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198 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The P-wave represents:
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Atrial Depolarization
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The QRS complex represents:
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Ventricular Depolarization
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The ST segment represents:
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Segment following ventricular depolarization and preceding ventricular repolarization
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The T-wave represents:
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Ventricular Repolarization
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The QT interval represents:
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The duration of electrical systole
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A normal blood pressure is:
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110-140 mm Hg
------------------------ 60-90 mm Hg |
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Avg number of respirations per minute for an adult:
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14 - 20
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A normal blood pressure is:
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110-140 mm Hg
------------------------ 60-90 mm Hg |
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The average adult pulse rate ranges from:
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70 - 80 bpm
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The effective half-life of heparin is about:
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90 minutes
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Avg number of respirations per minute for an adult:
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14 - 20
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What word refers to the number of particles in a solution?
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Osmolality
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The average adult pulse rate ranges from:
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70 - 80 bpm
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The effective half-life of heparin is about:
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90 minutes
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What word refers to the number of particles in a solution?
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Osmolality
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Normal oral temperature is:
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37C
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What is the normal mean pressure of the right atrium in units of mm Hg?
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1 to 5
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What is the normal mean pulmonary artery wedge pressure in units of mm Hg?
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9 to 18
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Average normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is:
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8 to 25 mg/dL of blood
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The average normal range for creatinine is:
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0.6 to 1.5 mg/dL of blood
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The normal conduction path of the electrical impulse of the heart is:
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SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS
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The thickness or degree of "stickiness" of a contrast agent:
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Viscosity
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The degree to which a contrast agent is harmful:
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Toxicity
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The contrast agent's ability to mix with the blood and prevent embolization
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Miscibility
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Ringer's solution contains:
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Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, and Chloride
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French refers to outer diameter. 1 Fr =
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1/3 mm
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The Wall Stent is what type of stent?
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Self-expanding Stent
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What component converts video images from the TV chain into digital form?
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The analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
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The window level controls:
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Density
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The window width controls:
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Contrast
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What occurs when the mask and the series images are not aligned?
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Misregistration
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The diameter of a guidewire is measured and expressed in units of:
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Millimeters or fractions of an inch
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The control film used in subtraction radiography is also referred to as the:
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Zero film or base film
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The formula used to compute the magnification factor of an object is:
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SID/SOD
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What can amend misregistration of images?
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Remasking
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What adds back a small part of the mask to the subtracted image to help surgeons track an area?
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Landmarking
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The aortic arch supplies blood to:
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The upper extremities, head, and neck
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The aortic arch is best demonstrated in which position?
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RPO
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The brachiocephalic artery is also called:
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The innominate artery
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The brachiocephalic artery branches off to the right and divides into:
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The right common carotid and right subclavian arteries
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The brachiocephalic artery supplies:
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The right side of the head and neck
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The left common carotid artery divides into:
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Left internal and external carotids
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The left common carotid artery supplies:
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The left side of the head and neck
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The left subclavian artery divides into:
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The left vertebral and left axillary arteries
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The left subclavian artery supplies:
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The left upper extremity
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The right and left common carotid arteries bifurcate at what level and landmark?
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C4, Jaw line
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The external carotids supply:
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The exterior head, face, mininges, neck
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The internal carotids supply:
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The anterior brain, orbital and nasal regions, and the face
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The arteries supplying the brain are branches of which two arteries?
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Internal carotids and vertebral arteries
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The internal carotid arteries branch into:
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The anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries
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The verterbral arteries pass through the cervical transverse foramen and join to form which artery?
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Basilar artery
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What controls blood pressure in the brain and allows a continued supply of oxygenated blood to the brain, in the event that a vessel becomes obstructed?
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The Circle of Willis
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The Circle of Willis is formed by the union of what 6 pairs of arteries?
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Anterior cerebral arteries
Anterior communicating arteries Middle cerebral arteries Posterior cerebral arteries Internal carotid arteries Posterior communicating arteries |
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The femoral artery is located where in relation to the femoral vein and inguinal ligament?
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Lateral to the femoral vein and inferior to the inguinal ligament
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Name one characteristic feature of a cerebral AVM:
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1) cluster of tangled vessels
2) large, hypertrophied, often tortuous, vessels leading into the cluster 3) extremely rapid filling of the vessels; rapid venous filling |
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Meninges are:
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A continuation of the brain, which surrounds the spinal cord in three layers.
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What is the outer covering of the spinal cord?
