. pyogenes is sensiive to penicillin hence S.pyogenes can be treated with penicillin.
an example of a bacteria that produces toxins and pili
Etnterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
Streptococcus pyogenes produce only immediate damage
false- there is post streptococcal hypersensitivity
what happens in penumonia?
rapid multiplication of Streptococcus pneumoniae
invasion of alveolar tissues
in flow of fluid into alveoli and gas exchange canonot occur
alveolar inflammation and alveolar fills with fluid
altered permeability of cells and entry of fluids
inflammatory response reduces lung function
bacteria spread by blood
influenza is part of the __________ family
orthomyxoviridae
rhinovirus is part of the _________________ family
picornaviridae
why do some vaccines fail?
1. wrong sort of immune response
2. responses too low.
3. respones are induced to wrong target
4. immature immune system
5. non-responders in population
6. immunosuppression
7. immune evasion- antigenic variation
8. attentuated vaccines can cause full-blown illnesses in indiv whose immune system is compromised
9. attenuated virus can mutate in ways that restore virulence
how is communication between microbes carried out?
1. quorum sensing: cell to cell communication mediated by small signals
2. biofilm: how microbes create their own microenvironments and niches . organised microbial systems consist of layers of microbial cells associated with surfaces
what are some factors that can affect normal flora?
climate/geography
age
hospitalisation
personal hygiene
diet
medical treatments/interventions
what are some benefits of the normal flora?
1. supplies some metabolites like Vit D and K
2. GIT physiology- digestion eg modify bile acids
3. prevents establishment of pathogens by outcompeting pathogens for nutrients
4. stimulates devt of immune system as microbiota is controlled by the innate immune response.
how is diagnosis of syphilis carried out?
dark ground or flourescent microscopy on vesicle fluid, Serology screening then specific test
Organism is not cultured
how is diagnosis of gonorrhoeae done?
gram staining
culture on selective medium
penicillin resistance
PCR on urine sample
how is herpes treated
acyclovir
is the incubation period of herpes long or short?
short
__________ is a small DNA virus that has >60 serotypes
papillomavirus
what can be used to treat chlamydia?
azithromycin - single dose
doxycycline- 7 days
what are the complications that chlamydia is associated with
pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility
which STIs have high incidence of asymptomatic carriers?
chlamydia, gonorrhoeae
_____________ has an unusal developmental cycle- retinaculate and developmental bodies
Chlamydia trachomatis
what defines someone as HIV positive?
1. test positive for HIV antibody
2. CD4 t cell count <200/ml whole blood
3. variety of oppurtunistic fungal, protozoal, bacterial or viral infection
how is HIV diagnosed?
detect antibody by EIA
confirm by Western blot (immunoblot)
window of 1-3 mths before AB seen
How is HIV acquired?
1. sexual intercourse
2. risk higher for anal sex
3. Injecting drug user
4. perinatal
5. blood transfusion, organ transplant, artificial insemination
why is it difficult to control HIV?
1. long asymptomatic IP
2. no effective vaccine because vaccines evades immune system
3. chemothreapy can reduce viral loads but does not eliminate completely
4. cost and unpleasant side effects of chemo
how is pure culture of bacteria cultivated?
1. streak dilution- streak plate where cells are picked up by a sterile wire loop and wiped off by streaking along surface of a solid medium.
2. spread plate: 1:10 000 dilution of bacterial culture in broth, pour 0.1ml onto surface of pre-poured agar: colonies appear only on surface
3. pour plate:1ml taken from 1:10000 dultion of culture in broth, mixed thoroughly with melted agar, cooled to harden and incubated: colonies appear abov and below
what are some factors affecting bacterial growth?
physical factors include pH, temp, oxygen conc, hydrostatic pressure, osmotic pressure, radiation, moisture

Nutritional factors includ availability of C, N, S, P , trace elements and vitamins
spectrophotometer is used for..??
measure bacterial growth by determining degree of light transmission through the culture.
describe how temperature affects bacterial growth.
obligate: organism must have specified environmental conditions
facultative: organism able to adjust and tolerate to envt condition but able to live in other conditions
bacteria can be classified to psychrophiles (15-20), mesophiles (25-40), thermophiles (50-60
why do halophiles require sodium?
1. cells require sodium to maintain a high intracellular K+ conc for enzymatic function
2. cells need sodium to maintain integrity of cell walls.
what types of culture media are there?
natural, selective, synthetic, complex, differential, enrichment
what is a complex medium
contains reasonably and familiar material but varies slightly in chemical composition from batch to batch
selective medium- what is it and give an eg.
encourages growth of some organisms but suppresses growth of others eg antibiotics
differential medium- what is it and give an eg
contains a constituent that causes an observable change - MacConkey's agar
enrichment medium-what is it and give an eg
contains special nutrients that allow growth of a particular organism that might not otherwise be present in sufficient nos. to allow it to be isolated and identified.
how are obligate anaerobes cultured?
all molecular O2 must be removed so agar plates are incubated in sealed jars containing chemical substances that remove O2 and generate CO2 or water
what is a plasmid?
circular, covalently closed DNA molecules that replicate independently from chromosome. they often dont carry genes that are essential to life of a bacterium in all envronments.
what are the functions of plasmids?
1. bacteria needs to be able to replicate quickly so to have non-core functions optional is a smart move
2. flexibility- huge range of functions not maintained by each cell so this significantly broadens niches available
3. plasmids can give DNA a selective advantage: protect against unwanted phages/transposons and for repair- DNA repair switched on same time as those for competence; recombination (mixing up of DNA)
what is teh uptake of naked DNA by bacteria
transformation
what is transduction
the accidental transfer of bacterial DNA by bacteriophages. during packaging of phage, some DNA included
describe transposons.
they can move between genera- (on phages or on plasmids)
range in size
contain indirect and direct repeats
target site may not be specific
seq varies from Tn to Tn but size will be characteristic of particular Tn
net result is that Tn appears in a different region of DNA - cut and inserted elsewhere, copied and inserted (replicative transposition)
conjugation- what is it
transfer of a plasmid from one bacterium to another by a F factor
1. bacteria attached to each other by pilus
2. two strands separate- one is transferred into the recipient
3. transfer happens thru a channel- tube that connects donor and recipient.
4. ssDNA is replicated
5. when replication is finished, the recipient cell is known as a transconjugant.