B737 System Validation Question Bank - Brakes & Landing Gear R1

Front 1

1. When does the landing gear transfer unit operate? (Aircraft airborne)
a. When the gear is down, engine #1 N2 is below a set limit and the gear lever is selected UP
b. When the engine pump pressure is below limits with gear lever selected UP
c. When the gear is down, system “A pressure is below limits, and the gear lever is selected UP

Back 1

a. When the gear is down, engine #1 N2 is below a set limit and the gear lever is selected UP

Front 2

2. How is wheel rotation stopped during gear retraction?
a. Both nose wheels and main wheels by snubber action
b. Both nose wheels and main wheels by auto-hydraulic braking
c. Nose wheel by snubbers and main wheels by auto-hydraulic braking

Back 2

c. Nose wheel by snubbers and main wheels by auto-hydraulic braking

Front 3

3. How is the landing gear extended manually?
a. All gear manually cranked down and locked simultaneously
b. Individual manual extension handles release up locks
c. Individual gear manually cranked down and locked

Back 3

b. Individual manual extension handles release up locks

Front 4

4. Which conditions are necessary to use the nose wheel steering?
a. “A” system pressurized, gear lever in DOWN position, nosewheel steering switch NORMAL
b. “B” system pressurized, gear lever is DOWN position, nosewheel steering switch NORMAL
c. “Standby” system pressurized, air/ground switch in ground

Back 4

a. “A” system pressurized, gear lever in DOWN position, nosewheel steering switch NORMAL

Front 5

5. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure for normal brakes?
a. System “A” for inboard main and “B” for outboard main brakes
b. System “A” for all main wheel brakes
c. System “B” for all main wheel brakes

Back 5

c. System “B” for all main wheel brakes

Front 6

6. How does the ANTI SKID system control normal braking when a single wheel skid is detected?
a. Modulates pressure to the individual wheel brake
b. Release pressure to all brakes
c. Disarms the Autobrakes

Back 6

a. Modulates pressure to the individual wheel brake

Front 7

7. Autobrakes are available with a system “B” failure as long s the alternate brakes are operational
a. True
b. False

Back 7

b. False

Front 8

8. What does a momentary AUTO BRAKE DISARM light indicate when RTO mode is selected?
a. Successful automatic self-test
b. RTO mode is inoperative
c. Anti-skid system is inoperative

Back 8

a. Successful automatic self-test

Front 9

9. A successful test of the Autobrake RTO feature is indicated by:
a. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light remains illuminated for more than one minute after moving the selector switch to position 1, 2 or 2
b. Moving the selector switch to RTO with the wheel speed greater than 60 knots and the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light remains illuminated
c. The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate after RTO is selected
d. After the RTO position is selected the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates briefly and extinguishes

Back 9

d. After the RTO position is selected the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates briefly and extinguishes

Front 10

10. What occurs during a rejected takeoff between 60 and 90 knots with RTO selected?
a. Autobrakes will not be applied AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates
b. Autobrakes applied to provide level 2 deceleration rate
c. Autobrakes applied to equivalent of full manual brakes

Back 10

a. Autobrakes will not be applied AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates

Front 11

11. Autobrakes may be disarmed after landing by:
a. Applying manual brakes
b. Advancing the thrust lever(s) after touchdown
c. Moving the speed brake handle to the down position
d. All answers are correct

Back 11

d. All answers are correct

Front 12

12. What occurs if a landing is made with RTO selected?
a. Full automatic braking, AUTO BRAKE DISARM light comes on 2 minutes later
b. No automatic braking, AUTO BRAKE DISARM light comes on
c. No automatic braking, AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate

Back 12

b. No automatic braking, AUTO BRAKE DISARM light comes on

Front 13

13. Which situation would cause the ANTI SKID INOP light to illuminate while setting the parking park?
a. A fault in the parking brake system
b. Parking brake is set without brake pressure
c. Autobrake shuttle valves are out of synchronization with anti-skid valves

Back 13

a. A fault in the parking brake system

Front 14

14. When would braking with only accumulator pressure occur?
a. With loss of “A” system hydraulic pressure
b. With loss of “B” system hydraulic pressure
c. With loss of “A” and “B” system hydraulic pressure

Back 14

c. With loss of “A” and “B” system hydraulic pressure

Front 15

15. What is the hydraulic pressure source for the alternate brake system?
a. “Standby” hydraulic system
b. Hydraulic system “A”
c. Brake “accumulator” pressure

Back 15

b. Hydraulic system “A”

Front 16

16. How is the alternate brake system activated?
a. Automatically when “B” HYD pressure is low
b. When parking brakes are set with accumulator pressure
c. Place the alternate brakes selector switch to ON

Back 16

a. Automatically when “B” HYD pressure is low

Front 17

17. Which of the following are available with the alternate brakes?
a. Anti-skid
b. Autobrakes, touchdown and locked – wheel protection, and anti-skid
c. Autobrakes, anti-skid, locked – wheel protection
d. All answers are correct