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Dura mater
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What is the middle layer of the meninges?
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Arachnoid
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What is the inner layer of the meninges?
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Pia mater
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What is the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid layer?
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Subdural space
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What is the space between the vertebra and the dura mater?
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Epidural space
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What is the space between the arachnoid layer and the pia mater?
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Subarachnoid space
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At what level does the spinal cord end?
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L1-2
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The special anastomosis of the cerebral vessels that permits collateral circulation if a vessel blockage exists is the:
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Circle of Willis
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If the proximal portion of the subclavian artery is stenosed, the subclavian artery may "steal" blood from which artery?
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Vertebral artery
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A picture element is also called a:
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Pixel
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The image matrix is a group of:
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Pixels
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Shades of gray in the digital image are a result of the image's:
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Frequency or Dynamic Range
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What is a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
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A solid state device that converts visible light into electrons.
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Fluctuations in photon intensity can create noise on a digital image that is called:
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Quantum Mottle
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Patient motion can be eliminated from an image during post processing by what two adjustments?
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Remasking and/or pixel shifting
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A linear rate rise (used with an automatic pressure injector) is:
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A gradual rise of the PSI (pounds per square inch)
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Most catheters are made of what 3 types of materials?
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polyethylene/polyurethane
teflon nylon/vinyl |
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How well you can twist and turn the catheter is:
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Torque
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How well the catheter tracts over a wire is:
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Tractability
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How well a catheter maintains its shape is:
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Memory
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How well a catheter moves within a vessel is:
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The coefficient of friction
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What material is used to make most sheaths and dilators?
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Teflon
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Catheters are usually made from what material?
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Polyethylene/Polyurethane
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Catheters you use when you want to inject at high flow rates are made from:
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Nylon/Vinyl
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A smaller, shorter injector tubing gives you a lower or higher flow rate?
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Higher flow rate
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Balloons are compliant or non-compliant. Compliance is:
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The ability to stretch. High compliance has greater dilating force.
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A guidewire is made up of what two parts?
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1) a tightly wrapped stainless steel spring
2) mandril core |
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A solid wire that runs down the middle of the stainless steel spring in a guidwire is:
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The mandril
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The tip on the J-tipped wire is measured by:
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Radius
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A Colapinto needle would be used during what type of procedure?
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TIPS
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TIPS stands for:
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Transjugular Intrahepatic Portal Systemic Shunt
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What type of IVC filter would you want to use in a patient with a large vena cava?
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Bird's Nest Filter
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Small wires with polyester fibers on them used as an embolic:
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Coils
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A temporary embolization material is:
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Gelfoam
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For the best view of the carotid bifurcation you would do which oblique?
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An LAO if you were in the L carotid, an RAO if you were in the R carotid
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For a TIA you would do which two views?
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Townes and Lateral
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When looking for a cerebral aneurysm, you most commonly select the Internal Carotid and then do which views?
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Townes, Lateral, Transorbital Oblique, SMV, and/or Houghton
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Which cerebral arteries do you select to look at the posterior brain circulation?
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The Vertebral arteries
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If you are unable to select the Vertebrals to look at posterior brain circulation, where could you leave your catheter?
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Subclavian artery
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If the vertebrals cannot be selected to demonstrate posterior brain circulation and you leave your catheter in the subclavian, what must you do prior to the run?
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Put a blood pressure cuff up on the same side you are in (left subclavian, left arm)
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What are the most common views used to demonstrate posterior brain circulation?
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Towne, Waters, Lateral
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Rotate the imager 15-20 degrees cranial for which cerebral angiogram view?
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Townes
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Rotate the imager 20-30 degrees caudal for which cerebral angiogram view?
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Waters
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Rotate imager 15-30 degrees caudal and oblique 10-20 degrees for which cerebral angiogram view?
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Transorbital Oblique
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Tilt the patient's head back as far as possible, then angle tube approximately 30 degrees caudal for which cerebral angiogram view?
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SMV
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Tilt top of patient's head toward their shoulder and rotate the tube lateral and oblique for which cerebral angiogram view?
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Houghton
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Flow is reversed in the vertebral artery:
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Subclavian Steal Syndrome
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What causes Subclavian Steal Syndrome?
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A blockage in the subclavian artery near the vertebral artery. The blood is shunted past the brain through the Circle of Willis and then to the vertebral artery. The reverse flow in the vert fills the subclavian.
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If looking for Subclavian Steal on the Arch run, you should:
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Film out longer
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Spinal angiograms are usually done to:
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Visualize the vasculature supply to spinal tumors
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On a spinal angiogram, which artery usually arises from a posterior intercostal on the left and supplies the lower two thirds of the spinal cord?
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Artery of Adamkiewicz
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Myelograms are usually done for:
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Stenosis in the spinal column
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The spinal cord ends at:
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L2
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A lumbar puncture is usually made at:
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The L3-L4 disc space
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During a lumbar puncture, the spinal needle is inserted into:
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The subarachnoid space
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The vertebral body is cannulated transpedicular in which two procedures:
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Vertebroplasty
Kyphoplasty |
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What procedure is best for vertebral fractures secondary to trauma or osteoporosis?
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Kyphoplasty
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What are 4 indications for performing a pulmonary angiogram:
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1) Suspicion of PE
2) Pulmonary Hypertension 3) AVM 4) Tumor |
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To look at the pulmonary arteries you must gain access how?
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Through the venous system
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What 3 ways can you gain access for a pulmonary angiogram?
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1) Rt upper extremity
2) femoral vein 3) jugular vein |
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Prior to what procedure should you make sure that the patient does not have a left bundle branch block?
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Pulmonary angiogram
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The two catheters of choice for a pulmonary angiogram are:
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The Grollman or Van Amen pigtail
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Describe catheter travel (femoral approach) for a pulmonary angiogram.
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Up the IVC, into the R Atrium, through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, to the pulmonary valve and into the pulmonary artery
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Pulmonary artery pressures average between:
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8-25 mm Hg with a mean of 13
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Contrast injections for a pulmonary angiogram are between:
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30 and 50 ml
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If a patient has a duplicated cava, where would you want to place an IVC filter?
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Suprarenal - ABOVE the renal veins
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An occlusion of the distal aorta at the bifurcation into the common iliac arteries which can be found in males 30-40 years old. Symptoms are claudication, absent or diminished pulses and erectile dysfunction
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LeRiche Syndrome
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The renal artery can be selectively catheterized for intervention with catheter shapes like:
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Cobra or RC2
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What is the cause of hypertension in 1/3 of hypertensive women?
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Fibromuscular Dysplasia
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The Uterine Artery comes off of the:
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Internal Iliac Artery
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Name 4 indications for a TIPS procedure:
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1) portal hypertension
2) bleeding varices 3) ascites 4) cirrhosis |
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What is a normal wedged hepatic vein pressure?
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5mm
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A wedged venogram in a TIPS is used to see what?
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If the patient's portal system is open
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Where would you insert the needle for a right-sided percutaneous biliary drainage?
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2cm posterior to the midaxillary line at the eleventh intercostal space
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If a patient cannot lay flat on their stomach for a Nephrostomy placement, which side should you place up?
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The side of interest should be up.
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What has a pigtail in the bladder, a locking loop in the kidney, and the end of the catheter exits the skin?
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A Nephroureteral stent
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What is the function of Glucagon when given to a patient prior to gastrostomy placement?
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Glucagon slows peristalsis so that the stomach can be inflated with air.
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To gain access to the arteries in the upper extremities, you would use what approach?
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Femoral or Brachial
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Thoracic Outlet Syndrome is usually caused by:
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A rib compressing the subclavian artery or vein
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A compression of the Brachial Plexus, subclavian artery or vein between the clavicle and first rib is:
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Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
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In hemodialysis patients, a Brescia-Cimino fistula is where the distal radial artery is grafted to the:
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Distal cephalic vein
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In hemodialysis patients, a loop graft connects the brachial artery to the:
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Basilic vein
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A straight graft in a hemodialysis patient connects:
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The radial arter to the basilic vein
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During an interventional radiology procedure, repeat vital signs should be taken how frequently?
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Every 5-15 minutes
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If a patient's blood pressure drops, you can place them in what position?
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Trendelenberg (head down)
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Where would you find the posterior tibial pulse?
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Behind the medial malleolus in the ankle
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The dorsalis pedis pulse is found where?
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On the mid dorsum of the foot
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A graded pulse of +2 indicates what?
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Normal pulse
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Normal hematocrit values for males and females are:
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Male: 45-52%
Female: 37-48% |
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A normal INR falls within what range?
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0.5 - 1.5
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A normal PT falls within what range?
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11-16
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A normal PTT falls within what range?
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25-38
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A normal Potassium (K) falls within what range?
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3.5-5 mEg/L
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A normal Glucose falls within what range?