Back 17

a. Anti-skid

Front 18

18. Where is the main landing gear “down and locked” viewer located?
a. Four seats aft of overwing exit on right side of aisle
b. Four seats aft of overwing exit on left side of aisle
c. Third window aft of overwing exit on left side of aisle

Back 18

c. Third window aft of overwing exit on left side of aisle

Front 19

19. While setting the parking brakes, the ANTI SKID INOP light illuminates. This indicates:
a. There is no parking brake hydraulic pressure
b. A malfunction in the parking brake system
c. The parking brake is set
d. All answers are correct

Back 19

*b. A malfunction in the parking brake system

Front 20

20. Auto Brakes are available:
a. With “A” system pressure
b. With “B” system pressure
c. With “Standby” system pressure
d. All answers are correct

Back 20

b. With “B” system pressure

Front 21

21. Landing with the AUTO BRAKE switch in the RTO position ____________.
a. A. Will cause the selector switch to snap to the OFF position
b. Will leave the system disarmed, resulting in no automatic braking
c. Will cause maximum automatic braking upon wheel spin-up

Back 21

b. Will leave the system disarmed, resulting in no automatic braking

Front 22

22. Brakes should not be applied until after touchdown:
a. True
b. False

Back 22

a. True

Front 23

23. A Landing Gear Transfer Unit provides a backup hydraulic power source to ___________.
a. Retract the landing gear in the event hydraulic system “A” fails
b. Extend the landing gear in the event hydraulic system “B” fails
c. Retract the landing gear in the event #1 engine fails on takeoff
d. Retract the landing gear in the event hydraulic “Standby” system fails

Back 23

c. Retract the landing gear in the event #1 engine fails on takeoff

Front 24

24. What is the maximum speed at which the pilot may extend the landing gear?
a. .85 mach
b. 270 knots
c. 250 knots
d. 200 knots

Back 24

b. 270 knots

Front 25

25. Is the RTO position of the Autobrakes required for takeoff if the Autobrakes are operational?
a. Yes
b. No

Back 25

a. Yes

Front 26

26. A check of the break wear indicators is valid when the parking brake is:
a. Set with hydraulic pressure
b. Brake wear indicators are checked only by maintenance not by the flight crew
c. Released

Back 26

a. Set with hydraulic pressure

Front 27

27. When the aircraft is towed, the ___________ should be off or a steering lockout pin must be installed.
a. Anti-skid
b. Autobrakes
c. “A” system pressure
d. “B” system pressure

Back 27

c. “A” system pressure

Front 28

28. With failure of both “A” and “B” hydraulic systems, approximately what will the brake pressure indicator read when no more accumulator braking is available?
a. Zero
b. 1500 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. 2800 psi

Back 28

c. 1000 psi

Front 29

29. What is the maximum nosewheel turning angle in either direction that can be commanded by the rudder pedals?
a. 7 degrees
b. 25 degrees
c. 78 degrees
d. The rudder pedals can not steer the nosewheel

Back 29

a. 7 degrees

Front 30

30. In flight, with the landing gear up, a warning horn that can not be silenced with the HORN CUTOUT will sound
a. With flaps 15 degrees and one throttle at idle and the other forward of 30 degrees
b. With flaps 25 degrees only if both throttles are at or near idle power
c. Anytime the flaps are at 25 degrees

Back 30

c. Anytime the flaps are at 25 degrees

Front 31

31. What is minimum “wait” time (-500), if the weight exceeds the chart value in the Maximum Quick Turn Around Weight Limits chart?
a. 53 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 62 minutes

Back 31

a. 53 minutes

Front 32

32. What is the maximum speed at which the pilot may retract the landing gear?
a. 235 knots
b. 270 knots
c. 320 knots

Back 32

a. 235 knots

Front 33

33. The gear is down and locked with three green lights. What is the speed limit?
a. 235 knots
b. 270 knots
c. 320 knots

Back 33

c. 320 knots

Front 34

34. When must the Autobrake RTO feature be selected?
a. For all takeoffs with anti-skid inoperative
b. For all takeoffs with Autobrakes operative
c. For all takeoffs on runways less than 7900 feet

Back 34

b. For all takeoffs with Autobrakes operative

Front 35

35. What is the function of the landing gear transfer valve during gear retraction when the #1 engine RPM drops below a limit value that is less than idle?
a. Switches hydraulic pressure source to the “B” system
b. Switches hydraulic pressure source to the “A” system
c. Switches hydraulic pressure source to the “Standby” system
d. Switches hydraulic pressure source to the “FU” system

Back 35

a. Switches hydraulic pressure source to the “B” system

Front 36

These Cards are not verified accurate. Please, If you find a mistake, email: [e-mail]

Back 36

Check back for future revisions!