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70-110mg
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A normal Bilirubin value falls within what range?
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0.1 - 1 mg/dl
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A normal BUN value falls within what range?
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8 - 25 mg
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A normal creatinine for males and females falls within what range?
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Male: 0.6 - 1.5
Female: 0.6 - 1.1 |
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A normal white blood cell value falls within what range?
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4,300 - 10,800
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A normal red blood cell value falls within what range?
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Male: 4.6 - 5.9 million
Female: 4.2 - 5.4 million |
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A normal PLT value falls within what range?
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150,000 - 350,000/mm3
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What lab checks the percentage of red blood cells in the plasma?
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Hematocrit (HCT)
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Thrombocytopenia is:
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A low platelet count
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This test tells you how well the kidney is filtering waste.
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Creatinine
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High levels of potassium can indicate:
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Renal failure
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What test is used to check how well the blood clots?
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PT (Prothrombin Time)
PTT (Partial Thrombin Time) INR (International Normalization Ratio) |
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PTT is:
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Partial Thrombin Time
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The interventionalist uses this test (done in the procedure room) to tell how well the patient is anti-coagulated during a procedure.
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ACT (activated coagulation time)
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INR stands for:
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International Normalization Ratio
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If a procedure is an emergency, how could a patient's INR be quickly corrected?
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With Vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
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Contraction of the atria
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P
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Contraction of the ventricles
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QRS
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Ventricular recovery (resting of the heart)
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T
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The time it takes from the beginning of the atrial contraction to the beginning of the ventricular contracts
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PR
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All bacteria is killed when steaming at what temperature?
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160F
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This medication is often used when giving a patient Urokinase because it will help with the shaking that Urokinase can cause:
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Demerol (Meperidine)
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What medication would most likely be given for symptomatic bradycardia?
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Atropine
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What is the half-life of Heparin?
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90 minutes
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A patient's normal saline IV should be running at what rate?
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75 - 150 ml per hour
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If a patient is experiencing an air embolism, what position should you place him/her in?
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Trendelenberg and positioned in the left lateral decubitus position to prevent air from entering the pulmonary arterial system
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Bradycardia is when your heart beats less than how many beats per minute?
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60
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What is an accumulation of blood in the chest cavity called?
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Hemothorax
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Name the 3 ventral branches of the abdominal aorta:
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Celiac Artery
Superior Mesenteric Artery Inferior Mesenteric Artery |
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The celiac artery arises at what vertebral level?
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T12-L1
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The superior mesenteric artery arises at what vertebral level?
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L1-L2, about 1cm below the celiac axis
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The inferior mesenteric artery arises at what vertebral level?
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L4-L4, typically on the left anterolateral surface of the aorta
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What is the most common disease affecting the abdominal aorta?
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Atherosclerosis
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What is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysms?
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Degeneration (atherosclerosis-associated)
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The likelihood of a AAA rupture is goverened by what law?
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Laplace's Law
(wall stress = pressure x radius) |
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Ionic high-osmolar contrast agents are considered to be compounds with a ____ ratio (contrast to osmolality particle ratio).
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3:2
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The iodine in contrast is incorporated into water-soluble molecules that form what?
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A triiodinated benzene ring
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Ionic low-osmolar contrast agents are compounds with a _____ ratio (contrast to osmolality particle ratio).
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6:2
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Nonionic low-osmolar contrast agents are considered to be compounds with a _____ ratio (contrast to osmolality particle ratio).
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3:1
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What is it called when there is a transmission of pathogens by way of objects, such as medical equipment?
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Vehicle
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What mode of disease transmission occurs from a sting or bite from an infected animal?
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Vector
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What type of disease transmission occurs when infected droplets are inhaled?
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Airborne
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What is a nosocomial infection?
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An infection acquired in the hospital.
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What disease exhibits ulcers in the fingers and toes as a result of small and medium arteries being inflamed or clotted and is often associated with tobacco use?
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Buerger's Disease
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What syndrome is characterized by vasospasm in extremities with no underlying cause?
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Raynaud's Syndrome
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A gradual blockage of the infrarenal aorta with buttock, thigh and calf claudication, and impotence in males is what syndrome?
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Leriche Syndrome
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The hub of an IVC filter should point in which direction?
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Direction of blood flow
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What is the area on the tungsten anode that is bombarded by electrons from the cathode?
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The focal spot
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Most monitors used in angiography suites today have higher resolution screens of what resoluation?
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1024x1024
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